Ash Lig
Quiz by , created more than 1 year ago

Quiz to prep for microbio exam 1.

67
0
0
Ash Lig
Created by Ash Lig about 8 years ago
Close

Microbiology EXAM 1

Question 1 of 66

1

Approximately 5% of known microbes cause disease in humans.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 2 of 66

1

Select from the dropdown lists to complete the text.

Prokaryotic cells divide via ( binary fission, mitosis and/or meiosis ) and reproduce ( asexually, sexually or asexually ).

Explanation

Question 3 of 66

1

Which of the following are TRUE of prokaryotic cells?

Select one or more of the following:

  • single circular chromosome of DNA

  • plasma membrane is a fluid-mosaic structure and contains sterols

  • genes are located in a nuclear region

  • extrachromosomal DNA is located in plasmids and mitochondria

  • they have many intracellular organelles

  • ribosomes are 70S

Explanation

Question 4 of 66

1

When flagella are present on eukaryotic cells, they are fibrils of flagellin. When flagella are present on prokaryotic cells, they are membrane-enclosed structures comprised of microtubules.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 5 of 66

1

Which of the following is TRUE about the pili on eukaryotic cells?

Select one of the following:

  • Eukaryotic cells do not have pili

  • The pili function as attachment or conjugation pili; this contributes to the virulence of many pathogens

  • The pili are embedded in the external slime layer and assist researchers in identification of pathogens

  • They are complex, membrane-enclosed structures, comprised of microtubules

Explanation

Question 6 of 66

1

Fill the blank space to complete the text.

Metabolism is the sum of all the processes carried out by living organisms.

Explanation

Question 7 of 66

1

Which of the following is FALSE concerning metabolism?

Select one of the following:

  • Anabolism requires energy, whereas catabolism produces or 'frees up' energy

  • The energy required for catabolism is obtained from either organic or inorganic compounds

Explanation

Question 8 of 66

1

Which of the following is TRUE concerning oxidation and reduction?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Oxidation involves the loss of electrons and hydrogen, whereas reduction involves the gain of electrons and hydrogen

  • Oxidation is exothermic and endergonic; reduction is endothermic and exergonic

  • Reduction allows for the storage of energy; oxidation allows for the liberation of energy

  • During oxidation, oxygen is gained; during reduction, oxygen is neither lost nor gained

  • "Redox" reactions refer to the simultaneous occurrence of oxidation and reduction

Explanation

Question 9 of 66

1

Select from the dropdown lists to complete the text.

Fermentation is a(n) ( anaerobic, aerobic ) process that ( does not, does ) create ATP.

Explanation

Question 10 of 66

1

Which of the following are aerobic?

Select one of the following:

  • Fermentation

  • Glycolysis

  • Respiration

Explanation

Question 11 of 66

1

Which of the following creates the most ATP?

Select one of the following:

  • Fermentation

  • Glycolysis

  • Aerobic respiration

  • Anaerobic respiration

Explanation

Question 12 of 66

1

Select from the dropdown lists to complete the text.

( Caspids, Envelopes, Spores ) are a key structural component of viruses. They protect ( nucleic acids, ribosomes, pili ) and determine the ( shape, method of replication, host range ) of the virus, which can help in identification.

Explanation

Question 13 of 66

1

Viruses can have RNA or DNA, both of which can either be single stranded or double stranded.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 14 of 66

1

Which of the following are TRUE concerning viral envelopes?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Few viruses have a typical bilayer membrane

  • Some viruses do not have a membrane, they only have a nucleocaspid

  • Certain viruses have glycoprotein spikes that help attach to host cells

Explanation

Question 15 of 66

1

Which of the following is the CORRECT sequence of events in viral replication?

Select one of the following:

  • Attachment; Penetration; Synthesis; Assembly; Release

  • Assembly; Attachment; Penetration; Synthesis; Release

  • Introduction; Transcription; Penetration; Release

  • Penetration; Transcription; Synthesis; Assembly; Release

Explanation

Question 16 of 66

1

Select from the dropdown lists to complete the text.

Different viruses release their particles differently. Certain viruses ( lyse, engulf ) the cell upon release, thereby causing cell death. Other viruses that cause persistent illness exit the host cell via ( exocytosis, endocytosis ). In latent infections, there is no viral release from host cells.

Explanation

Question 17 of 66

1

Fill the blank space to complete the text.

HPV and Epstein-Barr and both types of viruses, which inhibit tumour suppression.

Explanation

Question 18 of 66

1

Oncogenic viruses may be used as a treatment, whereby they enter all cells but only lyse tumour cells, which initiates a systemic anti-tumour immune response.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 19 of 66

1

Bacteria do not have nuclei.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 20 of 66

1

Bacteria may be identified by:

Select one or more of the following:

  • size

  • shape

  • staining

  • growth

  • biochemical tests

Explanation

Question 21 of 66

1

Gram positive bacteria retain ink and they turn pink. Gram negative bacteria do not retain the ink and they turn purple.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 22 of 66

1

Select allh the CORRECT statements regarding the growth and replication of bacteria.

Select one or more of the following:

  • Bacteria exhibit a growth curve (lag, log, stationary, and decline/death)

  • Bacteria replicate via meiosis or mitosis

  • Bacteria undergo asexual reproduction

  • Bacteria may be obligate intracellular, facultative intracellular, or extracellular in their growth

  • Bacteria require an intercellular location in which to grow

Explanation

Question 23 of 66

1

Bacterial endospores are resistant to heat, pH changes, and bleach, but may be killed by radiation.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 24 of 66

1

Fill the blank space to complete the text.

Quorum sensing is a key part of the formation of a .

Explanation

Question 25 of 66

1

Biofilms may form in diabetic ulcers or on urinary catheters and pose major problems for culturing. Antibiotics are usually ineffective but bacteriophage treatment may work.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 26 of 66

1

The development of peptic ulcers, secondary to an infection with h. pylori, is an example of...

Select one of the following:

  • non-communicable disease

  • communicable disease

  • the effects of bacterial biofilms

  • a side effect of bacteriophage treatment

Explanation

Question 27 of 66

1

Which of the following is TRUE concerning parasites?

Select one of the following:

  • Protozoa are eukaryotic and most are multicellular

  • Helminths are usually multicellular and only roundworms and flatworms contain parasitic species

  • Arthropods include insects (e.g. lice) and arachnids (e.g. ticks) but not crustaceans (e.g. crayfish)

  • Protozoa are prokaryotic and most are unicellular

Explanation

Question 28 of 66

1

Tapeworms and pinworms are examples of...

Select one of the following:

  • helminiths

  • protozoa

  • arthropods

  • flukes

Explanation

Question 29 of 66

1

Which of the following statements are TRUE regarding parasitic hosts?

Select one of the following:

  • Definitive hosts are where parasites reproduce sexually, whereas intermediate hosts are where parasites spend other life stages (e.g. larval)

  • Reservoir hosts cannot spread parasites to humans but they can to other animals

  • Accidental host is another term for reservoir host

  • A dead-end host is where parasites spend the larval stage

Explanation

Question 30 of 66

1

A biological vector can be an intermediate or definitive host, whereas a mechanical vector is not a host.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 31 of 66

1

Which of the following statements about fungi is FALSE?

Select one of the following:

  • Fungi are eukaryotic and most are multicellular (e.g. molds, mushrooms) but some are unicellular (e.g. yeasts)

  • Most fungi cell walls contain chitin, which is the same polysaccharide in exoskeletons of arthropods

  • Fungi are classified via the nature of the sexual stage of their lifecycle but classification can be very difficult

  • Yeast have hyphae, whereas molds replicate asexually via buds

Explanation

Question 32 of 66

1

Fill the blank space to complete the text.

The concept of refers to the ability of certain fungi to change their structure in response to a change in environment. This can be seen with the organism p. brasiliensis, which is yeast-like when on the human body and mold-like when in the environment.

Explanation

Question 33 of 66

1

Select from the dropdown list to complete the text.

Fungi use ( ergosterol instead of cholesterol, cholesterol instead of ergosterol ), which is why drugs such as fluconazole target the enzymes used in synthesis.

Explanation

Question 34 of 66

1

Fungal infections are caused by the use of drugs, such as steroids, antibiotics, and chemo. Fungal infections are not caused by pathogens.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 35 of 66

1

Fungi are very important because they produce antimicrobials, such as penicillin.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 36 of 66

1

Fill the blank spaces to complete the text.

The clinical microbiology lab consists of six main areas: bacteriology (bacteria); (fungi); virology (viruses); (detect antibodies in the blood); parasitology (protozoa, helminthes); and (acid-fast bacteria, e.g. TB).

Explanation

Question 37 of 66

1

Which of the following statements comparing direct detection, culturing, and nucleic acid/signal amplification testing is FALSE?

Select one of the following:

  • SAT and direct detection both have short turnaround times, whereas culturing has a long TAT

  • SAT is both the most expensive and the most sensitive test, compared to culturing and direct detection

  • Culturing involves growing cells on agar plates, whereas direct detection looks at an actual cell

  • Direct detection can only be used for bacteria, not viruses, unlike culturing and SAT

Explanation

Question 38 of 66

1

Which of the following is the correct sequence of events in the process of gram staining?

Select one of the following:

  • Crystal violet; Iodine; Alcohol; Safranin

  • Crystal violet; Alcohol; Iodine; Safranin

  • Safranin; Iodine; Crystal Violet; Alcohol

  • Alcohol; Safranin; Iodine; Crystal violet

Explanation

Question 39 of 66

1

During a gram staining test, the gram negative bacteria go from purple to invisible to pink.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 40 of 66

1

Select which of the following statements are CORRECT regarding direct detection.

Select one or more of the following:

  • Gram staining is a very common method of direct detection for viruses

  • Calcofluor is a test used to detect fungi; the substance binds to cellulose and chitin

  • Electron microscopy and direct fluorescent antibody staining are two methods to detect viruses

  • Electron microscopy is a common method of direct detection for bacteria

Explanation

Question 41 of 66

1

The main purpose of streaking on an agar plate is to isolate only a single specie.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 42 of 66

1

After a bacterium has been cultured, it may be identified via growth in a medium. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding "selective" mediums?

Select one of the following:

  • Increases the growth of some bacteria and decreases the growth of others (e.g. adding abx to agar plate)

  • Has additive that causes observable change (e.g. colour, pH)

  • Increases the growth of some bacteria but does not suppress the growth of others

  • Agar plate is embedded with antibiotics

Explanation

Question 43 of 66

1

What is the name of the test that involves pouring a test specimen into a plate imbedded with specific antigens?

Select one of the following:

  • Enzyme immunoassay

  • Electron microscopy

  • Calcofluor

  • Gram staining

Explanation

Question 44 of 66

1

A bacterial susceptibility test cannot be performed on a direct detection sample; the bacteria must be cultured first.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 45 of 66

1

In the context of bacterial susceptibility tests, was does "MIC" stand for?

Select one of the following:

  • Minimum inhibitory concentration

  • Minimum inhibitory complex

  • Maximum inhibitory concentration

  • Minimum immunoabsorbent complex

Explanation

Question 46 of 66

1

Which of the following are CORRECT regarding the procedure for drawing blood cultures?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Use a peripheral poke whenever possible

  • Use a peripheral IV, if present

  • Take samples 30 minutes apart

  • Use two sets (4 bottles total), never just one (sometimes three)

  • Use a central line, if present

Explanation

Question 47 of 66

1

Select from the dropdown list to complete the text.

( Amplicon, Shotgun, Whole genome ) sequencing involves taking one part from a pure or mixed sample and comparing it to a reference.

Explanation

Question 48 of 66

1

Which of the following is TRUE?

Select one of the following:

  • Amplicon sequencing involves taking one part from a pure sample only and comparing it to a reference.

  • Shotgun (aka meta genomic) sequencing involves taking a sample from a mixed/complex template and investigating that sample in detail.

  • Whole genome sequencing involves taking a sample from a mixed template and fully understanding that one piece.

  • Shotgun and whole genome sequencing are similar, in that they both sample from a pure template.

Explanation

Question 49 of 66

1

16s ribosomal RNA assists in sequencing microbiomes because they serve as a kind of bacterial barcode.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 50 of 66

1

All bacteria have 16s ribosomal RNA but there are small differences between them.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 51 of 66

1

Select all of TRUE statements from the following, regarding how diversity is assessed in the human microbiome:

Select one or more of the following:

  • number of taxa (species)

  • relative abundance of each species present

  • degree of phylogenetic dissimilarity of the species present

  • whether someone is colonized or infected with an ARO

Explanation

Question 52 of 66

1

Which of the following is CORRECT regarding dysbiosis?

Select one of the following:

  • Pathobionts is the overgrowth of organisms usually present, versus pathogens, which cause harm in certain numbers

  • Pathogens are usually present in healthy human bodies, versus pathobionts cause significant harm when at all present

Explanation

Question 53 of 66

1

The term "dysbiosis" refers to changes in the microbiome that are associated with disease.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 54 of 66

1

Which of the following is TRUE regarding the relationship between diversity and relative abundance of any single microbe?

Select one of the following:

  • An increase in abundance of one specie drives down diversity, and less diversity contributes to disease

  • A decrease in the abundance of one specie relates to an increase in diversity, and greater diversity contributes to disease

Explanation

Question 55 of 66

1

B. thetaiotaomicron stimulates the host to produce anti-microbial peptides that target gram positive bacteria. This is an example of...

Select one of the following:

  • Indirect colonization resistance

  • Direct colonization resistance

  • Dysbiosis

  • Colonization

Explanation

Question 56 of 66

1

The rationale for using fecal transplants to treat a c. diff infection is that the transplant can increase diversity.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 57 of 66

1

Which of the following diseases are associated with a decrease in diversity?

Select one or more of the following:

  • C Diff

  • Recurrent UTIs

  • Atopic dermatosis

  • IBD

  • Bacterial vaginosis

Explanation

Question 58 of 66

1

Which of the following statements is the best description of "commensalism"?

Select one of the following:

  • Both benefit

  • One benefits and there is no effect on the other

  • One benefits, the other is harmed

  • E.coli, because it aids in vitamin K absorption in the large intestine

Explanation

Question 59 of 66

1

Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding the factors that contribute to virulence?

Select one of the following:

  • Strains of bacteria, such as n. gonorrhoeae, are rarely able to cause disease if they have fimbriae (aka "attachment pili")

  • Pathogens that have fimbriae may cause hemeagglutination

  • Capsules contribute to virulence because they act as a barrier to host defenses

  • Pathogens that have haemolysin may cause host tissue damage

Explanation

Question 60 of 66

1

Exotoxins are associated mostly with gram negative bacteria and are released when cells divide or when cells die. Endotoxins are produced and released mostly by gram positive bacteria and the ingestion of the toxin can cause disease (e.g. botulinum).

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 61 of 66

1

Which of the following is the correct order of stages of disease?

Select one of the following:

  • Incubation, prodromal, invasive, decline, convalescence

  • Invasive, prodromal, incubation, decline, convalescence

  • Prodromal, incubation, invasive, decline, convalenscene

  • Incubation, prodromal, convalescence, invasive, decline

Explanation

Question 62 of 66

1

The most severe signs and symptoms of a disease are during the invasive period.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 63 of 66

1

The surface proteins on the flu virus that contribute to its virulence are hemeagglutinin and neuraminidase.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 64 of 66

1

Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding the flu virus?

Select one of the following:

  • The flu virus has a "segmented genome", which means that it has 8 segments of RNA. This contributes to virulence.

  • Shedding starts after exposure and continues until day 6 of the illness. The peak of shedding is at day 2.

  • Shedding occurs between days 4 and 6, when the person feels most ill.

  • Hemeagglutinin is the only surface protein on the flu virus.

Explanation

Question 65 of 66

1

An antigenic shift causes seasonal influenza every year and is a result of the segmented genome of the flu virus (liable to make small mistakes each time they copy).

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 66 of 66

1

Which of the following statements are TRUE concerning limiting the spread of the flu virus?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Vaccinations are very important and are only contraindicated in children under 6 months, people who have had a previous anaphylactic reaction, and people who have had Guillain-Barre syndrome as a result of the flu vaccine in the past.

  • Practicing good hand hygiene is a good way to limit the spread of the flu virus

  • "Social distancing" is a very effective way of preventing the spread of the flu virus

  • Masks are most effective when worn by ill persons, not healthy persons

Explanation

Previous
Next