Crystal Hoon
Quiz by , created more than 1 year ago

This quiz is based off of the ACE Health Coach Manual, Ch 12: Physical Fitness Assessments. © 2013

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Crystal Hoon
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ACE Health Coach Ch 12: Physical Fitness Assessments

Question 1 of 44

1

What does the IFT in ACE IFT Model stand for?

Select one of the following:

  • Individual Flexibility Traits

  • Integrated Fitness Training

  • Intelligent Financial Trend

Explanation

Question 2 of 44

1

A health risk appraisal should always be conducted at the first session.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 3 of 44

1

The stroke volume is the amount of blood pumped from which chamber of the heart?

Select one of the following:

  • The right atrium

  • The right ventricle

  • The left atrium

  • The left ventricle

Explanation

Question 4 of 44

1

Bradycardia during resting heart rate is less than;

Select one of the following:

  • 72 BPM

  • 60 BPM

  • 100 BPM

Explanation

Question 5 of 44

1

Tachycardia during resting heart rate is faster than;

Select one of the following:

  • 100 BPM

  • 72 BPM

  • 125 BPM

Explanation

Question 6 of 44

3

What are different factors that could attribute to the average female resting heart rate being about 10 beats per minute faster than in males?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Smaller heart chamber size

  • Lower blood volume circulating less oxygen throughout the body

  • Lower hemoglobin levels in women

  • Increased oxytocin

  • Heart rate test anxiety

Explanation

Question 7 of 44

1

An elevation of how many beats per minute over the clients normal RHR that remains over a period of days should be considered a possible sign of overtraining syndrome?

Select one of the following:

  • 5 BPM

  • 10 BPM

  • 15 BPM

Explanation

Question 8 of 44

1

Digestion increases RHR, as the process of absorption and digestion require energy, necessitating the delivery of nutrients and oxygen to the GI tract.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 9 of 44

1

The maximum heart rate range can be calculated by the following equation;

Select one of the following:

  • 208 - (0.7 x age)

  • 220 - age

  • RHR x (0.5 x age)

Explanation

Question 10 of 44

1

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The ( Systolic blood pressure, Diastolic blood pressure ) represents the pressure created by the heart as it pumps blood into circulation via ventricular contraction. This represents the greatest pressure during one cardiac cycle.

Explanation

Question 11 of 44

1

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The ( diastolic, systolic ) BP represents the pressure that is exerted on the artery walls as blood remains in the arteries during the filling phase of the cardiac cycle, or between beats when the heart relaxes. It is the minimum pressure that exists within one cycle.

Explanation

Question 12 of 44

1

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A blood pressure range in an adult equal to or less than 120/80 is considered ( normal, prehypertension, hypertension stage I, hypertension stage 2 ).

Explanation

Question 13 of 44

1

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Blood pressure of systolic between 120-139 or diastolic between 80-89 is typically considered ( normal, prehypertension, hypertension stage 1, hypertension stage 2 ).

Explanation

Question 14 of 44

1

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Blood pressure ranges of 140-159 systolic or 90-99 are typically considered ( normal, prehypertension, hypertension stage 1, hypertension stage 2 ).

Explanation

Question 15 of 44

1

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Blood pressure ranges of greater than 160 systolic or 100 diastolic are typically considered ( normal, prehypertension, hypertension stage 1, hypertension stage 2 ).

Explanation

Question 16 of 44

1

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When systolic and diastolic blood pressure fall into different categories, the ( higher, lower ) category should be selected to classify the individual's status.

Explanation

Question 17 of 44

1

For individuals 40 - 70 years old, each 20 mmHg increase in resting SBP, or 10 mmHg increase in resting DBP above normal doubles the risk of cardiovascular disease.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 18 of 44

1

The Borg 15-point scale, and the modified 0 to 10 ratio scale, are ways to chart the client's rating of perceived exertion (RPE).

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 19 of 44

1

During the ventilatory threshold talk test, which are representative of the first ventilatory threshold (VT1)?

Select one of the following:

  • Blood lactate begins to accumulate, fats are the major fuel, and talking should not appear challenging.

  • Carbohydrates are burned as the primary fuel, blood lactate is rapidly increased, there is an exaggerated increase in respiratory rate, and talking becomes more difficult.

Explanation

Question 20 of 44

1

During the ventilatory threshold talk test, which are representative of the second ventilatory threshold (VT2)?

Select one of the following:

  • Blood lactate begins to accumulate, fats are the major fuel, and talking should not appear challenging.

  • Carbohydrates are burned as the primary fuel, blood lactate is rapidly increased, there is an exaggerated increase in respiratory rate, and talking becomes more difficult.

Explanation

Question 21 of 44

1

The point during aerobic endurance exercise where the heart rate will level off and remain relatively constant; at which point the demands of the active tissues can be adequately met by the cardiovascular system, is referred to as what?

Select one of the following:

  • Steady State Heart Rate (HRss)

  • First Ventilatory Threshold (VT1)

  • Second Ventilatory Threshold (VT2)

  • Ideal Aerobic Heart Rate

Explanation

Question 22 of 44

1

During the Balke and Ware Treadmill Exercise Test, what is incrementally increased during testing?

Select one of the following:

  • Speed

  • Incline

  • Food intake

Explanation

Question 23 of 44

2

The Rockport Fitness Test consists of walking a course as as possible.

Drag and drop to complete the text.

    1 mile
    1.5 mile
    .5 mile
    fast
    comfortably

Explanation

Question 24 of 44

1

The Rockport Fitness Test is best for;

Select one of the following:

  • Conditioned individuals

  • Unconditioned individuals

Explanation

Question 25 of 44

1

For novice exercisers, the first goal would be to establish an aerobic base by gradually increasing exercise duration by about how much per week, until the desired training volume is achieved?

Select one of the following:

  • 5-10%

  • 10-20%

  • 8-10%

Explanation

Question 26 of 44

1

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The ( sagittal plane, frontal plane, transverse plane ) is a longitudinal line that divides the body or any of its parts into right and left sections.

Explanation

Question 27 of 44

1

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The ( frontal plane, transverse plane, sagittal plane ) is a longitudinal line dividing the body into anterior and posterior sections.

Explanation

Question 28 of 44

1

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The ( transverse plane, frontal plane, sagittal plane ) is a horizontal line that divides the body or any of its parts into superior and inferior sections.

Explanation

Question 29 of 44

1

As the ankle moves into pronation, the calcaneus;

Select one of the following:

  • everts

  • inverts

Explanation

Question 30 of 44

1

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During the Sharpened Romberg test, the inability to reach ( 30 seconds, 90 seconds, 1 minute ) is indicative of inadequate static balance and postural control.

Explanation

Question 31 of 44

3

McGill's Torso Muscular Endurance Test Battery; During the Trunk Flexor Endurance Test, which muscles are being primarily assessed?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Transverse abdominis

  • Quadratus lumborum

  • Erector spinae

  • Obliques

  • Multifidi

  • Gluteus maximus

  • Rectus femoris

Explanation

Question 32 of 44

4

McGill's Torso Muscular Endurance Test Battery; During the Trunk Extensor Endurance Test, which muscles are being primarily assessed?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Erector spinae

  • Longissimus

  • Ilicostalis

  • Multifidi

  • Iliopsoas

  • Transverse abdominis

  • Quadratus lumborum

Explanation

Question 33 of 44

4

McGill's Torso Muscular Endurance Test Battery; During the Trunk Lateral Endurance Test, which muscles are being primarily assessed?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Erector spinae

  • Transverse abdominis

  • Obliques

  • Quadratus lumborum

  • Iliopsoas

  • Iliocostalis

  • Tensor Fasciae Latae

Explanation

Question 34 of 44

1

Which of the following three is considered the most accurate predictor of back health?

Select one of the following:

  • Muscular endurance

  • Muscular strength

  • Range of motion

Explanation

Question 35 of 44

1

During the Modified Body-Weight Squat Test, knee flexion between which points is considered good?

Select one of the following:

  • 0-45 degrees

  • 45-90 degrees

  • 35-45 degrees

Explanation

Question 36 of 44

1

During the Modified Body-Weight Squat Test, how many properly done repetitions is considered good?

Select one of the following:

  • 5

  • 10

  • 15

Explanation

Question 37 of 44

1

The squat pattern is the preferred method of squatting.

Drag and drop to complete the text.

    glute dominance
    lumbar dominance
    quadriceps dominance

Explanation

Question 38 of 44

3

Varus strain is associated with which three;

Select one or more of the following:

  • femoral abduction

  • tibial adduction

  • femoral adduction

  • tibial abduction

  • excessive supination of feet

  • excessive pronation of feet

Explanation

Question 39 of 44

3

Valgus strain is associated with which three;

Select one or more of the following:

  • excessive supination of feet

  • excessive pronation of feet

  • tibial adduction

  • tibial abduction

  • femoral adduction

  • femoral abduction

Explanation

Question 40 of 44

1

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During the Modified Body-Weight Squat Test, if the client feels it mainly in the lower back and/or upper portion of the posterior hips they are most likely performing a ( lumbar dominant squat, quadriceps dominant squat, glute dominant squat ).

Explanation

Question 41 of 44

1

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During the Modified Body-Weight Squat Test, if the client feels it mainly in the front of the thighs and/or knees, they are most likely performing a ( quadriceps dominant squat, lumbar dominant squat, glute dominant squat ).

Explanation

Question 42 of 44

1

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During the Modified Body-Weight Squat Test, if the client feels it mainly in the lower portion of the posterior hips and/or the back of the thighs, they are most likely performing a ( glute dominant squat, lumbar dominant squat, quadriceps dominant squat ).

Explanation

Question 43 of 44

1

During the front plank test, if the client feels it mainly in the abdominal muscles it is an indication that they are recruiting the appropriate musculature for the action.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 44 of 44

2

During the Overhead Reach Test, if the client feels it mainly in the back, and the back arches upward off of the floor, it is an indication that they;

Select one or more of the following:

  • Lack appropriate shoulder mobility

  • Have appropriate shoulder mobility

  • Lack appropriate core stability

  • Have appropriate core strength

Explanation

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