Rachael Eleanor Alexandra
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Week 1 DFT prep quiz

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Rachael Eleanor Alexandra
Created by Rachael Eleanor Alexandra over 7 years ago
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Week 1 DFT Prep - IRR, IRMER, Social Media, Prescribing, Teamworking, Clinical Records, GDC standard 8

Question 1 of 62

1

What is the annual radiation dose limit for a "classified employee"?

Select one of the following:

  • 20mSv/year

  • 6mSv/year

  • 15mSv/year

  • 50mSv/year

Explanation

Question 2 of 62

1

What is the annual radiation dose limit for a member of the public?

Select one of the following:

  • 2mSv/year

  • 5mSv/year

  • 20mSv/year

  • 1mSv/year

Explanation

Question 3 of 62

5

Fill the blank spaces to complete the text.

All steps must be taken to restrict exposure to ionising radiation to ALARP.
ALARP stands for:
A
L
A
R
P

Explanation

Question 4 of 62

3

Fill the blank spaces to complete the text.

An RPA stands for:
R
P
A

Explanation

Question 5 of 62

1

For a salaried dentist, their "employer" is...

Select one of the following:

  • Practice manager

  • Chief executive of NHS board

  • Themselves

Explanation

Question 6 of 62

1

For a self employed NHS dentist, their "employer" is...?

Select one of the following:

  • Practice manager

  • Chief Executive of NHS Board

  • Themselves

Explanation

Question 7 of 62

1

For a self employed private dentist, their "employer" is...?

Select one of the following:

  • Practice manager

  • Chief executive of NHS board

  • Themselves

Explanation

Question 8 of 62

1

Fill the blank space to complete the text.

The person who carries out or engages others to carry out medical exposures is defined as the e

Explanation

Question 9 of 62

1

Fill the blank space to complete the text.

A r is defined as a registered healthcare professional who is entitled with the employer's procedures to refer individuals to a practitioner for dental exposure

Explanation

Question 10 of 62

1

Fill the blank space to complete the text.

A p is a registered healthcare professional who is entitled in accordance with the employer's procedures to take responsibility for an individual exposure

Explanation

Question 11 of 62

1

Fill the blank space to complete the text.

An o is a person who is entitled in accordance with the employer's procedures to carry out practical aspects of dental exposures

Explanation

Question 12 of 62

1

If you post cases on social media, you must ensure that...

Select one or more of the following:

  • Cases are anonymised

  • It is for the purpose of discussing best practice

  • Patients cannot be identified

  • All of the above

Explanation

Question 13 of 62

1

True or false: The GDC states you must NOT post any information or comments about patients on social networking or blogging sites.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 14 of 62

1

True or false: You must NEVER add a patient on social media sites

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 15 of 62

1

Online behaviour by a colleague that might be putting a patient at risk (conduct, decision making, behaviour) must be raised as a concern by you in accordance with which GDC standard?

Select one of the following:

  • 8

  • 7

  • 6

Explanation

Question 16 of 62

8

Fill the blank spaces to complete the text.

You must maintain the public's confidence in you and the dental p (GDC standard ). This means you must avoid posting/sharing the following to social media;

D images
Underwear/n
Comments or statuses about
Photographs of substances
R images or statuses
Anything that may damage your i as a dental professional or that of your practice

Explanation

Question 17 of 62

3

Fill the blank spaces to complete the text.

To avoid breaches in confidentiality there are three overall procedures to follow (Confidentiality NHS Code of Practice/NHS Care Record Guarantee for England):

Duty of c
E consent
L requirement

Explanation

Question 18 of 62

1

To maintain levels of patient confidentiality, a committee reported on the NHS and set out six principles. These are known as the "..." principles?

Select one of the following:

  • Caldecote

  • Caldecott

  • Caldicott

Explanation

Question 19 of 62

7

Fill the blank spaces to complete the text.

The six Caldicott principles (instigated to maintain levels of confidentiality within the NHS) are:

1. Do you have a j purpose for using this confidential information?
2. Are you using it because it is absolutely n to do so?
3. Are you using the m information required?
4. Are you allowing a to this information on a strict need-to-know basis only?
5. Do you understand your r and duty to the subject with regards to keeping their information s and confidential?
6. Do you understand the l and are you complying with the law before handling the confidential information?

Explanation

Question 20 of 62

1

The person employed by each NHS trust to oversee policies, compliance, and safeguarding of patient identifiable information is known as the...?

Select one of the following:

  • Caldicott guardian

  • Biggleswade guardian

  • Sandy guardian

  • Northill guardian

Explanation

Question 21 of 62

8

Fill the blank spaces to complete the text.

The data protection act sets out 8 key principles
1. Processed fairly and l
2. Processed for the s purpose for which it was obtained
3. Adequate, relevant, and not e for the purpose for which it was obtained
4. Accurate and kept up to d
5. Not kept for l than necessary for the purpose for which it was obtained
6. Processed in accordance with the r of data subjects
7. Appropriate measures taken against accidental l, destruction, or damage
8. Not transferred outside the E Economic area, unless adequately protected

Explanation

Question 22 of 62

1

The stipulation that you must not keep patient data for longer than necessary is in accordance with which principles?

Select one of the following:

  • Data protection act 1998

  • Caldicott Principles 1997

  • Freedom of information act 2000

Explanation

Question 23 of 62

1

True or false: The FOI act gives the public right to request ANY recorded information held by any type of public authority

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 24 of 62

1

True or false: The FOI act states that a person's confidential information may be requested

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 25 of 62

1

Select all the drugs that warfarin might interact with

Select one or more of the following:

  • NSAIDs

  • Carbamazipine

  • Azoles

  • Metronidazole

  • Macrolides

  • Clarithromycin

  • Fluoride varnish

  • Difflam spray

Explanation

Question 26 of 62

1

True or false: prescribing azoles and clarithromycin to a patient taking statins may result in myopathy

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 27 of 62

1

When prescribing NSAIDs, you must ensure you do not prescribe them to people who are;

Select one of the following:

  • Epileptic

  • Asthmatic

Explanation

Question 28 of 62

1

Patient who have additional/complex needs when prescribing must be considered carefully. These include:

Select one or more of the following:

  • Nursing mothers

  • Pregnant mothers

  • Those on oral contraceptives

  • The elderly

  • Immunocompromised patients

  • Liver impairment

  • Pizza

Explanation

Question 29 of 62

5

Fill the blank spaces to complete the text.

"Off label" prescribing means that some licensed drugs are recommended for use outside of their l. Their use in management of dental conditions has been endorsed by the B.

Some drugs are licensed for use in adults but not in as most drugs are not tested in .

Responsibility for prescribing drugs "off-label" lies with the practitioner who signs the p.

Explanation

Question 30 of 62

1

What must be stated on the prescription as a LEGAL requirement of prescription writing for children under 12 years?

Select one of the following:

  • Their name

  • Their address

  • Their age and DOB

  • The practice address

Explanation

Question 31 of 62

1

True or false; prescriptions must be written in ink

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 32 of 62

1

True or false; if you are a consultant it is a LEGAL requirement to write your prescriptions illegibly

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 33 of 62

1

True or false: micrograms may be abbreviated to mcg on a prescription

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 34 of 62

1

Patients should be warned about potential side effects of any prescribed drug. These are commonly;

Select one of the following:

  • Dizziness

  • nausea/diarrhoea

  • loss of consciousness

  • weight loss

Explanation

Question 35 of 62

1

Adrenaline stored for medical emergencies should be:

Select one of the following:

  • 1:1000 solution

  • 1:5000 solution

  • 1:100 solution

Explanation

Question 36 of 62

1

What dose of glucagon should be given in a medical emergency in the first instance?

Select one of the following:

  • 1mg

  • 2mg

  • 10mg

  • 5mg

Explanation

Question 37 of 62

1

Aspirin stored for medical emergencies should be;

Select one of the following:

  • 100ml injection

  • 5ml spray

  • 500mg dispersible tablets

  • 300mg dispersible tablets

Explanation

Question 38 of 62

1

A single dose of metered GTN spray delivers...

Select one of the following:

  • 400 micrograms

  • 300 micrograms

  • 100 micrograms

  • 500 micrograms

Explanation

Question 39 of 62

1

Midazolam solution should be given in an emergency as...

Select one of the following:

  • IM injection

  • Buccal infiltration

  • Buccal topical administration

  • Intranasal administration

Explanation

Question 40 of 62

1

One actuation of a salbutamol inhaler delivers...

Select one of the following:

  • 100 micrograms

  • 100 milligrams

  • 100 nanograms

  • 100 grams

Explanation

Question 41 of 62

1

True or false: allergies should always be treated by administration of IM adrenaline. Oral antihistamines are ineffective.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 42 of 62

1

The recommended regimen to aid anxiety is:

Select one of the following:

  • Diazepam 5mg two hours before procedure

  • Midazolam 100 micrograms an hour before the procedure

  • 70ml vodka 10 mins before procedure

Explanation

Question 43 of 62

1

True or false: diazepam is safe for use in children

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 44 of 62

1

True or false: there is no evidence to suggest prescription of antibiotics for prevention of dry socket in non surgical extractions.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 45 of 62

1

When a patient presents with trismus, FoM swelling, or difficulty breathing, patients should be treated as such:

Select one of the following:

  • Immediate transfer to hospital

  • Local measures to relieve infection

  • Antibiotic prescription - oral

  • Antibiotic prescription - IV

Explanation

Question 46 of 62

1

Antibtioic prescribing should be kept to a minimum because... (tick all that apply)

Select one or more of the following:

  • Rise in C. Dificile in vulnerable groups

  • Antibiotic resistance globally

  • Antibiotic cost to NHS

Explanation

Question 47 of 62

1

True or false: take care when prescribing antibiotics that do not induce liver enzymes to those on oral contraceptives or the contraceptive ring

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 48 of 62

1

True or false: Previous experience of vomiting with clarithromycin should preclude further prescription

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 49 of 62

1

You should consider antibiotic prescription for dental abscesses when: (select all that apply)

Select one or more of the following:

  • There is evidence of systemic involvement

  • There is evidence of spreading infection

  • There is evidence of cellulitis

  • Local measures have proved ineffective

  • The patient has requested them

  • The access to the canal space would be difficult

  • It's a Friday afternoon and you have an early tee-time tomorrow

Explanation

Question 50 of 62

1

Metronidazole can be prescribed when (select all that apply)

Select one or more of the following:

  • Adjunct to amoxicillin when patient presents with spreading infection

  • Patient allergic to penicillin

  • Patient on oral contraceptive

  • Management of reversible pulpitis

Explanation

Question 51 of 62

1

Select the first line antibiotics for dental abscesses

Select one or more of the following:

  • Amoxicillin

  • Metronidazole

  • Clindamycin

  • Clarithromycin

  • Co-amoxiclav

  • Phenoxymethylpenicillin

Explanation

Question 52 of 62

1

For NUG you should first prescribe... (select all that apply)

Select one or more of the following:

  • Metronidazole 3 day course

  • Amoxicillin 3 day course

  • Clindamycin 3 day course

  • Corsodyl 7 day course

Explanation

Question 53 of 62

1

Sinusitis is usually self limiting

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 54 of 62

1

Select all the interventions appropriate for sinusitis

Select one or more of the following:

  • Steam inhalation

  • Ephedrine nasal drops 0.5%

  • Amoxicillin 7 day course

  • Metronidazole 7 day course

  • Doxycycline 7 day course

Explanation

Question 55 of 62

7

Fill the blank spaces to complete the text.

To avoid f infections, those with a steroid inhaler should be advised to r their mouth with water or brush teeth immediately after using the inhaler.

Infection of p candidosis can be treated with a day course of f capsules or m oromucosal gel. If these are contraindicated you can try n oral suspension for 7 days.

Explanation

Question 56 of 62

4

Fill the blank spaces to complete the text.

The same regime for denture stomatitis can be used as for pseudomembranous candidosis, the patient can also be advised to their palate daily, clean dentures in c or sodium h for 15 minutes daily, and to leave dentures out as o as possible during treatment.

Explanation

Question 57 of 62

1

Angular cheilitis can be treated with the following (select all that apply)

Select one or more of the following:

  • Miconazole cream 2%

  • Sodium fusidate ointment 2%

  • Miconazole 2% with hydrocortisone cream 1%

  • Nystatin

  • Difflam spray

Explanation

Question 58 of 62

1

Herpes simplex infections can be treated with (select all that apply)

Select one or more of the following:

  • Avoiding dehydration

  • Analgesia

  • Antimicrobial mouthwash

  • Hydrogen peroxide mouthwash

  • Sodium hypochlorite

  • Aciclovir cream

  • Acyclovir tablets 200mg (severe/immunocompromised)

  • Acyclovir tablets 800mg (severe/immunocompromised)

Explanation

Question 59 of 62

1

A patient with a history of peptic ulcers who's odontogenic pain is not quelled with paracetamol can be prescribed...

Select one of the following:

  • Diclofenac

  • Ibuprofen

  • Lansoprazole

Explanation

Question 60 of 62

1

Trigeminal neuralgia in primary care can be controlled quickly by...

Select one of the following:

  • Lansoprazole

  • Omeprazole

  • Aspirin

  • Carbamazepine

Explanation

Question 61 of 62

5

Fill the blank spaces to complete the text.

TMJ dysfunction can be treated in the following ways:
1. Reassurance, avoid gum, have a s diet, and possibly an o splint
2. Analgesia (acute) e.g. i
3. Short course of muscle relaxant e.g. d

Explanation

Question 62 of 62

8

Fill the blank spaces to complete the text.

Mucosal ulceration and inflammation can be treated with:
1. Rinsing with HSMWs
2. Simple moutwashes e.g. s chloride
3. Antimicrobial mouthwashes e.g. c
4. H p mouthwash
5. T mouthwash (RAS) - doxycycline dispersible tablets
6. Local analgesics e.g. b mouthwash or oral spray, le ointment or spray
7. Topical c e.g. betamethasone soluble tablets

Explanation

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