Week 1 DFT Prep - IRR, IRMER, Social Media, Prescribing, Teamworking, Clinical Records, GDC standard 8

Description

Week 1 DFT prep quiz
Rachael Eleanor Alexandra
Quiz by Rachael Eleanor Alexandra, updated more than 1 year ago
Rachael Eleanor Alexandra
Created by Rachael Eleanor Alexandra over 7 years ago
7
0

Resource summary

Question 1

Question
What is the annual radiation dose limit for a "classified employee"?
Answer
  • 20mSv/year
  • 6mSv/year
  • 15mSv/year
  • 50mSv/year

Question 2

Question
What is the annual radiation dose limit for a member of the public?
Answer
  • 2mSv/year
  • 5mSv/year
  • 20mSv/year
  • 1mSv/year

Question 3

Question
All steps must be taken to restrict exposure to ionising radiation to ALARP. ALARP stands for: A[blank_start]s[blank_end] L[blank_start]ow[blank_end] A[blank_start]s[blank_end] R[blank_start]easonably[blank_end] P[blank_start]racticable[blank_end]
Answer
  • s
  • ow
  • s
  • easonably
  • racticable

Question 4

Question
An RPA stands for: R[blank_start]adiation[blank_end] P[blank_start]rotection[blank_end] A[blank_start]dviser[blank_end]
Answer
  • adiation
  • rotection
  • dviser

Question 5

Question
For a salaried dentist, their "employer" is...
Answer
  • Practice manager
  • Chief executive of NHS board
  • Themselves

Question 6

Question
For a self employed NHS dentist, their "employer" is...?
Answer
  • Practice manager
  • Chief Executive of NHS Board
  • Themselves

Question 7

Question
For a self employed private dentist, their "employer" is...?
Answer
  • Practice manager
  • Chief executive of NHS board
  • Themselves

Question 8

Question
The person who carries out or engages others to carry out medical exposures is defined as the e[blank_start]mployer[blank_end]
Answer
  • mployer

Question 9

Question
A r[blank_start]eferrer[blank_end] is defined as a registered healthcare professional who is entitled with the employer's procedures to refer individuals to a practitioner for dental exposure
Answer
  • eferrer

Question 10

Question
A p[blank_start]ractitioner[blank_end] is a registered healthcare professional who is entitled in accordance with the employer's procedures to take responsibility for an individual exposure
Answer
  • ractitioner

Question 11

Question
An o[blank_start]perator[blank_end] is a person who is entitled in accordance with the employer's procedures to carry out practical aspects of dental exposures
Answer
  • perator

Question 12

Question
If you post cases on social media, you must ensure that...
Answer
  • Cases are anonymised
  • It is for the purpose of discussing best practice
  • Patients cannot be identified
  • All of the above

Question 13

Question
True or false: The GDC states you must NOT post any information or comments about patients on social networking or blogging sites.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 14

Question
True or false: You must NEVER add a patient on social media sites
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 15

Question
Online behaviour by a colleague that might be putting a patient at risk (conduct, decision making, behaviour) must be raised as a concern by you in accordance with which GDC standard?
Answer
  • 8
  • 7
  • 6

Question 16

Question
You must maintain the public's confidence in you and the dental p[blank_start]rofession[blank_end] (GDC standard [blank_start]9[blank_end]). This means you must avoid posting/sharing the following to social media; D[blank_start]runken[blank_end] images Underwear/n[blank_start]udity[blank_end] Comments or statuses about [blank_start]patients[blank_end] Photographs of [blank_start]illegal[blank_end] substances R[blank_start]acist[blank_end] images or statuses Anything that may damage your i[blank_start]mage[blank_end] as a dental professional or that of your practice
Answer
  • 9
  • rofession
  • runken
  • udity
  • patients
  • illegal
  • acist
  • mage

Question 17

Question
To avoid breaches in confidentiality there are three overall procedures to follow (Confidentiality NHS Code of Practice/NHS Care Record Guarantee for England): Duty of c[blank_start]onfidence[blank_end] E[blank_start]xplicit[blank_end] consent L[blank_start]egal[blank_end] requirement
Answer
  • onfidence
  • xplicit
  • egal

Question 18

Question
To maintain levels of patient confidentiality, a committee reported on the NHS and set out six principles. These are known as the "..." principles?
Answer
  • Caldecote
  • Caldecott
  • Caldicott

Question 19

Question
The six Caldicott principles (instigated to maintain levels of confidentiality within the NHS) are: 1. Do you have a j[blank_start]ustified[blank_end] purpose for using this confidential information? 2. Are you using it because it is absolutely n[blank_start]ecessary[blank_end] to do so? 3. Are you using the m[blank_start]inimum[blank_end] information required? 4. Are you allowing a[blank_start]ccess[blank_end] to this information on a strict need-to-know basis only? 5. Do you understand your r[blank_start]esponsibility[blank_end] and duty to the subject with regards to keeping their information s[blank_start]ecure[blank_end] and confidential? 6. Do you understand the l[blank_start]aw[blank_end] and are you complying with the law before handling the confidential information?
Answer
  • ustified
  • ecessary
  • inimum
  • ccess
  • esponsibility
  • ecure
  • aw

Question 20

Question
The person employed by each NHS trust to oversee policies, compliance, and safeguarding of patient identifiable information is known as the...?
Answer
  • Caldicott guardian
  • Biggleswade guardian
  • Sandy guardian
  • Northill guardian

Question 21

Question
The data protection act sets out 8 key principles 1. Processed fairly and l[blank_start]awfully[blank_end] 2. Processed for the s[blank_start]pecified[blank_end] purpose for which it was obtained 3. Adequate, relevant, and not e[blank_start]xcessive[blank_end] for the purpose for which it was obtained 4. Accurate and kept up to d[blank_start]ate[blank_end] 5. Not kept for l[blank_start]onger[blank_end] than necessary for the purpose for which it was obtained 6. Processed in accordance with the r[blank_start]ights[blank_end] of data subjects 7. Appropriate measures taken against accidental l[blank_start]oss[blank_end], destruction, or damage 8. Not transferred outside the E[blank_start]uropean[blank_end] Economic area, unless adequately protected
Answer
  • awfully
  • pecified
  • xcessive
  • ate
  • onger
  • ights
  • oss
  • uropean

Question 22

Question
The stipulation that you must not keep patient data for longer than necessary is in accordance with which principles?
Answer
  • Data protection act 1998
  • Caldicott Principles 1997
  • Freedom of information act 2000

Question 23

Question
True or false: The FOI act gives the public right to request ANY recorded information held by any type of public authority
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 24

Question
True or false: The FOI act states that a person's confidential information may be requested
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 25

Question
Select all the drugs that warfarin might interact with
Answer
  • NSAIDs
  • Carbamazipine
  • Azoles
  • Metronidazole
  • Macrolides
  • Clarithromycin
  • Fluoride varnish
  • Difflam spray

Question 26

Question
True or false: prescribing azoles and clarithromycin to a patient taking statins may result in myopathy
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 27

Question
When prescribing NSAIDs, you must ensure you do not prescribe them to people who are;
Answer
  • Epileptic
  • Asthmatic

Question 28

Question
Patient who have additional/complex needs when prescribing must be considered carefully. These include:
Answer
  • Nursing mothers
  • Pregnant mothers
  • Those on oral contraceptives
  • The elderly
  • Immunocompromised patients
  • Liver impairment
  • Pizza

Question 29

Question
"Off label" prescribing means that some licensed drugs are recommended for use outside of their l[blank_start]icense[blank_end]. Their use in management of dental conditions has been endorsed by the B[blank_start]NF[blank_end]. Some drugs are licensed for use in adults but not in [blank_start]children[blank_end] as most drugs are not tested in [blank_start]children[blank_end]. Responsibility for prescribing drugs "off-label" lies with the practitioner who signs the p[blank_start]rescription[blank_end].
Answer
  • icense
  • NF
  • children
  • children
  • rescription

Question 30

Question
What must be stated on the prescription as a LEGAL requirement of prescription writing for children under 12 years?
Answer
  • Their name
  • Their address
  • Their age and DOB
  • The practice address

Question 31

Question
True or false; prescriptions must be written in ink
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 32

Question
True or false; if you are a consultant it is a LEGAL requirement to write your prescriptions illegibly
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 33

Question
True or false: micrograms may be abbreviated to mcg on a prescription
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 34

Question
Patients should be warned about potential side effects of any prescribed drug. These are commonly;
Answer
  • Dizziness
  • nausea/diarrhoea
  • loss of consciousness
  • weight loss

Question 35

Question
Adrenaline stored for medical emergencies should be:
Answer
  • 1:1000 solution
  • 1:5000 solution
  • 1:100 solution

Question 36

Question
What dose of glucagon should be given in a medical emergency in the first instance?
Answer
  • 1mg
  • 2mg
  • 10mg
  • 5mg

Question 37

Question
Aspirin stored for medical emergencies should be;
Answer
  • 100ml injection
  • 5ml spray
  • 500mg dispersible tablets
  • 300mg dispersible tablets

Question 38

Question
A single dose of metered GTN spray delivers...
Answer
  • 400 micrograms
  • 300 micrograms
  • 100 micrograms
  • 500 micrograms

Question 39

Question
Midazolam solution should be given in an emergency as...
Answer
  • IM injection
  • Buccal infiltration
  • Buccal topical administration
  • Intranasal administration

Question 40

Question
One actuation of a salbutamol inhaler delivers...
Answer
  • 100 micrograms
  • 100 milligrams
  • 100 nanograms
  • 100 grams

Question 41

Question
True or false: allergies should always be treated by administration of IM adrenaline. Oral antihistamines are ineffective.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 42

Question
The recommended regimen to aid anxiety is:
Answer
  • Diazepam 5mg two hours before procedure
  • Midazolam 100 micrograms an hour before the procedure
  • 70ml vodka 10 mins before procedure

Question 43

Question
True or false: diazepam is safe for use in children
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 44

Question
True or false: there is no evidence to suggest prescription of antibiotics for prevention of dry socket in non surgical extractions.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 45

Question
When a patient presents with trismus, FoM swelling, or difficulty breathing, patients should be treated as such:
Answer
  • Immediate transfer to hospital
  • Local measures to relieve infection
  • Antibiotic prescription - oral
  • Antibiotic prescription - IV

Question 46

Question
Antibtioic prescribing should be kept to a minimum because... (tick all that apply)
Answer
  • Rise in C. Dificile in vulnerable groups
  • Antibiotic resistance globally
  • Antibiotic cost to NHS

Question 47

Question
True or false: take care when prescribing antibiotics that do not induce liver enzymes to those on oral contraceptives or the contraceptive ring
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 48

Question
True or false: Previous experience of vomiting with clarithromycin should preclude further prescription
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 49

Question
You should consider antibiotic prescription for dental abscesses when: (select all that apply)
Answer
  • There is evidence of systemic involvement
  • There is evidence of spreading infection
  • There is evidence of cellulitis
  • Local measures have proved ineffective
  • The patient has requested them
  • The access to the canal space would be difficult
  • It's a Friday afternoon and you have an early tee-time tomorrow

Question 50

Question
Metronidazole can be prescribed when (select all that apply)
Answer
  • Adjunct to amoxicillin when patient presents with spreading infection
  • Patient allergic to penicillin
  • Patient on oral contraceptive
  • Management of reversible pulpitis

Question 51

Question
Select the first line antibiotics for dental abscesses
Answer
  • Amoxicillin
  • Metronidazole
  • Clindamycin
  • Clarithromycin
  • Co-amoxiclav
  • Phenoxymethylpenicillin

Question 52

Question
For NUG you should first prescribe... (select all that apply)
Answer
  • Metronidazole 3 day course
  • Amoxicillin 3 day course
  • Clindamycin 3 day course
  • Corsodyl 7 day course

Question 53

Question
Sinusitis is usually self limiting
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 54

Question
Select all the interventions appropriate for sinusitis
Answer
  • Steam inhalation
  • Ephedrine nasal drops 0.5%
  • Amoxicillin 7 day course
  • Metronidazole 7 day course
  • Doxycycline 7 day course

Question 55

Question
To avoid f[blank_start]ungal[blank_end] infections, those with a steroid inhaler should be advised to r[blank_start]inse[blank_end] their mouth with water or brush teeth immediately after using the inhaler. Infection of p[blank_start]seudomembraneous[blank_end] candidosis can be treated with a [blank_start]7[blank_end] day course of f[blank_start]luconazole[blank_end] capsules or m[blank_start]iconazole[blank_end] oromucosal gel. If these are contraindicated you can try n[blank_start]ystatin[blank_end] oral suspension for 7 days.
Answer
  • ungal
  • inse
  • seudomembraneous
  • 7
  • luconazole
  • iconazole
  • ystatin

Question 56

Question
The same regime for denture stomatitis can be used as for pseudomembranous candidosis, the patient can also be advised to [blank_start]brush[blank_end] their palate daily, clean dentures in c[blank_start]hlorhexidine[blank_end] or sodium h[blank_start]ypochlorite[blank_end] for 15 minutes daily, and to leave dentures out as o[blank_start]ften[blank_end] as possible during treatment.
Answer
  • brush
  • hlorhexidine
  • ypochlorite
  • ften

Question 57

Question
Angular cheilitis can be treated with the following (select all that apply)
Answer
  • Miconazole cream 2%
  • Sodium fusidate ointment 2%
  • Miconazole 2% with hydrocortisone cream 1%
  • Nystatin
  • Difflam spray

Question 58

Question
Herpes simplex infections can be treated with (select all that apply)
Answer
  • Avoiding dehydration
  • Analgesia
  • Antimicrobial mouthwash
  • Hydrogen peroxide mouthwash
  • Sodium hypochlorite
  • Aciclovir cream
  • Acyclovir tablets 200mg (severe/immunocompromised)
  • Acyclovir tablets 800mg (severe/immunocompromised)

Question 59

Question
A patient with a history of peptic ulcers who's odontogenic pain is not quelled with paracetamol can be prescribed...
Answer
  • Diclofenac
  • Ibuprofen
  • Lansoprazole

Question 60

Question
Trigeminal neuralgia in primary care can be controlled quickly by...
Answer
  • Lansoprazole
  • Omeprazole
  • Aspirin
  • Carbamazepine

Question 61

Question
TMJ dysfunction can be treated in the following ways: 1. Reassurance, avoid [blank_start]chewing[blank_end] gum, have a s[blank_start]oft[blank_end] diet, and possibly an o[blank_start]cclusal[blank_end] splint 2. Analgesia (acute) e.g. i[blank_start]buprofen[blank_end] 3. Short course of muscle relaxant e.g. d[blank_start]iazepam[blank_end]
Answer
  • chewing
  • oft
  • cclusal
  • buprofen
  • iazepam

Question 62

Question
Mucosal ulceration and inflammation can be treated with: 1. Rinsing with HSMWs 2. Simple moutwashes e.g. s[blank_start]odium[blank_end] chloride 3. Antimicrobial mouthwashes e.g. c[blank_start]hlorhexidine[blank_end] 4. H[blank_start]ydrogen[blank_end] p[blank_start]eroxide[blank_end] mouthwash 5. T[blank_start]etracycline[blank_end] mouthwash (RAS) - doxycycline dispersible tablets 6. Local analgesics e.g. b[blank_start]enzydamine[blank_end] mouthwash or oral spray, l[blank_start]idocain[blank_end]e ointment or spray 7. Topical c[blank_start]orticosteroids[blank_end] e.g. betamethasone soluble tablets
Answer
  • odium
  • hlorhexidine
  • ydrogen
  • eroxide
  • etracycline
  • enzydamine
  • idocain
  • orticosteroids
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