Quiz
ACE Health Coach Ch 12: Physical Fitness Assessments
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Questions in this quiz (44)
1What does the IFT in ACE IFT Model stand for?
- AIndividual Flexibility Traits
- BIntegrated Fitness Training
- CIntelligent Financial Trend
2A health risk appraisal should always be conducted at the first session.
- ATrue
- BFalse
3The stroke volume is the amount of blood pumped from which chamber of the heart?
- AThe right atrium
- BThe right ventricle
- CThe left atrium
- DThe left ventricle
4Bradycardia during resting heart rate is less than;
- A72 BPM
- B60 BPM
- C100 BPM
5Tachycardia during resting heart rate is faster than;
- A100 BPM
- B72 BPM
- C125 BPM
6What are different factors that could attribute to the average female resting heart rate being about 10 beats per minute faster than in males?
- ASmaller heart chamber size
- BLower blood volume circulating less oxygen throughout the body
- CLower hemoglobin levels in women
- DIncreased oxytocin
- EHeart rate test anxiety
7An elevation of how many beats per minute over the clients normal RHR that remains over a period of days should be considered a possible sign of overtraining syndrome?
- A5 BPM
- B10 BPM
- C15 BPM
8Digestion increases RHR, as the process of absorption and digestion require energy, necessitating the delivery of nutrients and oxygen to the GI tract.
- ATrue
- BFalse
9The maximum heart rate range can be calculated by the following equation;
- A208 - (0.7 x age)
- B220 - age
- CRHR x (0.5 x age)
10The [blank_start]systolic blood pressure[blank_end] represents the pressure created by the heart as it pumps blood into circulation via ventricular contraction. This represents the greatest pressure during one cardiac cycle.
- ASystolic blood pressure
- BDiastolic blood pressure
11The [blank_start]diastolic[blank_end] BP represents the pressure that is exerted on the artery walls as blood remains in the arteries during the filling phase of the cardiac cycle, or between beats when the heart relaxes. It is the minimum pressure that exists within one cycle.
- Adiastolic
- Bsystolic
12A blood pressure range in an adult equal to or less than 120/80 is considered [blank_start]normal[blank_end].
- Anormal
- Bprehypertension
- Chypertension stage I
- Dhypertension stage 2
13Blood pressure of systolic between 120-139 or diastolic between 80-89 is typically considered [blank_start]prehypertension[blank_end].
- Anormal
- Bprehypertension
- Chypertension stage 1
- Dhypertension stage 2
14Blood pressure ranges of 140-159 systolic or 90-99 are typically considered [blank_start]hypertension stage 1[blank_end].
- Anormal
- Bprehypertension
- Chypertension stage 1
- Dhypertension stage 2
15Blood pressure ranges of greater than 160 systolic or 100 diastolic are typically considered [blank_start]hypertension stage 2[blank_end].
- Anormal
- Bprehypertension
- Chypertension stage 1
- Dhypertension stage 2
16When systolic and diastolic blood pressure fall into different categories, the [blank_start]higher[blank_end] category should be selected to classify the individual's status.
- Ahigher
- Blower
17For individuals 40 - 70 years old, each 20 mmHg increase in resting SBP, or 10 mmHg increase in resting DBP above normal doubles the risk of cardiovascular disease.
- ATrue
- BFalse
18The Borg 15-point scale, and the modified 0 to 10 ratio scale, are ways to chart the client's rating of perceived exertion (RPE).
- ATrue
- BFalse
19During the ventilatory threshold talk test, which are representative of the first ventilatory threshold (VT1)?
- ABlood lactate begins to accumulate, fats are the major fuel, and talking should not appear challenging.
- BCarbohydrates are burned as the primary fuel, blood lactate is rapidly increased, there is an exaggerated increase in respiratory rate, and talking becomes more difficult.
20During the ventilatory threshold talk test, which are representative of the second ventilatory threshold (VT2)?
- ABlood lactate begins to accumulate, fats are the major fuel, and talking should not appear challenging.
- BCarbohydrates are burned as the primary fuel, blood lactate is rapidly increased, there is an exaggerated increase in respiratory rate, and talking becomes more difficult.
21The point during aerobic endurance exercise where the heart rate will level off and remain relatively constant; at which point the demands of the active tissues can be adequately met by the cardiovascular system, is referred to as what?
- ASteady State Heart Rate (HRss)
- BFirst Ventilatory Threshold (VT1)
- CSecond Ventilatory Threshold (VT2)
- DIdeal Aerobic Heart Rate
22During the Balke and Ware Treadmill Exercise Test, what is incrementally increased during testing?
- ASpeed
- BIncline
- CFood intake
23The Rockport Fitness Test consists of walking a [blank_start]1-mile[blank_end] course as [blank_start]fast[blank_end] as possible.
- A1 mile
- B1.5 mile
- C.5 mile
- Dfast
- Ecomfortably
24The Rockport Fitness Test is best for;
- AConditioned individuals
- BUnconditioned individuals
25For novice exercisers, the first goal would be to establish an aerobic base by gradually increasing exercise duration by about how much per week, until the desired training volume is achieved?
- A5-10%
- B10-20%
- C8-10%
26The [blank_start]sagittal plane[blank_end] is a longitudinal line that divides the body or any of its parts into right and left sections.
- Asagittal plane
- Bfrontal plane
- Ctransverse plane
27The [blank_start]frontal plane[blank_end] is a longitudinal line dividing the body into anterior and posterior sections.
- Afrontal plane
- Btransverse plane
- Csagittal plane
28The [blank_start]transverse plane[blank_end] is a horizontal line that divides the body or any of its parts into superior and inferior sections.
- Atransverse plane
- Bfrontal plane
- Csagittal plane
29As the ankle moves into pronation, the calcaneus;
- Aeverts
- Binverts
30During the Sharpened Romberg test, the inability to reach [blank_start]30 seconds[blank_end] is indicative of inadequate static balance and postural control.
- A30 seconds
- B90 seconds
- C1 minute
31McGill's Torso Muscular Endurance Test Battery; During the Trunk Flexor Endurance Test, which muscles are being primarily assessed?
- ATransverse abdominis
- BQuadratus lumborum
- CErector spinae
- DObliques
- EMultifidi
- FGluteus maximus
- GRectus femoris
32McGill's Torso Muscular Endurance Test Battery; During the Trunk Extensor Endurance Test, which muscles are being primarily assessed?
- AErector spinae
- BLongissimus
- CIlicostalis
- DMultifidi
- EIliopsoas
- FTransverse abdominis
- GQuadratus lumborum
33McGill's Torso Muscular Endurance Test Battery; During the Trunk Lateral Endurance Test, which muscles are being primarily assessed?
- AErector spinae
- BTransverse abdominis
- CObliques
- DQuadratus lumborum
- EIliopsoas
- FIliocostalis
- GTensor Fasciae Latae
34Which of the following three is considered the most accurate predictor of back health?
- AMuscular endurance
- BMuscular strength
- CRange of motion
35During the Modified Body-Weight Squat Test, knee flexion between which points is considered good?
- A0-45 degrees
- B45-90 degrees
- C35-45 degrees
36During the Modified Body-Weight Squat Test, how many properly done repetitions is considered good?
- A5
- B10
- C15
37The [blank_start]glute dominance[blank_end] squat pattern is the preferred method of squatting.
- Aglute dominance
- Blumbar dominance
- Cquadriceps dominance
38Varus strain is associated with which three;
- Afemoral abduction
- Btibial adduction
- Cfemoral adduction
- Dtibial abduction
- Eexcessive supination of feet
- Fexcessive pronation of feet
39Valgus strain is associated with which three;
- Aexcessive supination of feet
- Bexcessive pronation of feet
- Ctibial adduction
- Dtibial abduction
- Efemoral adduction
- Ffemoral abduction
40During the Modified Body-Weight Squat Test, if the client feels it mainly in the lower back and/or upper portion of the posterior hips they are most likely performing a [blank_start]lumbar dominant squat[blank_end].
- Alumbar dominant squat
- Bquadriceps dominant squat
- Cglute dominant squat
41During the Modified Body-Weight Squat Test, if the client feels it mainly in the front of the thighs and/or knees, they are most likely performing a [blank_start]quadriceps dominant squat[blank_end].
- Aquadriceps dominant squat
- Blumbar dominant squat
- Cglute dominant squat
42During the Modified Body-Weight Squat Test, if the client feels it mainly in the lower portion of the posterior hips and/or the back of the thighs, they are most likely performing a [blank_start]glute dominant squat[blank_end].
- Aglute dominant squat
- Blumbar dominant squat
- Cquadriceps dominant squat
43During the front plank test, if the client feels it mainly in the abdominal muscles it is an indication that they are recruiting the appropriate musculature for the action.
- ATrue
- BFalse
44During the Overhead Reach Test, if the client feels it mainly in the back, and the back arches upward off of the floor, it is an indication that they;
- ALack appropriate shoulder mobility
- BHave appropriate shoulder mobility
- CLack appropriate core stability
- DHave appropriate core strength
Information
- Description
- This quiz is based off of the ACE Health Coach Manual, Ch 12: Physical Fitness Assessments. © 2013
- Author
- Crystal Hoon
- Language
- English
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