Rachel Nall
Quiz by , created more than 1 year ago

Quiz on IHS Intro to Anesthesia Meds, created by Rachel Nall on 07/06/2016.

74
4
0
No tags specified
Rachel Nall
Created by Rachel Nall almost 8 years ago
Close

IHS Intro to Anesthesia Meds

Question 1 of 90

1

What is the most commonly administered pre-operative sedative category?

Select one of the following:

  • Benzodiazepines

  • Opioids

  • Anticholinergics

  • Antisialogue

Explanation

Question 2 of 90

1

Fill the blank spaces to complete the text.

is the most commonly administered benzo. Its therapeutic dose is to milligrams IV.

Explanation

Question 3 of 90

1

Which of the following is NOT one of the actions of a benzodiazepine?

Select one of the following:

  • Anxiety

  • Sedation

  • Amnesia

  • Analgesia

Explanation

Question 4 of 90

1

What category of medications produces analgesia during anesthesia?

Select one of the following:

  • Benzodiazepines

  • Opioids

  • Antislalogues

  • Anticholinergics

Explanation

Question 5 of 90

1

Which of the following is the typical analgesic of choice?

Select one of the following:

  • Fentanyl

  • Morphine

  • Dilaudid

  • Demerol

Explanation

Question 6 of 90

1

What is the pre-operative dose for Fentanyl?

Select one of the following:

  • 25-100 mcg

  • 25 to 50 mcg

  • 5 to 15 mg

  • 20 to 80 mcg

Explanation

Question 7 of 90

1

Which of the following is NOT an advantage of opioid administration?

Select one of the following:

  • Absence of direct myocardial depression

  • Less narcotic requirement postoperatively

  • Reduction of pain before placing lines pre-operatively

  • Depression of the medullary ventilatory center

Explanation

Question 8 of 90

1

Select all that you would be concerned about when administering an opioid for analgesia:

Select one or more of the following:

  • Decreased responsiveness to CO2

  • Relaxation of the peripheral vascular smooth muscle

  • Nausea and vomiting

  • Risk of gastric aspiration

  • Direct myocardial depression

  • Greater post-op requirements for pain medications

Explanation

Question 9 of 90

1

What is the recommended dose for morphine?

Select one of the following:

  • 5 to 15 mg

  • 2 to 10 mg

  • 10 to 20 mg

  • 5 to 15 mcg

Explanation

Question 10 of 90

1

Fill the blank space to complete the text.

is the typical anticholinergic given.

Explanation

Question 11 of 90

1

Select all of the known side effects of Robinol.

Select one or more of the following:

  • Antislalogue

  • Sedative and amnesic

  • Central nervous system toxicity

  • Relaxation of LES

  • Mydriasis and cycloplegia

Explanation

Question 12 of 90

1

Select all of the side effects of scopolamine.

Select one or more of the following:

  • Antislalogue

  • Sedative and amnesic effects

  • Central nervous system toxicity

  • Relaxation of LES

  • Mydriasis and cycloplegia

Explanation

Question 13 of 90

1

Fill the blank spaces to complete the text.

is dilation of the pupil. can cause this.

Explanation

Question 14 of 90

1

Medications that have an antisialogogue effect are particularly effective for what procedure types?

Select one of the following:

  • Intraoral procedures

  • Bronchoscopy

  • Fiberoptic intubations

  • Supine cases

  • Lateral cases

Explanation

Question 15 of 90

1

What are the effects of atropine?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Antisialagogue

  • Sedative and amnesic

  • Central nervous system toxicity

  • Relaxation of the LES

  • Mydriasis and cycloplegia

Explanation

Question 16 of 90

1

Fill the blank space to complete the text.

are most commonly administered in pediatric patients due to their strong vagal reactions.

Explanation

Question 17 of 90

1

Which anticholinergic is most commonly associated with producing CNS toxicity?

Select one of the following:

  • Atropine

  • Scopolamine

  • Robinol

Explanation

Question 18 of 90

1

What is the dose for atropine?

Select one of the following:

  • 0.3 to 0.6 mg

  • 1 to 6 mg

  • 0.3 to 0.6 mcg

  • 1 to 6 mcg

Explanation

Question 19 of 90

1

Fill the blank space to complete the text.

The therapeutic dose for Robinol is mg IV.

Explanation

Question 20 of 90

1

Fill the blank spaces to complete the text.

Anticholinergics don't have selective action to receptors. They can cause a blockade of receptors in the CNS. As a result, you need to administer an anticholinergic along with a medication like .

Explanation

Question 21 of 90

1

What conditions should NOT give you pause in administering an anticholinergic?

Select one of the following:

  • CAD

  • Mitral/Aortic stenosis

  • Atrial fibrillation

  • Bradycardia

Explanation

Question 22 of 90

1

Fill the blank space to complete the text.

suppress acid secretion in response to all primary stimulants: histamine, gastrin, and acetylcholine.

Explanation

Question 23 of 90

1

Fill the blank spaces to complete the text.

The three medications in the triple-threat aspiration prophylaxis are: , , and .

Explanation

Question 24 of 90

1

What is the dose for Bicitra?

Select one of the following:

  • 15 to 30 ml

  • 10 to 20 ml

  • 1 to 3 ml

  • 5 to 15 ml

Explanation

Question 25 of 90

1

What is the dose for Tagamet?

Select one of the following:

  • 200 to 300 mg

  • 100 to 150 mg

  • 25 to 100 mg

  • 250 to 350 mg

Explanation

Question 26 of 90

1

What is the dose for Zantac IV?

Select one of the following:

  • 25 mg

  • 50 mg

  • 75 mg

  • 100 mg

Explanation

Question 27 of 90

1

What is the dose for Pepcid?

Select one of the following:

  • 200 to 300 mg

  • 150 mg

  • 20 to 40 mg

Explanation

Question 28 of 90

1

Fill the blank space to complete the text.

An counters the ability of histamine to induce secretion of gastric fluid with a high concentration of H* ions.

Explanation

Question 29 of 90

1

Which of the following is not a proton pump inhibitor?

Select one of the following:

  • Prilosec

  • Protonix

  • Nexium

  • Prevacid

  • Pepcid

Explanation

Question 30 of 90

1

Fill the blank spaces to complete the text.

is the most common H2 antagonist. The typical dose is to mg PO.

Explanation

Question 31 of 90

1

Fill the blank space to complete the text.

are responsible for a decrease in gastric fluid volume.

Explanation

Question 32 of 90

1

What is the dose for Raglan?

Select one of the following:

  • 5 mg IV

  • 10 mg IV

  • 15 mg IV

  • 20 mg IV

Explanation

Question 33 of 90

1

Fill the blank spaces to complete the text.

and can work against each other as one can relax the LES and the other can increase LES.

Explanation

Question 34 of 90

1

Prokinetics like Reglan alter gastric pH.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 35 of 90

1

What is an example of an alpha 2 agonist?

Select one of the following:

  • Clonidine

  • Atropine

  • Decadron

  • Haldol

Explanation

Question 36 of 90

1

What is the dose for Clonidine?

Select one of the following:

  • 0.1 to 0.3 mg

  • 1 to 2 mg

  • 20 to 40 mg

  • 0.1 to 1 mg

Explanation

Question 37 of 90

1

Which of the following isn't an effect of clonidine?

Select one of the following:

  • Central-acting anti-hypertensive

  • Sedation

  • Reduces incidence of MI during surgery

  • Tachycardia

Explanation

Question 38 of 90

1

Fill the blank space to complete the text.

are recommended for pre-medication in patients undergoing high-risk procedures, like radiography dye studies.

Explanation

Question 39 of 90

1

What is NOT an example of a case when you would administer a GI prophylaxis for N/V?

Select one of the following:

  • Patients with a history of PONV

  • Laparoscopic procedures

  • Women undergoing gynecologic procedures

  • Radiographic dye studies

Explanation

Question 40 of 90

1

Which of the following is not an induction agent?

Select one of the following:

  • Succinylcholine

  • Propofol

  • Etomidate

  • Brevital

Explanation

Question 41 of 90

1

Fill the blank space to complete the text.

The is a polysynaptic pathway that travels from the brainstem to the cerebral cortex that is intimately concerned with the electrical activity of the cerebral cortex.

Explanation

Question 42 of 90

1

It's likely most of the anesthetic agents exert depressant effects on the RAS.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 43 of 90

1

What is the induction dose of thiopental?

Select one of the following:

  • 1 to 5 mg/kg

  • 3 to 6 mg/kg

  • 5 to 10 mg/kg

  • 10 to 15 mg/kg

Explanation

Question 44 of 90

1

What should you reconstitute thiopental with?

Select one of the following:

  • Isotonic sodium chloride

  • Lactated ringer's

  • Acidic solution

  • Vecuronium

Explanation

Question 45 of 90

1

Fill the blank space to complete the text.

Accidental intra-arterial injection is a serious concern for .

Explanation

Question 46 of 90

1

Fill the blank space to complete the text.

works through the facilitation of inhibitory neurotransmission mediated by GABA receptor.

Explanation

Question 47 of 90

1

The induction dose for Propofol is:

Select one of the following:

  • 1.5 to 2.5 mg/kg

  • 100 to 200 mcg/kg/min

  • 25 to 75 mcg/kg/min

Explanation

Question 48 of 90

1

The maintenance infusion for general anesthesia for Propofol is:

Select one of the following:

  • 1.5 to 2.5 mg/kg

  • 100 to 200 mcg/kg/min

  • 25 to 75 mcg/kg/min

Explanation

Question 49 of 90

1

The maintenance infusion for sedation for Propofol is:

Select one of the following:

  • 1.5 to 2.5 mg/kg

  • 100 to 200 mcg/kg/min

  • 25 to 75 mcg/kg/min

Explanation

Question 50 of 90

1

A person with an egg allergy can't receive Propofol.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 51 of 90

1

Fill the blank space to complete the text.

works by binding to a subunit of the GABA type A receptor. This increases its affinity for GABA, which causes depression of the RAS.

Explanation

Question 52 of 90

1

What is the induction dosage for Etomidate?

Select one of the following:

  • 0.2 to 0.3 mg/kg

  • 1 to 3 mg/kg

  • 20 to 40 mg/kg

  • 0.1 to 0.5 mg/kg

Explanation

Question 53 of 90

1

Etomidate has minimal effects on the CV system.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 54 of 90

1

Fill the blank spaces to complete the text.

Both and cause pain on injection. You can mix them with lidocaine.

Explanation

Question 55 of 90

1

Fill the blank space to complete the text.

can cause myoclonus.

Explanation

Question 56 of 90

1

The induction dose for Brevital is:

Select one of the following:

  • 1 - 3 mg/kg

  • 2 - 4 mg/kg

  • 5 to 10 mg/kg

  • 10 to 15 mg/kg

Explanation

Question 57 of 90

1

Fill the blank space to complete the text.

Brevital is cleared by the liver at a rate than thiopental.

Explanation

Question 58 of 90

1

Fill the blank spaces to complete the text.

Sux increases the following:
1. pressure
2. pressure
3. pressure
4.

Explanation

Question 59 of 90

1

The dosage for succinylcholine is:

Select one of the following:

  • 0.5 - 2 mg/kg

  • 1 - 1.5 mg/kg

  • 2 - 2.5 mg/kg

  • 3 - 5 mg/kg

Explanation

Question 60 of 90

1

Fill the blank space to complete the text.

Succinylcholine is a agent.

Explanation

Question 61 of 90

1

Fill the blank spaces to complete the text.

Name the four M's of succinylcholine:
1.
2.
3.
4.

Explanation

Question 62 of 90

1

Fill the blank space to complete the text.

Medications like vecuronium, rocuronium, pancuronium, and cistracurium are blocking drugs.

Explanation

Question 63 of 90

1

What is the incubation dose for vecuronium?

Select one of the following:

  • 0.08 to 0.1 mg/kg

  • 1 to 8 mg/kg

  • 5 to 15 mg/kg

Explanation

Question 64 of 90

1

How long does an intubating dose of vecuronium last?

Select one of the following:

  • 5 minutes

  • 10 minutes

  • 20 minutes

  • one hour

Explanation

Question 65 of 90

1

What type of patient wouldn't be a good candidate for vecuronium?

Select one of the following:

  • Cardiac dysfunction

  • Liver/Kidney dysfunction

  • Diabetes

  • Lung disease

Explanation

Question 66 of 90

1

What is the intubation dose for Rocuronium?

Select one of the following:

  • 0.1 mg/kg

  • 1 mg/kg

  • 2 mg/kg

  • 5 mg/kg

Explanation

Question 67 of 90

1

Rocuronium has a longer duration of intubating dose than vecuronium.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 68 of 90

1

Fill the blank spaces to complete the text.

Intubating dose for Atracurium is to mg/kg.

Explanation

Question 69 of 90

1

The intubation dose for Cisatracurium (Nimbex) is:

Select one of the following:

  • 0.2 mg/kg

  • 1 mg/kg

  • 5 mg/kg

  • 10 mg/kg

Explanation

Question 70 of 90

1

Cisatracurium is less potent than atracurium.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 71 of 90

1

Which two neuromuscular agents are those that are eliminated via Hoffman elimination:

Select one of the following:

  • Atracurium and Cisatracurium

  • Vecuronium and Rocuronium

  • Atracurium and Rocuronium

  • Cisatracurium and Rocuronium

Explanation

Question 72 of 90

1

Which of the following is NOT an action of inhaled anesthetics?

Select one of the following:

  • Immobility

  • Amnesia

  • CNS Depression

  • Analgesia

  • Muscle relaxation

Explanation

Question 73 of 90

1

Fill the blank space to complete the text.

MAC stands for .

Explanation

Question 74 of 90

1

Fill the blank space to complete the text.

The MAC of nitrous oxide is percent.

Explanation

Question 75 of 90

1

Nitrous oxide shouldn't be avoided in patients with the following:

Select one of the following:

  • At-risk for nausea and vomiting

  • In pregnancy

  • With suspected bowel blockage

  • At-risk for diffusion into air-containing cavities

Explanation

Question 76 of 90

1

Nitrous oxide is more soluble than nitrogen in the blood.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 77 of 90

1

Fill the blank space to complete the text.

The MAC of isoflurane (Forane) is percent.

Explanation

Question 78 of 90

1

Fill the blank space to complete the text.

Non depolarizing NMBAs are potentiated by .

Explanation

Question 79 of 90

1

Fill the blank space to complete the text.

The MAC of desflurane is percent.

Explanation

Question 80 of 90

1

Fill the blank spaces to complete the text.

The only difference between isoflurane and desflurane is the substitution of a atom for isoflurane's atom.

Explanation

Question 81 of 90

1

Which anesthetic gas requires a special, electrically heated vaporizer?

Select one of the following:

  • Desflurane

  • Isoflurane

  • Sevoflurane

  • Nitrous oxide

Explanation

Question 82 of 90

1

Fill the blank space to complete the text.

Wakeup times for are 50 percent less than those observed following isoflurane.

Explanation

Question 83 of 90

1

Fill the blank space to complete the text.

The MAC of sevoflurane is percent.

Explanation

Question 84 of 90

1

Fill the blank space to complete the text.

is an excellent induction agent for pediatric patients because it is non-pungent.

Explanation

Question 85 of 90

1

Which of the following is not a disadvantage of sevoflurane?

Select one of the following:

  • Production of compound A

  • Shouldn't be used in longer cases

  • Higher fresh gas flows of at least 2 liters

  • Is degraded by desiccated CO2 absorbent into potentially clinically significant levels of carbon monoxide

Explanation

Question 86 of 90

1

muscle relaxants act by competing with ACh for nicotinic cholinergic receptors for binding sites, which results in a blockade of neuromuscular transmission.

Drag and drop to complete the text.

    Non depolarizing
    Depolarizing

Explanation

Question 87 of 90

1

Fill the blank space to complete the text.

Neostigmine is an . It works by inhibiting the amount of acetylcholine available to compete with nondepolarizing agents.

Explanation

Question 88 of 90

1

Fill the blank spaces to complete the text.

The dosage for neostigmine is to mg/kg.

Explanation

Question 89 of 90

1

Fill the blank space to complete the text.

Neostigmine's duration is , give or take.

Explanation

Question 90 of 90

1

Fill the blank spaces to complete the text.

Sugammadex (Bridion) is FDA-approved to reverse and .

Explanation

Previous
Next