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Quiz by curfman.melissa, created more than 1 year ago

LAM II final exam practice questions

169

	Created by curfman.melissa almost 9 years ago

LAM II FINAL

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Question 1 of 200

You are presented a Holstein dairy cow with chronic watery diarrhea. No other cows in the herd are affected. What would be the most likely Dx?

Select one of the following:

Tuberculosis
Rumen acidosis
Paratuberculosis
Ostertagiasis
Paramphistomiasis

Explanation

Question 2 of 200

Which European beef breed is shown in this picture?

Select one of the following:

Charolais
Limousine
Hereford
Shorthorn
Belgian Blue

Explanation

Question 3 of 200

What condition would you suspect if you palpated a cow rectally and found the rumen enlarged as shown in the picture?

Select one of the following:

Left abomasal displacement
Vagal indigestion
Abomasal volvulus
Lymphosarcoma
Traumatic reticuloperitonitis

Explanation

Question 4 of 200

The most common infectious cause of neonatal calf diarrhea is

Select one of the following:

Cryptosporidia
Escherichia
Streptococcus
Pseudomonas
Staphylococcus

Explanation

Question 5 of 200

Which one of the following statements is true concerning Johne's disease eradication from a cattle herd?

Select one of the following:

Current diagnostic methods allow identification of infected animals early in life.
A test and removal program for infected cows is the most profitable method.
Fecal-oral transmission is less important then transmission through milk.
Isolating calves from cows at birth is an effective control method
Culling clinical cases reduces herd prevalence of infection.

Explanation

Question 6 of 200

Which element is often deficient in the soil, thus predisposing to the development of grass tetany in grazing cattle

Select one of the following:

Copper.
Phosphorus
Molybdenum
Zinc
Selenium

Explanation

Question 7 of 200

Magnets given as a preventive for traumatic reticulitis in cattle should be given

Select one of the following:

To yearling cattle
At time of first breeding
at time of first parturition
When total mixed rations are fed
When chopped feeds are included in the deit

Explanation

Question 8 of 200

Which one of the following statements is true regarding the "scootch test"?

Select one of the following:

This is a test used to determine the amount of rumen fill in a cow
Tricep muscle fasiculation is usually elicited by this test
Odontoprisis is a consistent sign of a positive reaction
The test is also know as a "withers depression"
A positive test is a positive response; the cow flinches

Explanation

Question 9 of 200

The normal pH range for rumen fluid in cattle is:

Select one of the following:

2.5-5.5
5.5-7.0
2.5-7.0
7.0-8.5
3.5-8.5

Explanation

Question 10 of 200

Which one of the following drugs would be the therapy pf choice for a bloated cow that was just brought in after overeating on legume pasture?

Select one of the following:

Magnesium carbnate
Sodium acid phosphate
Calcium boroglucoate
Poloxalene
Turpentine

Explanation

Question 11 of 200

Regarding the salmonellosis outbreak on the Hudson farm that was discussed in an assigned reference, how was the infection introduced on the farm?

Select one of the following:

Purchased calves from a sale barn
Purchased feed from a neighbor
Contaminated water due to a broken sewer pipe
Purchased cows from an auction
A stray dog

Explanation

Question 12 of 200

Which one of the following vaccines is more likely to cause an adverse reaction when given as directed to a small ruminant?

Select one of the following:

Tetanus toxoid
Rabies
Clostridium perfringens C and D
Leptospirosis
Pasteurella

Explanation

Question 13 of 200

With respect to bovine lymphosarcoma, which one of the following statements is correct?

Select one of the following:

Hypercalcemia is a common feature of naturally occurring cases
Cutaneous lymphocytosis is a common cause of depression anemia in cattle
Lymphosarcoma is a common cause of depression anemia in cattle
Presistent lymphocytosis is a common sign in herds with the enzootic form
Horn flies commonly spread the disease

Explanation

Question 14 of 200

Which one of the following statements is correct?

Select one of the following:

Foot rot vaccination is commercially available for use in sheep and goats in the USA
Rabies vaccine is labeled for use in goats in the United States
The most common organism associated with subclinical mastitis in goats is streptococcus
The somatic cell count limit for goat milk is 750,000 cells/cmm
Goats have a more reactive immune response then sheep

Explanation

Question 15 of 200

What is the most likely diagnosis of a recently calved dairy cow with extreme depression and head pressing?

Select one of the following:

Meningitis
Tetanus
Lead toxicosis
Botulism
Listeriosis

Explanation

Question 16 of 200

Maningitis in neonatal food animals may often resemble:

Select one of the following:

Hypocalcemia
Zinc deficiency
Hypoglycemia
Niacin deficiency
Hypokalemia

Explanation

Question 17 of 200

Which one of the following is TRUE regarding Clostridial myositis?

Select one of the following:

A stained impression smear will demonstrate Gram-positive cocci
Because treatment is largely ineffective, affected cattle should be taken to the sale barn
Once a case is seen, one of the most important things to do is make sure the herd gets vaccinated
Primarily affects young poor-doing cattle

Explanation

Question 18 of 200

Horizontal grooves observed on the digits of a cow would be indicative of:

Select one of the following:

Previous change in the management, nutrition, or disease
Age, similar to ring growth on trees
Mineral deficiency disease
Biotin deficiency
Rickets

Explanation

Question 19 of 200

Obstructive urolithiasis due to silica urinary calculi occurs commonly in steers and wethers raised on rangelands of the great plains of North America. Which one of the following statement is true?

Select one of the following:

Calculi do not develop in the mature cows bulls
Calculi develop in a castrated males because the diameter of the urethra is smaller then normal
Calculi develop in cattle raised on rangelands because of the relatively high concentration of selenium in the diet
Calculi formation cannot be prevented by the consumption of sodium chloride at a level of 4% by weight of the total ration
When the urinary bladder ruptures in a steer with obstructive urolithiasis, uremia may not develop quickly because the ruminant can metabolize the urea in the rumen

Explanation

Question 20 of 200

Failure to control mild endemic respiratory disease in swine caused by Mycoplasma hyopneumoniae predisposes pigs to complications. Exudative bronchopneumonia and polarthritis are most commonly seen in herbs infected with both Mycoplasma hyopneumoniae and which other organism?

Select one of the following:

Actinomyces pyogenes
Bordetella bronchiseptica
Pasteurella multocida
Fusobacterium necrophorum
Hemophilus parasuis

Explanation

Question 21 of 200

Which of these drugs are both contraindicated as injectable antibiotics in pigs and goats?

Select one of the following:

Lincomycin, Procaine Penicillin G.
Tilmicosin, Chloramphenicol
Chloramphenicol, Oxytetracycline
Lincomycin, Oxytetracycline
Tilmicosin, Lincomycin

Explanation

Question 22 of 200

Which one of the following is true concerning PRRS infections in swine?

Select one of the following:

Respiratory disease reduces growth rate up to 20%
More than $4.00 per pig is the estimated loss associated with respiratory disease from reduced growth and feed efficiency alone
Veterinarians prefer to treat respiratory disease in swine with tilmicosin
PRRS virus attacks and kills immune system cells in the lungs
all of the above are correct

Explanation

Question 23 of 200

When does sheep foot rot spread more favorably?

Select one of the following:

During cold winter months inside a barn
During summer when conditions are moist
During dry autumn months
During cool spring months
During cold winter months on pasture

Explanation

Question 24 of 200

Cerebellar hypoplasia in calves is associated with:

Select one of the following:

Bovine virus diarrhea mucosal disease complex
Infections bovine rhinotracheitis
Consumption of lupines during the first 30 days of pregnancy
Malignant catarrhal fever
Foot and mouth disease

Explanation

Question 25 of 200

A feeder pig operation has a problem with sudden onset of diarrhea followed by collapse and death in piglets 1-3 days old. Necropsy examination shows necro-hemorrhagic enteritis. Which one of the following would be the most likely diagnosis?

Select one of the following:

Enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli (ETEC)
Clostridium perfringens Type C
Hemorrhagic bowel syndrome.
Brachyspira (Serpulina) hyodysenteriae
Lawsonia intracellularis

Explanation

Question 26 of 200

Which of the following is true regarding White Muscle disease in young calves?

Select one of the following:

Providing selenium supplementation in a salt/mineral mix year round to all stocks is a good method to control/prevent white muscle problems in calves
A selenium injection at birth will effectively prevent white muscle disease and will provide adequate selenium levels until the calf is around 1-year-old
The cardiac form tends to be more amendable to treatment than the skeletal form

Explanation

Question 27 of 200

Which one of the following is a risk factor for urolithiasis on feedlot steers?

Select one of the following:

Inadequate water consumption
High salt intake
High calcium intake
Inadequate exercise
Excessive vitamin A intake

Explanation

Question 28 of 200

Which one of the following statements is true?

Select one of the following:

Around 50% of all bovine lameness is in the foot
It is difficult to justify antibiotic treatment of foot rot because most cases self-cure within 1-2 days
To stop a horizontal hoof crack, you should create a vertical groove at the ends of the crack
A cow with a septic coffin joint will usually be 3-legged lame

Explanation

Question 29 of 200

Which one of the following downer cow position would probably have the most favorable prognosis for return to normal function?

Select one of the following:

Resting in right lateral recumbency and returning to that position after being turned to the other side
Hind legs partially flexed and displaced posteriorly
Hind legs extended behind with no attempt to change position
Sternal recumbency with the hind legs extended along side the body
Frequent attempts to rise, lifting the hindlegs off the ground a few inches

Explanation

Question 30 of 200

Regarding swine respiratory disease, which one of the following statements is correct?

Select one of the following:

Cold temperature reduces the pig's ability to clear bacteria from the respiratory tract
Pneumonia reduces average daily gain in swine
Crowding, mixing, and castration all may increase risk of respiratory disease in swine
All of the above are correct
Only B. and C. are correct

Explanation

Question 31 of 200

Which one of the following disease is associated with gastrointestinal hemorrhage and blood clots in cattle?

Select one of the following:

Copper toxicosis
Rota virus
Fat necrosis
Arsenic toxicosis
Clostridium novyi

Explanation

Question 32 of 200

What is a "presistently infected animal" with respect to bovine virus diarrhea virus?

Select one of the following:

An animal that was exposed to BVDV in utero before establishing immunocompetence
An animal that was exposed to BVDV in utero after establishing immunocompetence
An animal that was infected within the first 120 days of life and has remained infected
An animal that was infected with BVDV and recovered but remains a carrier
Always an animal affected with mucosal disease

Explanation

Question 33 of 200

If a cow began showing symptoms of hives immediately after being treated with procaine penicillin, what would be the drug of choice for treating the cow?

Select one of the following:

Antihistamine
Corticosteroid
Epinephrine
Ephedrine
Flunixin meglumine

Explanation

Question 34 of 200

Your client's Holstein milking cows have been experiencing an increased number of LDA's, variable dry matter intakes, low butterfat (3.3%), and increased lameness. Your analysis of the TMR shows (on a dry matter basis): CP 16.5%, ADF 20.2%, NDF 29.9%, NFC 43.6%, dietary fat 3.5%.

Which ration formulation fault is most likely?

Select one of the following:

Too much protein
Insufficient fiber
Too much grain
Too much fat
Too much protein and too much fat

Explanation

Question 35 of 200

The two most important factors in passive Ig transfer are the total immunoglobulin mass that is ingested and the time after birth when the colostrum is received

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 36 of 200

The normal blood glucose level for dairy cows is between 80 and 130 mg\ dl

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 37 of 200

The calves at highest risk of contracting neonatal disease are those from first calf heifers

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 38 of 200

When cows are housed on concrete natural wear maintains the correct shape of the bovine hoof

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 39 of 200

The lower critical temperature is defined as the temperature at which the pig starts not paining well because energy is the used to maintain adequate body temperature

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 40 of 200

Elevated serum plasma pepsinogen values may be indicative of ostertagia infection in cattle

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 41 of 200

Winter dysentery in cattle is associated with corona virus infection

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 42 of 200

The most common cause for inactivity of rumen microflora is anorexia secondary to some other problem

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 43 of 200

Bovine pyelonephritis is most commonly diangnosed in steers on a heavy grain feeding program

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 44 of 200

Botulism is a disease that is characterized by progressive, spastic paralysis in all species of animals

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 45 of 200

The two most important factors in passive Ig transfer are the total immunoglobulin mass that is ingested and the time after birth when the colostrum is received

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 46 of 200

The calves at highest risk of contracting neonatal disease are those from first calf heifers

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 47 of 200

Elevated serum plasma pepsinogen values may be indicative of ostertagia infection in cattle

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 48 of 200

The normal blood glucose level for dairy cows is between 80 and 120 mg/ dl

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 49 of 200

An "iceberg" disease is one in which the clinically affected animal represents a larger number of subclinical case in the herd

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 50 of 200

In most cases, it is justified to treat streptococcal mastitis with antibiotics

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 51 of 200

The streptococcus species that has characteristics of both contagions and environmental pathogens is S. dysgalactiae

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 52 of 200

When presented with a young calf with obvious Blackleg, the most important thing that you can do for the producer is to make sure the rest of the herd is immunologically protected

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 53 of 200

Selenium deficiency can result in sudden death in young (< 1 year of age) rapidly growing calves

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 54 of 200

Over the counter drugs (OTC drugs) fall under AMDUCA regulations

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 55 of 200

Two months after culling four of your six goats for Jone's disease you have bought new does each with a nursing kid. Choose the best management strategy for these new herd additions

Select one of the following:

Place them in the pen with your original goats right away to get them used to each other while the kids are young
Build a separate pen to the house the new goats for as long as possible (months) to allow the organism in the original pen to die off
Introduce the new goats after shoveling out all visible pellets, fencing off any standing water, and installing feeders that pervent fecal contamination
Build a separate pen to house the new goats for as long as possible (months) to allow the organism in the original pen to die off, continue to test and monitor the body condition of the remaining two goats to make sure they are not infected.

Explanation

Question 56 of 200

Which element is often deficient in the soil, thus predisposing to the development of grass tetany in grazing cattle

Select one of the following:

Copper
Phosphorus
Molybdenum
Zinc
Selenium

Explanation

Question 57 of 200

What are the two most common organisms isolated from a septic calf with failure of passive transfer?

Select one of the following:

E. coli and Actinomyces
salmonella and Mycoplasma
Staphylococcus and E. coli
Staphylococcus and Streptococcus
Proteus and Enterococcus

Explanation

Question 58 of 200

The normal pH range for rumen fluid in cattle is

Select one of the following:

2.5-5.5
5.5-7.0
2.5-7.0
7.0-8.5
3.5-8.5

Explanation

Question 59 of 200

Which one of the following drugs would be the therapy of choice for a bloated cow that was just brought in after overeating on a legume pasture?

Select one of the following:

Magnesium carbonate
Sodium acid phosphate
Calcium borogluconate
Poloxalene
Turpentine

Explanation

Question 60 of 200

Regarding the salmonellosis outbreak on the Hudson farm that was discussed in an assigned reference, how was the infection introduced on the farm?

Select one of the following:

Purchased calves from a sale barn
Purchased feed from a neighbor
Contaminated water due to a broken sewer pipe
Purchased cows from an auction
A stray gog

Explanation

Question 61 of 200

Acute enterotoxigenic colibacillosis usually occurs in calves of what age?

Select one of the following:

Under 5 days
14 to 21 days
21 to 28 days
5 to 10 days
10 to 15 days

Explanation

Question 62 of 200

What is your diagnosis for a dairy cow with the following clinical signs that calved normally yesterday? She was found down in lateral recumbency with opisthotonus, was groaning, and had slightly dilated responsive pupils and cool extremities.

Select one of the following:

Hypomagnesemia
Polioencephalomalacia
Nervous ketosis
Fatty liver syndrome
Hypocalcemia

Explanation

Question 63 of 200

The CMT test is used to:

Select one of the following:

confirm clinical mastitis
confirm rupture of the gastrocnemius
determine the type of bacteria in an intramammary infection
identify cows with high somatic cell counts

Explanation

Question 64 of 200

Which one of the following problems would most likely be accompanied by a neutrophilic leukocytosis and left shift?

Select one of the following:

Left abomasal displacement
Simple indigestion
Preforated abomasal ulcer
Rumen tympany
Abdominal fat necrosis

Explanation

Question 65 of 200

The most important "other" of FANO when treating mastitis is:

Select one of the following:

calcium
dextrose
probiotics
vitamins

Explanation

Question 66 of 200

A dairy herd has serveral cows with Corynebacterium bovis intramammary infection. this is most suggestive of what?

Select one of the following:

That post dipping with an effective germicide is not being done or is not being done correctly
That the milkers use multi-use cloth or paper towels and are spreading the bacteria from cow to cow
That the cows' environment is unsanitary
That waster is being used excessively during pre-milking udder preparation

Explanation

Question 67 of 200

Which of the following is the BEST means of controlling heel wart on the dairy farm?

Select one of the following:

Cull affected cattle
Heel wart vaccines
Properly maintained and scheduled footbaths

Explanation

Question 68 of 200

Which of the following is TRUE in regards to fescue foot?

Select one of the following:

Dry gangrene is more common in summer than winter
the cheapest control measure is to replace the current infected fescue pasture with endophyte free fescue
A presferred means of control is to vaccinate with an endophyte vaccine prior to grazing
The preferred treatment is to remove affected stock from fescue pasture

Explanation

Question 69 of 200

Which one of the following is true regarding calcium homeostasis in dairy cows?

Select one of the following:

Feeding high calcium in pre-partum diets will stimulate the parathyroid glands
Feeding anionic salts to dry cows will cause mild alkalosis, thus stimulating the parathyroid gland
The feed levels of phosphorus and potassium have little, if any, effect upon calcium metabolism is dry cows
Feeding anionic salts to dry cows will cause mild acidosis which will promote calcium absorption from the gut as well as mobilization from bone.
Feeding alfalfa hay free choice to close-up dry cows will stimulate calcium mobilization by the parathyroid glands

Explanation

Question 70 of 200

A dairy herd several cows with Prototheca intramammary infection. What is the primary reservoir for Prototheca?

Select one of the following:

contaminated teat dip
infected mammary gland
straw
water

Explanation

Question 71 of 200

The success rate when treating footrot early in the couse of the disease is nearly ____________

Select one of the following:

10%
35%
50%
90%
100%

Explanation

Question 72 of 200

Leptospirosis and salmonellosis in all types of livestock is often associated with:

Select one of the following:

Periodic ophthalmia
Intravasular coagulopthy
Vomition
Diarrhea
Rodent contamination of feedstuffs

Explanation

Question 73 of 200

A twelve year old Brahma cow from Texas has been brought to you for diagnosis of brisket edema, diarrhea, weight loss, and proteinuria. Your differential diagnosis will include:

Select one of the following:

Paratuberculosis and mucosal disease
Renal amyloidosis and paratuberculosis
Abomasal parasitism and tick fever
Hypomagnesemia and hypokalemia
Caudal venal caval thrombosis

Explanation

Question 74 of 200

With respect to ruminant digestion, which one of the following statements is true?

Select one of the following:

Saliva neutralizes the acids produced during fermentation
Dietary calcium has little effects on rumen metabolism
The fiber mat is on the bottom of the rumen
Rumen microbial protein is an insignificant source of nutrients for cattle
Dairy cows can usually eat enough to meet their nutrient requirements, even when ration digestibility is low

Explanation

Question 75 of 200

Which one of the following bovine disease would be most characterized by this group of clinical signs-sudden death, ataxia, flaccid paresis, inability to control tongue movements?

Select one of the following:

Listeriosis
Bovine spongiform encephalopthy
Grass tetany
Lead poisoning
Botulism

Explanation

Question 76 of 200

Which one of the following is a risk factor for urolithiasis in feedlot steers?

Select one of the following:

High phosphorus intake
Low salt intake
Low calcium intake
Inadequate water intake
All of the above may contribute as risk factors

Explanation

Question 77 of 200

A clinical finding in the cerbrospinal fluid that tends to confirm listeriosis is:

Select one of the following:

Increased numbers of eosinophils
Increased protein and mononuclear cells
Increased red blood cells
Increased alkaline phosphatase levels
Increased trubidity

Explanation

Question 78 of 200

Which one of the following practices has been associated with tetans outbreaks in cattle and sheep?

Select one of the following:

Ear tagging
Footrot vaccination
Clostridium vaccination
Elastration of tails
Hoof trimming

Explanation

Question 79 of 200

Which one of the following statements is true regarding salmonellosis?

Select one of the following:

The majority of salmonella infections are clinical
Salmonella organisms only survive a short time in the enviroment
Septicemic animal shed the organism in oral and nasal secretions and urine as well ass feces
Infection is unrelated to innate resistance of the host animal; dose and strain of the organism are much more important
The primary route of infection in most cases is by aerosol

Explanation

Question 80 of 200

Dairy cows are particularly susceptible to infections during the first two weeks of lactation because:

Select one of the following:

Of transient immunousuppression following calving
Dry matter intake cannot keep pace with nutrient requirements until after about 80 days after lactation commences
Of adjustment to the change in diet between the dry period and heavy lactational period
Of increased requirements for biological antioxidants during the first 60 days of lactation
Of increased physical activity associated with estrus

Explanation

Question 81 of 200

Serum chloride value of less than 60 mEq/I in cattle usually represents:

Select one of the following:

Normal value
Metabolic acidosis
Metabolic alkalosis
Good prognosis
Rapid rumen outflow

Explanation

Question 82 of 200

Which one of the following statements is true regarding the "scootch test"?

Select one of the following:

This is a test used to determine the amount of rumen fill in a cow
Tricep muscle fasiculation is usually elicited by this test
Odontoprisis is a consistent sign of a positive reaction
The test is also known as "withers depressing"
A positive test is a positive response; the cow flinches

Explanation

Question 83 of 200

A cow was persented for examination of a respiratory problem. On examination you have found a purulent discharge from the ear canal. Which one of the following goes to the top of your differential dianonsis list?

Select one of the following:

IBR (infectious bovine rhinotracheitis)
Histophilus
Mycoplasma
BRSV (bovine respiratory syncytial virus
Mannheimia

Explanation

Question 84 of 200

Obstructive urolithiasis due to silica urinary calculi occurs commonly in steers and wethers raised on rangelands of the great plains of the North America. Which one of the following statements is true?

Select one of the following:

Calculi do not develop in mature cows and bulls
Calculi develop on castrated males because the diameter of the urethra is smaller then normal
Calculi develop in cattle raised on rangelands because of the relatively high concentration of selenium in the diet
Calculi formation cannot be prevented by the consumption of sodium chloride at a level of 4% by weight of the total ration
When the urinary bladder ruptures in a steer with obstructive urolithiasis, uremia may not develop quickly because the ruminant can metabolize the urea in the rumen

Explanation

Question 85 of 200

Regarding colostrum management for calves, which one of the following statements is most correct?

Select one of the following:

Colostrum quality is not related to a cow's history or volume of colostrum produced
Holsteins tend to have lower immunoglobulin concentrations in colostrum than Jerseys
The ability of the calf to absorb IgG does not decline until the calf is 48 hours old
Johne's disease cannot be transmitted through the feeding of colostrum from an infected cow
Pasteurization destroys most of the antibodies in colostrum

Explanation

Question 86 of 200

Rumen acidosis occurs as a result of:

Select one of the following:

Too much rapidly digestible grain in the diet
Not enough effective fiber
Slug feeding of grain (e.g. feeding grain in the milking parlor)
Heat stress (panting cows have less bicarbonate available for buffering the rumen)
All of the above

Explanation

Question 87 of 200

Which one of the following dairy cows would be more likely to get fatty liver syndrome after calving?

Select one of the following:

Fat cow-BCS 4.5
Normal cow-BCS 3.5
Thin cow-BCS 2.0

Explanation

Question 88 of 200

Regarding the salmonellosis outbreak on the Hudson farm that was discussed in an assigned reference, how was the infection spread to the dairy herd?

Select one of the following:

By the owner who did not disinfect his boots
By a stray cat
By direct contact with the calves and their feces
By a stray dog
With the front end loader used to feed the cows

Explanation

Question 89 of 200

When rolling a cow to correct left abomasal displacement, the cow should be put down on to the left side first

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 90 of 200

The two most important factors in passive Ig transfer are the total immunoglobulin mass that is ingested and the time after birth when the colostrum is received

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 91 of 200

Elevated serum plasma pepsinogen values may be indicative of ostertagia infection in cattle

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 92 of 200

Pupillary constriction is a clinical sign consistent with hypocalcemia in recumbent dairy cows

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 93 of 200

Elk, mule deer, moose bison and white tailed deer are naturally susceptible to Johne's disease.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 94 of 200

Cows with bilateral obturator nerve paralysis may till be able to stand whereas cows with bilateral sciatic nerve paralysis cannot.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 95 of 200

Vaccination of feedlot cattle against foot rot will also aid in the control of liver abscesses.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 96 of 200

When you need withdrawal information for an antibiotic that you are using in an extralabel manner, the government agency to contact is:

Select one of the following:

AMDUCA
FARAD
RUDAB
USDA

Explanation

Question 97 of 200

Which one of the following statements is true concerning interstitial pneumonia in cattle?

Select one of the following:

Interstitial pneumonia is accompanied by high fever
The principal clinical signs are inspiratory dyspnea and mild fever
Expiratory dyspnea and subcutaneous emphysema are commonly seen.
Preferred therapy is oxytetracycline.
Prognosis for recovery is poor

Explanation

Question 98 of 200

Milk protein allergy in cattle would best be treated by or with:

Select one of the following:

Milking out the cow's udder.
Non-steroidal drugs.
Corticosteroids.
Antihistamine
Broad spectrum antibacterials.

Explanation

Question 99 of 200

Several goats in a flock were affected with severe panophthalmitis and conjunctivitis. Your presumptive diagnosis is "pink-eye." What would be your recommendation for this flock?

Select one of the following:

Send all to slaughter immediately.
Quarantine and treat with procaine penicillin G.
Quarantine and refer to the state veterinary officer.
Quarantine and vaccinate the herd with pink-eye vaccine.
Quarantine and treat with tetracy cline.

Explanation

Question 100 of 200

If not properly prepared before marketing, commingled feeder claves have the potential of "wrecking out" when they arrive at a feedlot. What is responsible for this wreck?

Select one of the following:

A fall in resistance due to weather changes.
A simultaneous fall in resistance and a rise in disease challenge.
A rise in disease challenge from commingling.
Vaccination more than thirty days before marketing.
A fall in resistance due to stresses of weaning, shipping, and diet change.

Explanation

Question 101 of 200

A common respiratory disease which may lead to pneumonic pasteurellosis in dairy calves in the United States is:

Select one of the following:

Mycoplasma mycoides.
Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
Brisket disease
BRSV.
Fog fever.

Explanation

Question 102 of 200

Which one of the following test is the preferred first test for use in the diagnosis of tuberculosis in cattle?

Select one of the following:

ELISA test
Single intradermal test
Comparative cervical test
PCR test
Gamma interferon test

Explanation

Question 103 of 200

What would be the significance of a low neutrophil count with many non-segmented cells in a cow with a total white blood cell count below normal?

Select one of the following:

Probably indicative of chronic infection
Probably indicative of parasitism
Probably indicative of bone marrow suppression
Probably indicative of an acute infection
Possibly could be a normal hemogram

Explanation

Question 104 of 200

Of the following sheep breeds, which one has the characteristic of being able to lamb at any time of year?

Select one of the following:

Suffolk
Southdown
Dorset
Merino
Hampshire

Explanation

Question 105 of 200

The antibiotic that has a Gram-positive spectrum, requires daily dosing, has a medium withdrawal time of around 10 days. is cheap, can be purchased over the counter and is a good choice for footrot, presurgical use, Listeria and Clostridial infections is:

Select one of the following:

ceftiofur
Nuflor
penicillin
oxytetracycline

Explanation

Question 106 of 200

Which of the following statements is true concerning copper metabolism in sheep?

Select one of the following:

Sheep accumulate copper in the liver more readily than other species
Copper is required for an effective immune response
"Steely wool" and "swayback" are commonly reported signs of copper deficiency in sheep
Copper is required for normal iron metabolism
All of the above statements are true

Explanation

Question 107 of 200

Which cattle breed produces beef with a fatty acid composition that is significantly lower in saturated fat and cholesterol and higher in monounsaturated fat, and conjugated linoleic acid (CLA)?

Select one of the following:

Charolais
Akaushi
Beedmaster
Santa Gertrudis
Belgian Blue

Explanation

Question 108 of 200

What is a "persistently infected animal" with respect to bovine virus diarrhea virus?

Select one of the following:

An animal that was exposed to BVDV in utero before establishing immunocompetence
An animal that was exposed to BVDV in utero after establishing immunocompetence
An animal that was infected within the first 120 days of life and has remained infected
An animal that was infected with BVDV and recovered but remains a carrier
Always an animal affected with mucosal disease

Explanation

Question 109 of 200

Which one of the following statements is true?

Select one of the following:

Younger animals are more likely to show clinical signs of anaplasmosis than are older ones
Biting flies are biological vectors of anaplasmosis
Effectiveness of oxytetracycline therapy for anaplasmosis is reduced if more than 15% of the red blood cells are infected
Anaplasmosis vaccine is marketed commercially in the United States
Incubation period for anaplasmosis in cattle is short, usually 5-15 days

Explanation

Question 110 of 200

Which of the following antimicrobials has a formulation with a 7 day treatment interval?

Select one of the following:

Albon
enrofloxacin (Baytril)
Nuflor
oxytetracycline

Explanation

Question 111 of 200

If one were to mate a heterozygous polled bull with a homozygous horned cow, what percentage of the offspring would be polled?

Select one of the following:

0%
25%
50%
75%
100%

Explanation

Question 112 of 200

What is the most prevalent major contagious pathogen in the U.S. and worldwide?

Select one of the following:

E. coli
Klebsiella
Streptococcus agalactiae
Mycoplasma bovis
Staphylococcus aureus

Explanation

Question 113 of 200

Mastitis can be eradicated from a dairy herd

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 114 of 200

Streptococcus agalactiae can be eradicated from a dairy herd

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 115 of 200

All of the following are dairy breeds EXCEPT

Select one of the following:

Brown Swiss
Guernsey
Holstein
Jersey
Belted Galloway

Explanation

Question 116 of 200

Most gram-positive mastitis pathogens are susceptible in vitro to the intramammary (IMM) antibiotics available

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 117 of 200

E. coli is is usually susceptible to approved IMM antibitoics

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 118 of 200

Most gram-negative mastitis pathogens are susceptible in VIVO to the IMM antibiotics available

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 119 of 200

Cows with contagious mastitis should be milked______?

Select one of the following:

First
Before fresh heifers
Last
Should be dried up and not milked

Explanation

Question 120 of 200

What is considered the first line of defense of the mammary gland?

Select one of the following:

Teat orifice/duct
Pick the other one

Explanation

Question 121 of 200

What control procedure do we use to aid the first line of defense in the mammary gland?

Select one of the following:

Teat dipping with an effective germicide
pick the other one

Explanation

Question 122 of 200

Chronic mastitis is primarily due to ____________ pathogens?

Select one of the following:

Contagious
Environmental

Explanation

Question 123 of 200

To control Staphylococcus aureus, you should focus your efforts on decreasing social contact among cows

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 124 of 200

What major pathogen can be eliminated by antibiotic therapy?

Select one of the following:

Streptococcus agalactiae
Staphylococcus aureus
E. coli
Klebsiella
Mycoplasma bovis

Explanation

Question 125 of 200

Milking time hygiene is ALWAYS needed in every dairy

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 126 of 200

Clinical mastitis is more costly than subclinical mastitis

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 127 of 200

The teat canal remains open after milking up to ____________ hours

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 128 of 200

Streptococcus agalactiae

Select one of the following:

Contagious
Environmental

Explanation

Question 129 of 200

Klebsiella

Select one of the following:

Contagious
Environmental

Explanation

Question 130 of 200

The streptococcus species that has characteristics of both contagious and environmental pathogens is S. dysgalactaie

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 131 of 200

Dry cow therapy means one is treating a dry cow for clinical mastitis

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 132 of 200

In a freestall barn, you see several cows standing or lying on concrete alleyways and loafing yards. This usually means what?

Select one of the following:

Free stalls are not comfortable
Happy cows

Explanation

Question 133 of 200

What major pathogen does not grow on blood agar?

Select one of the following:

Mycoplasma
pick the other one

Explanation

Question 134 of 200

What 3 words sum up coliform control?

Select one of the following:

clean, dry, and comfortable
Pick other one

Explanation

Question 135 of 200

You should only use dry cow IMM therapy on KNOWN infected cows.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 136 of 200

Culling the cow is probably the only sure way to eliminate Mycoplasma bovis IMM

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 137 of 200

Buying dairy cows from other herds is a good dairy practice

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 138 of 200

Which of the following is NOT a good milking time hygiene?

Select one of the following:

Spraying water on udders of all cows
Single use damp cloth towels
Predipping and only leaving the predip on for 30 seconds
Drying the udder completely before attaching the milking unit

Explanation

Question 139 of 200

Which of the following teat dips are acceptable

Select one of the following:

LDBSA
Chlorhexidine
0.5% Iodine
Clorox

Explanation

Question 140 of 200

Which two microorganisms are involved in the development of the condition shown in this picture?

Select one of the following:

Pasteurella and swine influenza virus
Hemophilus and Bordetella
Actinobacillus and Pasteurella
PRRS virus and Bordetella
Bordetella and Pasteurella

Explanation

Question 141 of 200

Which one of the following techniques is being demonstrated in this picture?

Select one of the following:

The squeeze
The ear twitch
The midline catch
The bracelet
The body wrap

Explanation

Question 142 of 200

These weaned pigs are affected with porcine dermatopathy and nephropathy syndrome (PDNS). Which one of the following pathogens is associated with this condition?

Select one of the following:

Erysipelothrix
Staphylococcus
Porcine Circovirus type 2
Swine influenza virus
Porcine respiratory and reproductive syndrome virus

Explanation

Question 143 of 200

Identify this breed used mainly for milk and cheese production

Select one of the following:

Oberhasli
Southdown
Nubian
Friesian
Saanen

Explanation

Question 144 of 200

These pigs have swine dysentery. Which one of the following statements is most correct concerning this disease?

Select one of the following:

The causative organism will survive outside the pig for up to seven weeks in cold moist conditions but it dies out in two days in dry warm environments
The high cost of disease is associated with high mortality
Clinical disease in sows is common
Pigs become infected through the ingestion of saliva from feeders
Swine dysentery is caused by a virus

Explanation

Question 145 of 200

Which one of the following techniques is being demonstrated in this picture?

Select one of the following:

The squeeze
The ear twitch
The midline catch
The bracelet
The body wrap

Explanation

Question 146 of 200

Which one of the following organisms would most likely be involved in the polyarthritis and jowl abscess observed in this weaned pig?

Select one of the following:

Circovirus
Hemophilus
Streptococcus
Staphylococcus
Erysipelothrix

Explanation

Question 147 of 200

Shown here is a cross-sectional view of a cow's abdomen showing distention of the ventral sac of the rumen. Which one of the following diagnoses would be most likely associated with this condition?

Select one of the following:

Abomasal ulcers
Acute traumatic reticulitis
Persistent non patent urachus
Vagus indigestion
Left abomasal displacement

Explanation

Question 148 of 200

Identify the condition shown in this photograph

Select one of the following:

Spastic paresis
Upward fixation of the patella
Spastic syndrome
Sciatic neuropathy
Nutritional myopathy

Explanation

Question 149 of 200

What would be your diagnosis for this pruritic skin condition observed in these animals?

Select one of the following:

Lice
Greasy Pig disease
Demodectic mange
Ringworm
Sarcoptic mange

Explanation

Question 150 of 200

The disease affecting the tongue of this deer and causing the photosensitization in the bull are one and the same. Identify the disease.

Select one of the following:

Epizootic hemorrhagic disease
Chronic wasting disease
Bluetongue
Actinobacillosis
Fescue toxicosis

Explanation

Question 151 of 200

These stocker calves being fed pasture are being?

Select one of the following:

Finished
Bred
Backgrounded
Marbled
Suckled

Explanation

Question 152 of 200

This cow is most likely suffering from?

Select one of the following:

Interdigital fibroma
Rusterholz ulcer
Digital dermatitis
Infectious pododermatitis
Sand crack

Explanation

Question 153 of 200

On farms with robot milkers cows choose how often they want to be milked. What is the most important mechanism by whic increased frequency of milking increases milk production?

Select one of the following:

Frequent milking reduces back pressure in the udder
Increased prolactin secretion recruits more secretory cells
More frequent oxytocin release leads to increased production
Milking removes a locally acting lactation inhibition factor
Cows get more used to being milked and produce less adrenalin to interfere with milk letdown

Explanation

Question 154 of 200

Which one of the following is considered to be part of tan ideal milking system?

Select one of the following:

75:25 milking to massage ratio on the pulsators
Small bowl claw
20" Hg milking vacuum level
Post-dip applied by sprayer
Low line pipeline

Explanation

Question 155 of 200

What is the lowest lameness score this cow could have?

Select one of the following:

Score 1
Score 2
Score 3
Score 4
Score 5

Explanation

Question 156 of 200

Which of the following choices is most reasonable for grade M2 mastitis (clots and flakes, swollen quarter, but no systemic involvement) in a herd in which most clinical mastitis is caused by Strep. uberis?

Select one of the following:

Proprietary intramammary mastitis infusion (e.g. Cef-Lak)
Intramammary mastitis tube + adjunct antibiotic therapy
Systemic ceftiofur (Naxcel/Excenel)
Custom compounded antibiotic udder infusion
No treatment until dry-off

Explanation

Question 157 of 200

What are we attempting to accomplish with this device?

Select one of the following:

Provide antibiotic to treat disease
Provide potable water
Harvest velvet from the antlers
Rid deer of ticks carrying lyme disease
Offer deer trace minerals and salts

Explanation

Question 158 of 200

This alpaca is presented for examination of a chronic pruritic skin disease of the head and face. Which one of the following diagnoses is most likely?

Select one of the following:

Zinc deficiency
Copper toxicosis
Sarcoptic mange
Vitamin A deficiency
Demodectic mange

Explanation

Question 159 of 200

What is the definitive host for the parasite which causes paresis or paralysis in camelids?

Select one of the following:

Goats
Snails and slugs
Elk
White-tailed deer
All deer

Explanation

Question 160 of 200

Here is pictured a beef liver with abscessation. One of the more likely causative organisms associated with this condition is also associated with which one of the following?

Select one of the following:

Wooden tongue in cattle
Calf diphteria
Big head in horses
Big head in sheep
Blackleg in cattle

Explanation

Question 161 of 200

ID this breed of dairy cattle known for the production of alpha-2 beta-casein milk

Select one of the following:

Ayrshire
Jersey
Guernsey
Hereford
Montbeliarde

Explanation

Question 162 of 200

ID this beef breed which comes from Italy

Select one of the following:

Chianina
Charolais
Limousine
Romagnola
Belgian blue and white

Explanation

Question 163 of 200

Energy balance is shown on this chart of events in the lactation cycle of a dairy cow. What is represented by the highlighted line?

Select one of the following:

Body condition score
Normal lactation curve
Dry matter intake
Serum ionize calcium levels
Risk for developing lameness

Explanation

Question 164 of 200

These weaned pigs are affected with porcine dermatopathy and nephropathy syndrome (PDNS). Which one of the following pathogens is associated with this condition?

Select one of the following:

Erysipelothrix
Staphylococcus
Porcine circovirus type 2
Swine influenza virus
Porcine respiratory and reproductive syndrome virus

Explanation

Question 165 of 200

Energy balance is shown on this chart of events in the lactation cycle of a diary cow. What is represented by the orange line?

Select one of the following:

Body condition score
Normal lactation curve
Dry matter intake
Serum ionized calcium levels
Risk for developing lameness

Explanation

Question 166 of 200

Which one of the following techniques is being demonstrated in this picture?

Select one of the following:

The squeeze
The ear twitch
The midline catch
The bracelet
The body wrap

Explanation

Question 167 of 200

Identify this lesion found during abdominal surgery on a sheep

Select one of the following:

Fat necrosis
Tapeworm cyst
Edema
Oesophagostomum lesion
Abscess

Explanation

Question 168 of 200

The dairy cow in this picture had a selective appetite for roughage but not grain shortly after a normal calving. Which one of the following diagnoses would be most likely?

Select one of the following:

Traumatic gastritis
Ketosis
Abomasal volvulus
Abomasal displacement
Bloat

Explanation

Question 169 of 200

Chondrodysplasia is a genetically induced disease of which one of the following breeds of sheep?

Select one of the following:

Suffolk
Romanov
Southdown
Hampshire
Dorset

Explanation

Question 170 of 200

Identify the animal in this picture

Select one of the following:

Takin
Guanaco
Vicuna
Llama
Alpaca

Explanation

Question 171 of 200

this goat has a large swelling on the right side of the head below the ear. Which one of the following is a more likely diagnosis?

Select one of the following:

Sialadenitis
Strangles
Bottle jaw
Cheesy gland
Lymphosarcoma

Explanation

Question 172 of 200

Which one of the following organisms would most likely be involved in the polyarthritis and skin lesions observed in this weaned pig?

Select one of the following:

Circovirus
Hemophilus
Streptococcus
Staphylococcus
Erysipelothrix

Explanation

Question 173 of 200

On farms with robot milkers cows choose how often they want to be milked. What is the most important mechanism by which increased frequency of milking increases milk production?

Select one of the following:

Frequent milking reduces back pressure in the udder
Increased prolactin secretion recruits more secretory cells
More frequent oxytocin release leads to increased production
Milking removes a locally acting lactation inhibition factor
Cows get more used to being milked and produce less adrenalin to interfere with milk letdown

Explanation

Question 174 of 200

Which one of the following organisms is associated with exudative epidermitis in swine?

Select one of the following:

Actinobacillus
Hemophilus
Staphylococcus
E. coli
Streptococcus

Explanation

Question 175 of 200

This picture shows?

Select one of the following:

Proper placement of intramuscular injection
Proper placement of subcutaneous injection
Improper needle size selection
Inadequate restraint of the patient
Improper selection of site for administration of medication

Explanation

Question 176 of 200

Which one of the following problems would more likely be diagnosed in post-weaned pigs six to eight weeks of age?

Select one of the following:

Colibacillosis
Ascariasis
Swine dysentery
Whipworms
Proliferative enteropathy

Explanation

Question 177 of 200

Which one of the following techniques is being demonstrated in this picture?

Select one of the following:

The squeeze
The ear twitch
The midline catch
The bracelet
The body wrap

Explanation

Question 178 of 200

ID the breed

Select one of the following:

Watusi
Highland
Texas Longhorn
Belgian Blue
English Longhorn

Explanation

Question 179 of 200

A 4-H member handled some lambs about a week ago at the county fair. Now he has developed lesions. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Select one of the following:

Dermatophilosis
Warts
Ecthyma
Fungal infection
Pustular dermatitis

Explanation

Question 180 of 200

This bull was presented with a large swelling in the penile and scrotal areas. What are the two most likely differential diagnoses?

Select one of the following:

Amyloidosis or hypoproteinemia
Lymphosarcoma or preputial abscess
Ruptured urethra or preputial abscess
Cardiac failure or hypoproteinemia
Parasitism or preputial abscess

Explanation

Question 181 of 200

You have been called to examine this recumbent neonatal calf which is unable to rise. In addition the calf is showing opisthotonus and has a fever of 107 degrees F. The calf does not have tetanus. What would be the most likely diagnosis?

Select one of the following:

Meningitis
Hypoglycemia
Polioencephalomalacia
BVD infection
Lupin toxicosis

Explanation

Question 182 of 200

What would be the most likely cause of the otitis media diagnosed in this calf?

Select one of the following:

Trauma
Lead poisoning
Polioencephalomalacia
Mycoplasma
Septicemic colibacillosis

Explanation

Question 183 of 200

What is the definitive host for the parasite which causes paresis or paralysis in camelids?

Select one of the following:

Goats
Snails or slugs
White tailed deer
Elk
All deer

Explanation

Question 184 of 200

These pigs have swine dysentery. Which one of the following statements is most correct concerning this disease?

Select one of the following:

The causative organism will survive outside the pig for up to seven weeks in cold moist conditions but it dies out in two days in dry warm environments
The high cost of disease is associated with high mortality
Clinical disease in sows is common
Pigs become infected through the ingestion of saliva from feeders
Swine dysentery is caused by a virus

Explanation

Question 185 of 200

What is the lameness score of this cow?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 186 of 200

chronic wasting disease of cervids is an example of what type of disease?

Select one of the following:

Prion
Toxic
Parasitic
Viral
Bacterial

Explanation

Question 187 of 200

Which one of the following organisms would most likely be involved in the polyarthritis and jowl abscess observed in these weaned pigs?

Select one of the following:

Circovirus
Hemophilus
Streptococcus
Staphylococcus
Erysipelothrix

Explanation

Question 188 of 200

Cerebellar hypoplasia in calves is associated with:

Select one of the following:

Bovine virus diarrhea-mucosal disease complex
Infectious bovine rhinotracheitis
Consumption of Lupines during the first 30 days of pregnancy
Malignant catarrhal fever
Foot-and-mouth disease

Explanation

Question 189 of 200

Regarding colostrum management for calves, which one of the following statements is most correct?

Select one of the following:

Colostrum quality does not depend upon a cow's history or volume of colostrum produced
Holsteins tend to have higher immunoglobulin concentrations in colostrum than Jerseys
The ability of the calf to absorb 1gG does not decline until the calf is 48 hours old
Johne's disease cannot be transmitted through the feeding of colostrum from an infected cow
Pasteurization does not destroy most of the antibodies in colostrum

Explanation

Question 190 of 200

What is usually the first step to be recommended in therapy for berserk male syndrome in llamas?

Select one of the following:

Zinc therapy
Antidepressant therapy
Castration
Removal of the canine teeth
Tranquilization

Explanation

Question 191 of 200

The normal blood glucose level for dairy cows is between

Select one of the following:

30-60 mg/dl
80-120 mg/dl
40-80 mg/dl
40-120 mg/dl
60-120 mg/dl

Explanation

Question 192 of 200

Several piglets in a group weaned 10 days ago in the nursery facility of a commercial swine operation were found dead. On evaluation, some weaners have swelling around the eyes and forehead. Some are in lateral recumbency and dyspneic. Necropsy of the dead piglets reveals subcutaneous and submucosal edema. The most likely causative organism is........

Select one of the following:

Streptococcus suis
Brachysira hyodysenteriae
Clostridium septicum
Escherichia coli
Lawsonia intracellularis

Explanation

Question 193 of 200

Why do we keep an animal in sternal recumbency while administering treatment for milk fever?

Select one of the following:

Prevent muscle damage
Improve respiratory function
Improve cardiac function
Prevent regurgitation and aspiration
Encourage eructation

Explanation

Question 194 of 200

Which one of the following is used as a vaccine for contagious ecthyma in sheep?

Select one of the following:

Bacterin
Modified live virus
Live virus
Killed virus
Toxoid

Explanation

Question 195 of 200

Air quality is often an issue in livestock confinement operation. Which one of most likely involved with animal or human deaths in a confinement operation?

Select one of the following:

Mercaptans
Methane
Hydrogen sulfide
Carbon dioxide
Ammonia

Explanation

Question 196 of 200

Which one of the following statements is true concerning tuberculosis in cattle?

Select one of the following:

The primary route of infection is transplacental
The test used in the eradication program is an intradermal skin test
The disease has been eradicated in the continental United States
Coughing and chronic nasal discharge are the most obvious clinical signs in early cases
Infection usually occurs after two years of age

Explanation

Question 197 of 200

Which vaccine virus is not present in the standard 4-way modified live cattle respiratory vaccine?

Select one of the following:

BRSV
BVD
PI3
IBR
BLV

Explanation

Question 198 of 200

Excessive use of water to clean the udder is a risk factor for which type of mastitis?

Select one of the following:

Streptococcus agalactiae
Coliform
Mycoplasma
Staph. Aureus
Yeast

Explanation

Question 199 of 200

Pre-conditioning is:

Select one of the following:

Increasing grain ration in close-up dairy cows before calving
Dipping teats before milking
Mowing pastures that have gone to seed to reduce eye irritation in pastured cattle
feeding anionic salts, such as ammonium chloride, to reduce the incidence of hypocalcemia in dairy cows
Processing beef calves in such a way as to reduce stress before moving them to a feedlot

Explanation

Question 200 of 200

Which of the following is true of contagious mastitis bacteria?

Select one of the following:

They are mostly gram negative
They rarely cause chronic infections
They don't respond to most intramammary mastitis preparations
transmission is between quarters is controlled by pre-dipping
They are obligate parasites of the mammary tissue or teat skin

Explanation

Check answer

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