Nicole Buda
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Patho Quiz on Patho Final, created by Nicole Buda on 22/08/2016.

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Nicole Buda
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Patho Final

Question 1 of 141

1

Acronym for early stroke awareness

Select one of the following:

  • FUN

  • FACE

  • FAST

  • RACE

Explanation

Question 2 of 141

1

What does the 'F' in FAST stand for?

Select one of the following:

  • Face

  • Fast Response

  • False

  • Finish a sentence

Explanation

Question 3 of 141

1

Movement of arms like a 'C' inward toward spinal cord is called:

Select one of the following:

  • decerebrate

  • 'C'eizure

  • decorticate

  • muscle spasms

Explanation

Question 4 of 141

1

A transient ischemic attack or 'TIA' usually

Select one of the following:

  • lasts 2-3 hours

  • has permanent effects

  • lasts less than 1 hour

  • due to hemorrhage

Explanation

Question 5 of 141

1

Hemiplegia describes paralysis involving

Select one of the following:

  • unilateral side of body

  • lower extremeties

  • all four extremeties

  • muscles of the mouth

Explanation

Question 6 of 141

1

Clinical manifestations of CVA include:

Select one of the following:

  • HTN, dysphagia, arm drift, facial droop

  • burning in throat, epigastric pain

  • polyuria, polydipsia, polyphagia

  • chest pain and SOB

Explanation

Question 7 of 141

1

Types of ischemic stroke are:

Select one or more of the following:

  • thrombotic

  • hemorrhagic

  • transient

  • embolic

Explanation

Question 8 of 141

1

Cells involved in clearing blood debris of a hemorrhagic stroke include:

Select one or more of the following:

  • RBCs

  • lymphokines

  • astrocytes

  • macrophages

Explanation

Question 9 of 141

1

What are clinical manifestations of hemorrhagic stroke?

Select one of the following:

  • headache that develops in seconds, decreased LOC

  • urinary and bowel incontinence

  • aphasia, apraxia

  • increased hunger

Explanation

Question 10 of 141

1

Decerebrate posturing is described as:

Select one of the following:

  • extensor posturing

  • arms like an 'X'

  • arms like a 'C'

  • stiff neck

Explanation

Question 11 of 141

1

Neurological symptoms of a stroke appear as:

Select one of the following:

  • symmetrical

  • opposite side of injury

  • gradual onset

  • hypotension

Explanation

Question 12 of 141

1

Pt is exhibiting signs of right brain stroke, which side of the body will you see s/s?

Select one of the following:

  • left side

  • right side

  • both sides

  • neither side

Explanation

Question 13 of 141

1

Documenting a pt as lethargic means

Select one of the following:

  • easy arousal

  • no verbal response

  • minimal verbal response

  • disorientation to time

Explanation

Question 14 of 141

1

Pt only opens eyes w/ vigorous and repeated stimulation

Select one of the following:

  • coma

  • obtundation

  • lethargy

  • stupor

Explanation

Question 15 of 141

1

Increased intracranial pressure causes decrease in cerebral perfusion

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 16 of 141

1

The most common cause of osteomyelitis is:

Select one of the following:

  • hematogenous spread of infection

  • rheumatoid disease

  • direct contamination of an open wound

  • deficiency of calcium.

  • deficiency of vitamin D

Explanation

Question 17 of 141

1

The pathogenesis of osteoporosis involves:

Select one of the following:

  • inadequate mineralization

  • impaired synthesis of bone organic matrix

  • alteration in the OPG/RANKL/RANK system

  • formation of sclerotic bone

  • none of these

Explanation

Question 18 of 141

1

RA begins with:

Select one of the following:

  • destruction of the synovial membrane and subsynovial tissue

  • inflammation of ligaments

  • destruction of the articular cartilage

  • softening of the articular cartilage

  • destruction of the joint capsule

Explanation

Question 19 of 141

1

The causes of OA include which of the following? (More than one answer may be correct.)

Select one or more of the following:

  • enzymatic breakdown

  • proteoglycan destruction

  • rheumatoid factor

  • circulating immune complexes

  • infections

Explanation

Question 20 of 141

1

Ankylosing spondylitis: (More than one answer may be correct.)

Select one or more of the following:

  • is a systemic immune inflammatory disease

  • is characterized by stiffening or fusion of the spine.

  • causes instability of synovial joints

  • begins with inflammation of fibrocartilage

  • is manifested early by low back pain and stiffness

Explanation

Question 21 of 141

1

In gout:

Select one of the following:

  • the pathogenesis is formation of monosodium urate crystals in joints and tissues.

  • purine metabolism is altered.

  • affected individuals likely have an inherited enzyme defect.

  • the hyperuricemia can be the result of acquired chronic disease or a drug

  • all of these

Explanation

Question 22 of 141

1

A muscle contracture is:

Select one of the following:

  • the hyperuricemia can be the result of acquired chronic disease or a drug

  • muscle shortening possibly because of CNS injury

  • often helped by relaxation training and biofeedback

  • a consequence of reduced muscle protein synthesis

  • all of these

Explanation

Question 23 of 141

1

Sprains:

Select one or more of the following:

  • articular cartilages lose contact entirely

  • articular cartilages are partially separated

  • complete separation of a tendon or a ligament

  • a ligament tear

Explanation

Question 24 of 141

1

osteo-

Select one of the following:

  • pertaining to the bone

  • pertaining to the cartilage

  • muscle

  • pertaining to the joing

Explanation

Question 25 of 141

1

condro-

Select one of the following:

  • pertaining to the bone

  • pertaining to the cartilage

  • muscle

  • pertaining to the joint

Explanation

Question 26 of 141

1

Rhabdo-

Select one of the following:

  • literally means 'rod' or 'rod-like'

  • muscle weakness

Explanation

Question 27 of 141

1

myo-

Select one of the following:

  • muscle

  • muscle weakness

  • tumors of the connective tissue

Explanation

Question 28 of 141

1

artho-

Select one of the following:

  • pertaining to the bone

  • pertaining to the cartilage

  • muscle

  • pertaining to the joint

Explanation

Question 29 of 141

1

muscle diagnosis in which there is muscle weakness due to dysfunction of muscle fiber

Select one of the following:

  • fibromyalgia

  • myopathy

  • neuropathy

  • sprain

Explanation

Question 30 of 141

1

A sarcoma is a group of tumors arising from connective tissue

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 31 of 141

1

Arthritis is an inflammatory joint disease characterized by damage or destruction in the _____ or _____ and by systematic signs of inflammation (select all that apply)

Select one or more of the following:

  • connective tissue

  • synovial membrane

  • articular cartilage

  • nerve fibers

Explanation

Question 32 of 141

1

Non-inflammatory disease caused by a progression of loss in cartilage

Select one of the following:

  • osteoarthritis

  • RA

  • osteomyelitis

Explanation

Question 33 of 141

1

Non-infectious disease caused by an autoimmune reaction

Select one of the following:

  • osteoarthritis

  • RA

  • osteomyelitis

Explanation

Question 34 of 141

1

Sclerosis of bone underneath the cartilage and formation of bone spurs is possible with _____

Select one of the following:

  • osteoarthritis

  • RA

  • osteomyelitis

Explanation

Question 35 of 141

1

_____ has a higher incidence in the elderly and is primarily idiopathic

Select one of the following:

  • osteoarthritis

  • RA

  • osteomyelitis

Explanation

Question 36 of 141

1

Chronic condition caused by deterioration of cartilage (damaging chondrocytes). Cartilage becomes thin, flaky, then absent. Bone surfaces become less protected and therefore pt experiences pain upon weight bearing and mobilization

Select one of the following:

  • osteoarthritis

  • RA

  • osteomyelitis

Explanation

Question 37 of 141

1

Risk factors for _____ include: advancing age, joint trauma, long-term mechanical stress, drugs, obesity, and endocrine DOs

Select one of the following:

  • osteoarthritis

  • RA

  • osteomyelitis

Explanation

Question 38 of 141

1

Clinical manifestations of _____ include: deformity/nodules at ends of digits, worsening pain with activity, and asymmetrical symptoms

Select one of the following:

  • osteoarthritis

  • RA

  • osteomyelitis

Explanation

Question 39 of 141

1

Pain worsens with activity

Select one of the following:

  • osteoarthritis

  • RA

  • osteomyelitis

Explanation

Question 40 of 141

1

AM pain/stiffness diminishes in about 30 minutes after getting out of bed

Select one of the following:

  • osteoarthritis

  • RA

  • osteomyelitis

Explanation

Question 41 of 141

1

Diagnosis of _____ can be done with an x-ray

Select one of the following:

  • osteoarthritis

  • RA

  • osteomyelitis

Explanation

Question 42 of 141

1

An inflammatory autoimmune joint disease, primarily involving damage to the connective tissue in the synovial membrane. Cause is unknown, but multifactorial contributors and genetic predisposition have been noted

Select one of the following:

  • osteoarthritis

  • RA

  • osteomyelitis

Explanation

Question 43 of 141

1

Neutrophils and other cells in synovial fluid become activated and thicken becoming inflammatory exudate. Joint become swollen and inflamed. Inflammation causes small venules to become occluded w/ cells --> decrease in vascular flow to the joint. Inflammatory cytokines induce enzymatic breakdown of cartilage and bone.

Select one of the following:

  • osteoarthritis

  • RA

  • osteomyelitis

Explanation

Question 44 of 141

1

Pannus, which is associated with _____, grows over the articular surface and causes destruction

Select one of the following:

  • osteoarthritis

  • RA

  • osteomyelitis

Explanation

Question 45 of 141

1

Pain worsens w/ rest

Select one of the following:

  • osteoarthritis

  • RA

  • osteomyelitis

Explanation

Question 46 of 141

1

Morning pain/stiffness lasts 1+ hours after getting out of bed

Select one of the following:

  • osteoarthritis

  • RA

  • osteomyelitis

Explanation

Question 47 of 141

1

Clinical manifestations of _____ include: fever, fatigue, weakness, anorexia, weight loss, joint pain/stiffness/tenderness, joints warm to touch, deformity (swan hands). and decreased ROM. Symptoms occur symmetrically

Select one of the following:

  • osteoarthritis

  • RA

  • osteomyelitis

Explanation

Question 48 of 141

1

Starts in fingers and wrists w/ later involvement in weight bearing joints (ankles & feet).

Select one of the following:

  • osteoarthritis

  • RA

  • osteomyelitis

Explanation

Question 49 of 141

1

Complications of _____ include: systemic effects including skin, cardiac valves, pericardium, pleura, lung parenchyma, and spleen; formation of nodules w/ central tissue necrosis and proliferation of connective tissue

Select one of the following:

  • osteoarthritis

  • RA

  • osteomyelitis

Explanation

Question 50 of 141

1

Blood tests are used to diagnose _____

Select one of the following:

  • osteoarthritis

  • RA

  • osteomyelitis

Explanation

Question 51 of 141

1

Osteomyelitis is most commonly caused by a _____ infection.

Select one of the following:

  • candidal

  • staph

  • strep

Explanation

Question 52 of 141

1

_____ osteomyelitis may originate from an open wound, open fracture, penetrating wound, or surgical procedure

Select one of the following:

  • exogenous

  • endogenous

Explanation

Question 53 of 141

1

_____ osteomyelitis may originate from pathogens carried in the blood from sites of infection elsewhere in the body

Select one of the following:

  • exogenous

  • endogenous

Explanation

Question 54 of 141

1

Clinical manifestations of _____ include: acute or chronic inflammation, fever, pain, and necrotic bone.

Select one of the following:

  • osteoarthritis

  • RA

  • osteomyelitis

Explanation

Question 55 of 141

1

As you age, the amount of cartilage in your body starts to build up

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 56 of 141

1

Fibrous connective tissue that attaches skeletal muscle to bone

Select one of the following:

  • tendon

  • ligament

Explanation

Question 57 of 141

1

band of fibrous connective tissue that connects bones where they meet in a joint

Select one of the following:

  • tendon

  • ligament

Explanation

Question 58 of 141

1

tearing or stretching of a muscle or tendon is commonly known as a:

Select one of the following:

  • sprain

  • strain

Explanation

Question 59 of 141

1

Ligament tears are commonly known as:

Select one of the following:

  • sprains

  • strains

Explanation

Question 60 of 141

1

What makes up the CNS

Select one or more of the following:

  • brain

  • spinal cord

  • cranial nerves

  • spinal nerves

Explanation

Question 61 of 141

1

What makes up the PNS

Select one or more of the following:

  • brain

  • spinal cord

  • cranial nerves

  • spinal nerves

Explanation

Question 62 of 141

1

The sympathetic and parasympathetic systems are components of the _____ nervous system

Select one of the following:

  • autonomic

  • somatic

Explanation

Question 63 of 141

1

What are the types of pain?

Select one or more of the following:

  • visceral

  • somatic

  • referred

Explanation

Question 64 of 141

1

In promoting health maintenance for prevention of strokes, the nurse understands that the highest risk for the most common type of CVA is seen in

Select one of the following:

  • African Americans with hypertension and diabetes.

  • Women who smoke

  • People w/ DM

  • Those who are obese with high dietary fat-intake.

Explanation

Question 65 of 141

1

the name given to a collection of language disorders caused by damage to the brain. loss of ability to understand or express speech, caused by brain damage

Select one of the following:

  • aphasia

  • apraxia

  • agnosia

Explanation

Question 66 of 141

1

the name given to a collection of language disorders caused by damage to the brain. loss of ability to understand or express speech, caused by brain damage. With speech, the messages from the brain to the mouth are disrupted, and the person cannot move his or her lips or tongue

Select one of the following:

  • aphasia

  • apraxia

  • agnosia

Explanation

Question 67 of 141

1

is the inability to process sensory information. Often there is a loss of ability to recognize objects, persons, sounds, shapes, or smells while the specific

Select one of the following:

  • agnosia

  • apraxia

  • aphasia

Explanation

Question 68 of 141

1

means 'weakness'

Select one of the following:

  • -plegia

  • -paresis

Explanation

Question 69 of 141

1

means paralysis or no movement at all

Select one of the following:

  • -plegia

  • -paresis

Explanation

Question 70 of 141

1

Which is not a neuromodulator of pain?

Select one of the following:

  • prostaglandins

  • 5-hydroxytryptamine

  • norepinephrine

  • lymphokines

  • heparin

Explanation

Question 71 of 141

1

An individual shows flexion in upper extremities and extension in lower extremities. This is:

Select one of the following:

  • decorticate posturing

  • decerebrate posturing.

  • excitation posturing

  • caloric posturing

Explanation

Question 72 of 141

1

Alzheimer disease:

Select one of the following:

  • can be caused by increased cerebral levels of acetylcholine

  • is most prevalent as a late-onset dementia

  • manifests as nerve cell tangles

  • manifests as neuron senile plaques.

  • all of these

Explanation

Question 73 of 141

1

Dystonia is:

Select one of the following:

  • abnormal posture maintained by muscular contractions

  • flexed posture

  • stooped, hyperflexed posture.

  • a spastic gait

Explanation

Question 74 of 141

1

Confusion:

Select one or more of the following:

  • orientation to person, time, and place

  • slow vocalization, decreased oculomotor activity

  • inability to think clearly

  • vocalization in response to pain stimuli

  • no arousal

Explanation

Question 75 of 141

1

Coma:

Select one or more of the following:

  • orientation to person, time, and place

  • slow vocalization, decreased oculomotor activity

  • inability to think clearly

  • vocalization in response to pain stimuli

  • no arousal

Explanation

Question 76 of 141

1

TIAs are:

Select one of the following:

  • unilateral neurologic deficits that slowly resolve.

  • generalized neurologic deficits that occur a few seconds every hour

  • focal neurologic deficits that develop suddenly, last more than an hour, and clear without evidence of infarction

  • neurologic deficits that slowly evolve or develop.

Explanation

Question 77 of 141

1

Which is a risk factor for the development of CVAs?

Select one of the following:

  • polycythemia vera

  • HTN

  • DM

  • hyperhomocysteinemi

  • all of these

Explanation

Question 78 of 141

1

Which most typically characterizes the victims of a cerebral embolic stroke

Select one of the following:

  • individuals older than 65 years with a history of hypertension

  • individuals with a long history of TIA

  • middle-aged individuals with a history of heart disease

  • individuals with gradually occurring symptoms that then rapidly disappear

Explanation

Question 79 of 141

1

Ruptured aneurysms are most likely in which of the following cerebrovascular accidents.

Select one of the following:

  • TIA

  • thrombotic

  • embolic

  • hemorrhagic

Explanation

Question 80 of 141

1

Pain is a compensatory mechanism to stabalize the environment and maintain homeostasis

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 81 of 141

1

Not all pain involves tissue injury, release of chemical (inflammatory), mediators, and sensitization of spinal cord neurons

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 82 of 141

1

The _____ Theory asserts that non-painful input 'closes' the gates to painful input, which prevents pain sensation from traveling to the CNS.

Select one of the following:

  • Gate Control

  • Specificity of Pain

  • Intensity of Pain

  • Pattern of Pain

Explanation

Question 83 of 141

1

These fibers are associated w/ 'fast' pain

Select one of the following:

  • A-delta

  • C

Explanation

Question 84 of 141

1

These fibers are associated w/ 'slow' pain

Select one of the following:

  • A-delta

  • C

Explanation

Question 85 of 141

1

Nociceptors are free nerve ending in the _____ PNS

Select one of the following:

  • afferent

  • efferent

Explanation

Question 86 of 141

1

_____ are widespread in the superficial layers of the skin, periosteum, arterial walls, and joint surfaces

Select one of the following:

  • nociceptors

  • neurons

  • neuromodulators

  • axons

Explanation

Question 87 of 141

1

_____ are myelinated

Select one of the following:

  • A-delta

  • C

Explanation

Question 88 of 141

1

_____ fibers are associated with mechanical or thermal stimulation (needle stick, knife cut, acute burn) and are transmitted in less than 0.1 seconds

Select one of the following:

  • A-delta

  • C

Explanation

Question 89 of 141

1

associated with acute pain

Select one of the following:

  • A-delta

  • C

Explanation

Question 90 of 141

1

_____ fibers are stimulated by chemicals, mechanically, or thermally. Some examples include aches, throbbing, and nauseous pain

Select one of the following:

  • A-delta

  • C

Explanation

Question 91 of 141

1

_____ fibers transmit signals at a rate of over 1 second

Select one of the following:

  • A-delta

  • C

Explanation

Question 92 of 141

1

Associated w/ chronic pain

Select one of the following:

  • A-delta

  • C

Explanation

Question 93 of 141

1

Neuromodulators are messengers released from a neuron in the _____, or in the periphery that affects groups of neurons or effector cells that have the appropriate receptors.

Select one of the following:

  • CNS

  • PNS

Explanation

Question 94 of 141

1

_____ trigger responsiveness

Select one of the following:

  • nociceptors

  • neurons

  • neuromodulators

  • axons

Explanation

Question 95 of 141

1

Choose the following tissue injury neuromodulators

Select one or more of the following:

  • prostaglandins

  • bradykinin

  • lymphokines

  • substance P

  • histamine

  • glutamate

  • somatostatin

Explanation

Question 96 of 141

1

Choose the following excitatory neuromodulators

Select one or more of the following:

  • prostaglandins

  • bradykinin

  • lymphokines

  • substance P

  • histamine

  • glutamate

  • somatostatin

Explanation

Question 97 of 141

1

_____ pain is a protective mechanism against immediate harm. It is the response of excessive adrenergic (sympathetic) activity

Select one of the following:

  • acute

  • chronic

Explanation

Question 98 of 141

1

Somatic, visceral, referred, and neuropathic pain are types of _____ pain

Select one of the following:

  • acute

  • chronic

Explanation

Question 99 of 141

1

pain in the body framework (skin, bones, muscle)

Select one of the following:

  • somatic

  • visceral

  • referred

  • neuropathic

Explanation

Question 100 of 141

1

pain in the organs of the body (chest pain, abdominal pain)

Select one of the following:

  • somatic

  • visceral

  • referred

  • neuropathic

Explanation

Question 101 of 141

1

pain felt in remote areas away from the original point of pain generation

Select one of the following:

  • somatic

  • visceral

  • referred

  • neuropathic

Explanation

Question 102 of 141

1

The disruption of nerves or hypersensitization of nerves.

Select one of the following:

  • somatic

  • visceral

  • referred

  • neuropathic

Explanation

Question 103 of 141

1

_____ pain occurs in ppl w/ DM

Select one of the following:

  • somatic

  • visceral

  • referred

  • neuropathic

Explanation

Question 104 of 141

1

_____ pain may be treated (off-label) w/ tricyclic antidepressants, anticonvulsants, or antiarrhythmics

Select one of the following:

  • somatic

  • visceral

  • referred

  • neuropathic

Explanation

Question 105 of 141

1

_____ pain lasts as little as a few seconds to as much as 3 months. There is a temporary or minor disruption in normal ADL's and lifestyle

Select one of the following:

  • acute

  • chronic

Explanation

Question 106 of 141

1

_____ pain persists more than 3 months. It imposes severe emotional, physical, economic, and social stresses on pts and their family

Select one of the following:

  • acute

  • chronic

Explanation

Question 107 of 141

1

Acute pain is a very costly health care problem. Is is usually caused from a complex underlying DO

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 108 of 141

1

_____ pain affect employment, finances, family structure, social relationships

Select one of the following:

  • acute

  • chronic

Explanation

Question 109 of 141

1

Personality changes are apparent with chronic pain

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 110 of 141

1

Negative health consequences of _____ pain include increased stress, decreased GI motility and appetite, increased blood clotting, delayed healing, decreased immune system, interference with sleep, and hormonal imbalances

Select one of the following:

  • acute

  • chronic

Explanation

Question 111 of 141

1

In the PQRST approach to pain assessment, which letter/factor involves what increases or decreases the pain level

Select one of the following:

  • P-provocative/palliative

  • Q-quality

  • R-region

  • S-severity

  • T-temporal characteristics

Explanation

Question 112 of 141

1

In the PQRST approach to pain assessment, which letter/factor involves a description of what the pain feels like (sharp, dull, hot, stinging, ect)

Select one of the following:

  • P-provocative/palliative

  • Q-quality

  • R-region

  • S-severity

  • T-Temporal characteristics

Explanation

Question 113 of 141

1

In the PQRST approach to pain assessment, which letter/factor involves where the pain is (localized, referred)

Select one of the following:

  • P-provocative/palliative

  • Q-quality

  • R-region

  • S-severity

  • T-temporal charachteristics

Explanation

Question 114 of 141

1

In the PQRST approach to pain assessment, which letter/factor involves rating the pain on a scale of 1-10

Select one of the following:

  • P-provocative/palliative

  • Q-quality

  • R-region

  • S-severity

  • T-temporal characteristics

Explanation

Question 115 of 141

1

In the PQRST approach to pain assessment, which letter/factor involves how long the pain has been present (acute, chronic)

Select one of the following:

  • P-provocative/palliative

  • Q-quality

  • R-region

  • S-severity

  • T-temporal characteristics

Explanation

Question 116 of 141

1

The _____ nervous system has motor and sensory pathways regulating voluntary motor control of skeletal muscle

Select one of the following:

  • somatic

  • autonomic

Explanation

Question 117 of 141

1

The somatic nervous system regulates _____ motor control

Select one of the following:

  • voluntary

  • involuntary

Explanation

Question 118 of 141

1

The _____ nervous system has motor and sensory pathways regulating the body's internal environment thru involuntary control of organ systems

Select one of the following:

  • somatic

  • autonomic

Explanation

Question 119 of 141

1

The _____ nervous system controls the body's fight or flight response

Select one of the following:

  • sympathetic

  • parasympathetic

Explanation

Question 120 of 141

1

The _____ nervous system conserves the body's energy

Select one of the following:

  • sympathetic

  • parasympathetic

Explanation

Question 121 of 141

1

The _____ pathway is ascending and messages go from the body to the brain

Select one of the following:

  • afferent

  • efferent

Explanation

Question 122 of 141

1

The _____ pathway is descending and messages travel from the brain to the body

Select one of the following:

  • afferent

  • efferent

Explanation

Question 123 of 141

1

_____ neurons transmit impulses from sensory receptors to the CNS

Select one of the following:

  • sensory

  • motor

  • associational/inter

Explanation

Question 124 of 141

1

_____ neurons transmit impulses from the CNS to an effector organ

Select one of the following:

  • sensory

  • motor

  • associational/inter

Explanation

Question 125 of 141

1

_____ neurons transmit impulses from neuron to neuron

Select one of the following:

  • sensory

  • motor

  • associational/inter

Explanation

Question 126 of 141

1

A pts pain _____ is the lowest intensity of pain that a person can recognize

Select one of the following:

  • threshold

  • tolerance

Explanation

Question 127 of 141

1

A pt's pain _____ is the greatest intensity of pain that a person can endure

Select one of the following:

  • threshold

  • tolerance

Explanation

Question 128 of 141

1

_____ is a respiratory rate of less than 12 breathes a minute and is associated w/ neurological conditions, electrolyte disturbances, narcotic or barbituate OD, or is seen postanesthesia

Select one of the following:

  • bradypnea

  • tachypnea

  • Biot's respirations

  • Cheyne-Stokes respirations

  • Kussumal respirations

Explanation

Question 129 of 141

1

_____ results in a persistent respiratory rate of more than 20 breathes per minute and is associated with trauma, injury, stress, pain; respiratory, cardiac, or liver disease

Select one of the following:

  • bradypnea

  • tachypnea

  • Biot's respirations

  • Cheyne-Stokes respirations

  • Kussmaul respirations

Explanation

Question 130 of 141

1

_____ is a cyclic breathing pattern characterized by shallow breathing alternating w/ periods of apnea. They are associated with neurologic problems, head trauma, brain abscess, and heatstroke

Select one of the following:

  • bradypnea

  • tachypnea

  • Biot's respirations

  • Cheyne-Stokes respirations

  • Kussmaul respirations

Explanation

Question 131 of 141

1

_____ is a cyclic breathing pattern characterized by periods of respirations of increased rate and depth alternating w/ periods of apnea. They are associated w/ CHF, drug OD, increased intracranial pressure, and impending death

Select one of the following:

  • bradypnea

  • tachypnea

  • Biot's respirations

  • Cheyne-Stokes respirations

  • Kussmaul respirations

Explanation

Question 132 of 141

1

_____ are respirations of increased rate and depth and are associated w/ metabolic acidosis, DKA, and renal failure

Select one of the following:

  • bradypnea

  • tachypnea

  • Biot's respirations

  • Cheyne-Stokes respirations

  • Kummmaul respirations

Explanation

Question 133 of 141

1

Which of the following shows the stages of altered consciousness

Select one of the following:

  • confusion, disorientation, lethargy, obtundation, stupor, coma

  • disorientation, confusion, obtundation, lethargy, coma, stupor

  • confusion, disorientation, stupor, lethargy, obtundation, coma

  • obtundation, disorientation, confusion, lethargy, stupor, coma

Explanation

Question 134 of 141

1

loss of ability to think, impaired judgement and decision making

Select one of the following:

  • confusion

  • disorientation

  • lethargy

  • obtundation

  • stupor

  • coma

Explanation

Question 135 of 141

1

beginning loss of consciousness, unable to tell name, place, or time

Select one of the following:

  • confusion

  • disorientation

  • lethargy

  • obtundation

  • stupor

  • coma

Explanation

Question 136 of 141

1

limited spontaneous movement or speech; easy arousal w/ normal speech or touch; may or may not be oriented to time, place, and person

Select one of the following:

  • confusion

  • disorientation

  • lethargic

  • obtundation

  • stupor

  • coma

Explanation

Question 137 of 141

1

mild to moderate reduction in arousal w/ limited response to environment; fall asleep unless stimulated verbally or tactilely; answer questions w/ minimal responses

Select one of the following:

  • confusion

  • disorientation

  • lethargy

  • obtundation

  • stupor

  • coma

Explanation

Question 138 of 141

1

condition of deep sleep or unresponsiveness; opens eyes only w/ vigorous and repeated stimulation

Select one of the following:

  • confusion

  • disorientation

  • lethargy

  • obtundation

  • stupor

  • coma

Explanation

Question 139 of 141

1

no verbal response to external environment or to any stimuli

Select one of the following:

  • confusion

  • disorientation

  • lethargy

  • obtundation

  • stupor

  • coma

Explanation

Question 140 of 141

1

_____ posturing include flexing and the arms are like 'C's' and move in toward the spinal cord

Select one of the following:

  • decorticate

  • decerebrate

Explanation

Question 141 of 141

1

_____ posturing involves extension and the arms are like 'e's'

Select one of the following:

  • decorticate

  • decerebrate

Explanation