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Microbiology EXAM 1

Description

Quiz to prep for microbio exam 1.
Ash Lig
Quiz by Ash Lig, updated more than 1 year ago
Ash Lig
Created by Ash Lig about 8 years ago
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Resource summary

Question 1

Question
Approximately 5% of known microbes cause disease in humans.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 2

Question
Prokaryotic cells divide via [blank_start]binary fission[blank_end] and reproduce [blank_start]asexually[blank_end].
Answer
  • binary fission
  • mitosis and/or meiosis
  • asexually
  • sexually or asexually

Question 3

Question
Which of the following are TRUE of prokaryotic cells?
Answer
  • single circular chromosome of DNA
  • plasma membrane is a fluid-mosaic structure and contains sterols
  • genes are located in a nuclear region
  • extrachromosomal DNA is located in plasmids and mitochondria
  • they have many intracellular organelles
  • ribosomes are 70S

Question 4

Question
When flagella are present on eukaryotic cells, they are fibrils of flagellin. When flagella are present on prokaryotic cells, they are membrane-enclosed structures comprised of microtubules.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 5

Question
Which of the following is TRUE about the pili on eukaryotic cells?
Answer
  • Eukaryotic cells do not have pili
  • The pili function as attachment or conjugation pili; this contributes to the virulence of many pathogens
  • The pili are embedded in the external slime layer and assist researchers in identification of pathogens
  • They are complex, membrane-enclosed structures, comprised of microtubules

Question 6

Question
Metabolism is the sum of all the [blank_start]chemical[blank_end] processes carried out by living organisms.
Answer
  • chemical

Question 7

Question
Which of the following is FALSE concerning metabolism?
Answer
  • Anabolism requires energy, whereas catabolism produces or 'frees up' energy
  • The energy required for catabolism is obtained from either organic or inorganic compounds

Question 8

Question
Which of the following is TRUE concerning oxidation and reduction?
Answer
  • Oxidation involves the loss of electrons and hydrogen, whereas reduction involves the gain of electrons and hydrogen
  • Oxidation is exothermic and endergonic; reduction is endothermic and exergonic
  • Reduction allows for the storage of energy; oxidation allows for the liberation of energy
  • During oxidation, oxygen is gained; during reduction, oxygen is neither lost nor gained
  • "Redox" reactions refer to the simultaneous occurrence of oxidation and reduction

Question 9

Question
Fermentation is a(n) [blank_start]anaerobic[blank_end] process that [blank_start]does not[blank_end] create ATP.
Answer
  • anaerobic
  • aerobic
  • does not
  • does

Question 10

Question
Which of the following are aerobic?
Answer
  • Fermentation
  • Glycolysis
  • Respiration

Question 11

Question
Which of the following creates the most ATP?
Answer
  • Fermentation
  • Glycolysis
  • Aerobic respiration
  • Anaerobic respiration

Question 12

Question
[blank_start]Caspids[blank_end] are a key structural component of viruses. They protect [blank_start]nucleic acids[blank_end] and determine the [blank_start]shape[blank_end] of the virus, which can help in identification.
Answer
  • Caspids
  • Envelopes
  • Spores
  • nucleic acids
  • ribosomes
  • pili
  • shape
  • method of replication
  • host range

Question 13

Question
Viruses can have RNA or DNA, both of which can either be single stranded or double stranded.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 14

Question
Which of the following are TRUE concerning viral envelopes?
Answer
  • Few viruses have a typical bilayer membrane
  • Some viruses do not have a membrane, they only have a nucleocaspid
  • Certain viruses have glycoprotein spikes that help attach to host cells

Question 15

Question
Which of the following is the CORRECT sequence of events in viral replication?
Answer
  • Attachment; Penetration; Synthesis; Assembly; Release
  • Assembly; Attachment; Penetration; Synthesis; Release
  • Introduction; Transcription; Penetration; Release
  • Penetration; Transcription; Synthesis; Assembly; Release

Question 16

Question
Different viruses release their particles differently. Certain viruses [blank_start]lyse[blank_end] the cell upon release, thereby causing cell death. Other viruses that cause persistent illness exit the host cell via [blank_start]exocytosis[blank_end]. In latent infections, there is no viral release from host cells.
Answer
  • lyse
  • engulf
  • exocytosis
  • endocytosis

Question 17

Question
HPV and Epstein-Barr and both types of [blank_start]oncogenic[blank_end] viruses, which inhibit tumour suppression.
Answer
  • oncogenic

Question 18

Question
Oncogenic viruses may be used as a treatment, whereby they enter all cells but only lyse tumour cells, which initiates a systemic anti-tumour immune response.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 19

Question
Bacteria do not have nuclei.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 20

Question
Bacteria may be identified by:
Answer
  • size
  • shape
  • staining
  • growth
  • biochemical tests

Question 21

Question
Gram positive bacteria retain ink and they turn pink. Gram negative bacteria do not retain the ink and they turn purple.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 22

Question
Select allh the CORRECT statements regarding the growth and replication of bacteria.
Answer
  • Bacteria exhibit a growth curve (lag, log, stationary, and decline/death)
  • Bacteria replicate via meiosis or mitosis
  • Bacteria undergo asexual reproduction
  • Bacteria may be obligate intracellular, facultative intracellular, or extracellular in their growth
  • Bacteria require an intercellular location in which to grow

Question 23

Question
Bacterial endospores are resistant to heat, pH changes, and bleach, but may be killed by radiation.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 24

Question
Quorum sensing is a key part of the formation of a [blank_start]biofilm[blank_end].
Answer
  • biofilm

Question 25

Question
Biofilms may form in diabetic ulcers or on urinary catheters and pose major problems for culturing. Antibiotics are usually ineffective but bacteriophage treatment may work.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 26

Question
The development of peptic ulcers, secondary to an infection with h. pylori, is an example of...
Answer
  • non-communicable disease
  • communicable disease
  • the effects of bacterial biofilms
  • a side effect of bacteriophage treatment

Question 27

Question
Which of the following is TRUE concerning parasites?
Answer
  • Protozoa are eukaryotic and most are multicellular
  • Helminths are usually multicellular and only roundworms and flatworms contain parasitic species
  • Arthropods include insects (e.g. lice) and arachnids (e.g. ticks) but not crustaceans (e.g. crayfish)
  • Protozoa are prokaryotic and most are unicellular

Question 28

Question
Tapeworms and pinworms are examples of...
Answer
  • helminiths
  • protozoa
  • arthropods
  • flukes

Question 29

Question
Which of the following statements are TRUE regarding parasitic hosts?
Answer
  • Definitive hosts are where parasites reproduce sexually, whereas intermediate hosts are where parasites spend other life stages (e.g. larval)
  • Reservoir hosts cannot spread parasites to humans but they can to other animals
  • Accidental host is another term for reservoir host
  • A dead-end host is where parasites spend the larval stage

Question 30

Question
A biological vector can be an intermediate or definitive host, whereas a mechanical vector is not a host.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 31

Question
Which of the following statements about fungi is FALSE?
Answer
  • Fungi are eukaryotic and most are multicellular (e.g. molds, mushrooms) but some are unicellular (e.g. yeasts)
  • Most fungi cell walls contain chitin, which is the same polysaccharide in exoskeletons of arthropods
  • Fungi are classified via the nature of the sexual stage of their lifecycle but classification can be very difficult
  • Yeast have hyphae, whereas molds replicate asexually via buds

Question 32

Question
The concept of [blank_start]dimorphism[blank_end] refers to the ability of certain fungi to change their structure in response to a change in environment. This can be seen with the organism p. brasiliensis, which is yeast-like when on the human body and mold-like when in the environment.
Answer
  • dimorphism

Question 33

Question
Fungi use [blank_start]ergosterol instead of cholesterol[blank_end], which is why drugs such as fluconazole target the enzymes used in synthesis.
Answer
  • ergosterol instead of cholesterol
  • cholesterol instead of ergosterol

Question 34

Question
Fungal infections are caused by the use of drugs, such as steroids, antibiotics, and chemo. Fungal infections are not caused by pathogens.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 35

Question
Fungi are very important because they produce antimicrobials, such as penicillin.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 36

Question
The clinical microbiology lab consists of six main areas: bacteriology (bacteria); [blank_start]mycology[blank_end] (fungi); virology (viruses); [blank_start]serology[blank_end] (detect antibodies in the blood); parasitology (protozoa, helminthes); and [blank_start]mycobacteriology[blank_end] (acid-fast bacteria, e.g. TB).
Answer
  • mycology
  • serology
  • mycobacteriology

Question 37

Question
Which of the following statements comparing direct detection, culturing, and nucleic acid/signal amplification testing is FALSE?
Answer
  • SAT and direct detection both have short turnaround times, whereas culturing has a long TAT
  • SAT is both the most expensive and the most sensitive test, compared to culturing and direct detection
  • Culturing involves growing cells on agar plates, whereas direct detection looks at an actual cell
  • Direct detection can only be used for bacteria, not viruses, unlike culturing and SAT

Question 38

Question
Which of the following is the correct sequence of events in the process of gram staining?
Answer
  • Crystal violet; Iodine; Alcohol; Safranin
  • Crystal violet; Alcohol; Iodine; Safranin
  • Safranin; Iodine; Crystal Violet; Alcohol
  • Alcohol; Safranin; Iodine; Crystal violet

Question 39

Question
During a gram staining test, the gram negative bacteria go from purple to invisible to pink.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 40

Question
Select which of the following statements are CORRECT regarding direct detection.
Answer
  • Gram staining is a very common method of direct detection for viruses
  • Calcofluor is a test used to detect fungi; the substance binds to cellulose and chitin
  • Electron microscopy and direct fluorescent antibody staining are two methods to detect viruses
  • Electron microscopy is a common method of direct detection for bacteria

Question 41

Question
The main purpose of streaking on an agar plate is to isolate only a single specie.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 42

Question
After a bacterium has been cultured, it may be identified via growth in a medium. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding "selective" mediums?
Answer
  • Increases the growth of some bacteria and decreases the growth of others (e.g. adding abx to agar plate)
  • Has additive that causes observable change (e.g. colour, pH)
  • Increases the growth of some bacteria but does not suppress the growth of others
  • Agar plate is embedded with antibiotics

Question 43

Question
What is the name of the test that involves pouring a test specimen into a plate imbedded with specific antigens?
Answer
  • Enzyme immunoassay
  • Electron microscopy
  • Calcofluor
  • Gram staining

Question 44

Question
A bacterial susceptibility test cannot be performed on a direct detection sample; the bacteria must be cultured first.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 45

Question
In the context of bacterial susceptibility tests, was does "MIC" stand for?
Answer
  • Minimum inhibitory concentration
  • Minimum inhibitory complex
  • Maximum inhibitory concentration
  • Minimum immunoabsorbent complex

Question 46

Question
Which of the following are CORRECT regarding the procedure for drawing blood cultures?
Answer
  • Use a peripheral poke whenever possible
  • Use a peripheral IV, if present
  • Take samples 30 minutes apart
  • Use two sets (4 bottles total), never just one (sometimes three)
  • Use a central line, if present

Question 47

Question
[blank_start]Amplicon[blank_end] sequencing involves taking one part from a pure or mixed sample and comparing it to a reference.
Answer
  • Amplicon
  • Shotgun
  • Whole genome

Question 48

Question
Which of the following is TRUE?
Answer
  • Amplicon sequencing involves taking one part from a pure sample only and comparing it to a reference.
  • Shotgun (aka meta genomic) sequencing involves taking a sample from a mixed/complex template and investigating that sample in detail.
  • Whole genome sequencing involves taking a sample from a mixed template and fully understanding that one piece.
  • Shotgun and whole genome sequencing are similar, in that they both sample from a pure template.

Question 49

Question
16s ribosomal RNA assists in sequencing microbiomes because they serve as a kind of bacterial barcode.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 50

Question
All bacteria have 16s ribosomal RNA but there are small differences between them.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 51

Question
Select all of TRUE statements from the following, regarding how diversity is assessed in the human microbiome:
Answer
  • number of taxa (species)
  • relative abundance of each species present
  • degree of phylogenetic dissimilarity of the species present
  • whether someone is colonized or infected with an ARO

Question 52

Question
Which of the following is CORRECT regarding dysbiosis?
Answer
  • Pathobionts is the overgrowth of organisms usually present, versus pathogens, which cause harm in certain numbers
  • Pathogens are usually present in healthy human bodies, versus pathobionts cause significant harm when at all present

Question 53

Question
The term "dysbiosis" refers to changes in the microbiome that are associated with disease.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 54

Question
Which of the following is TRUE regarding the relationship between diversity and relative abundance of any single microbe?
Answer
  • An increase in abundance of one specie drives down diversity, and less diversity contributes to disease
  • A decrease in the abundance of one specie relates to an increase in diversity, and greater diversity contributes to disease

Question 55

Question
B. thetaiotaomicron stimulates the host to produce anti-microbial peptides that target gram positive bacteria. This is an example of...
Answer
  • Indirect colonization resistance
  • Direct colonization resistance
  • Dysbiosis
  • Colonization

Question 56

Question
The rationale for using fecal transplants to treat a c. diff infection is that the transplant can increase diversity.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 57

Question
Which of the following diseases are associated with a decrease in diversity?
Answer
  • C Diff
  • Recurrent UTIs
  • Atopic dermatosis
  • IBD
  • Bacterial vaginosis

Question 58

Question
Which of the following statements is the best description of "commensalism"?
Answer
  • Both benefit
  • One benefits and there is no effect on the other
  • One benefits, the other is harmed
  • E.coli, because it aids in vitamin K absorption in the large intestine

Question 59

Question
Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding the factors that contribute to virulence?
Answer
  • Strains of bacteria, such as n. gonorrhoeae, are rarely able to cause disease if they have fimbriae (aka "attachment pili")
  • Pathogens that have fimbriae may cause hemeagglutination
  • Capsules contribute to virulence because they act as a barrier to host defenses
  • Pathogens that have haemolysin may cause host tissue damage

Question 60

Question
Exotoxins are associated mostly with gram negative bacteria and are released when cells divide or when cells die. Endotoxins are produced and released mostly by gram positive bacteria and the ingestion of the toxin can cause disease (e.g. botulinum).
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 61

Question
Which of the following is the correct order of stages of disease?
Answer
  • Incubation, prodromal, invasive, decline, convalescence
  • Invasive, prodromal, incubation, decline, convalescence
  • Prodromal, incubation, invasive, decline, convalenscene
  • Incubation, prodromal, convalescence, invasive, decline

Question 62

Question
The most severe signs and symptoms of a disease are during the invasive period.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 63

Question
The surface proteins on the flu virus that contribute to its virulence are hemeagglutinin and neuraminidase.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 64

Question
Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding the flu virus?
Answer
  • The flu virus has a "segmented genome", which means that it has 8 segments of RNA. This contributes to virulence.
  • Shedding starts after exposure and continues until day 6 of the illness. The peak of shedding is at day 2.
  • Shedding occurs between days 4 and 6, when the person feels most ill.
  • Hemeagglutinin is the only surface protein on the flu virus.

Question 65

Question
An antigenic shift causes seasonal influenza every year and is a result of the segmented genome of the flu virus (liable to make small mistakes each time they copy).
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 66

Question
Which of the following statements are TRUE concerning limiting the spread of the flu virus?
Answer
  • Vaccinations are very important and are only contraindicated in children under 6 months, people who have had a previous anaphylactic reaction, and people who have had Guillain-Barre syndrome as a result of the flu vaccine in the past.
  • Practicing good hand hygiene is a good way to limit the spread of the flu virus
  • "Social distancing" is a very effective way of preventing the spread of the flu virus
  • Masks are most effective when worn by ill persons, not healthy persons
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