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Quiz on Flight Chief QC 2016, created by donale paine on 07/02/2017.

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Flight Chief QC 2016

Question 1 of 190

1

Each LF is protected by how many sensors?

Select one of the following:

  • Two

  • Three

  • Nine

  • One

Explanation

Question 2 of 190

1

What does an OZ alarm detect?

Select one of the following:

  • Penetration attempts to the launcher

  • Intrusions within a perimeter inside the topside of the LF

  • Intrusions access points within the LCC

  • Intrusions to the SCC access door

Explanation

Question 3 of 190

1

What does an IZ alarm detect?

Select one of the following:

  • Penetration attempts to the launcher

  • Intrusions within a perimeter inside the topside of the LF

  • Unauthorized access to the LCC

  • Unauthorized intrusion point at the SCC

Explanation

Question 4 of 190

1

While on Alert who is in command of the flight area?

Select one of the following:

  • MSC

  • Flight Leadership

  • MCC

  • FSC

Explanation

Question 5 of 190

1

What is reported to the MCC that provides indications of potential intrusions into protected areas of the LF?

Select one of the following:

  • Weapons System Alarms

  • IZ only

  • WALM only

  • OZ only

Explanation

Question 6 of 190

1

What program ensures personnel design and operate nuclear weapons and nuclear weapons systems to satisfy the safety standards in department of defense?

Select one of the following:

  • Air Force Nuclear Weapons Surety Program

  • Air Force Personnel Reliability Program (PRP)

  • Air Force Nuclear Weapons Security Program

  • Air Force Surety Standards

Explanation

Question 7 of 190

1

What Department of Defense (DOD) Directive governs the Nuclear Weapon System Surety Program?

Select one of the following:

  • Directive 3510.2

  • DoD 5210.41M

  • DoD 5210.41R

  • Directive 3150.02

Explanation

Question 8 of 190

1

Which DoD surety standard is not correct?

Select one of the following:

  • There shall be positive measures to prevent nuclear weapons involved in accidents or incidents, or jettisoned weapons, from producing a nuclear yield

  • There shall be positive measures to prevent DELIBERATE pre-arming, arming, launching, or releasing of nuclear weapons, except upon execution of emergency war orders or when directed by competent authority

  • There shall be positive measures to prevent DELIBERATE pre-arming, arming, launching, or releasing of nuclear weapons in all abnormal and credible normal environments

  • There shall be positive measures to ensure adequate security of nuclear weapons, pursuant to DODM S-5210.41-R_AFMAN31-108V1

Explanation

Question 9 of 190

1

Who may cancel a COVERED WAGON report?

Select one of the following:

  • Flight Commander

  • MCC

  • Installation Commander

  • Squadron Commander

Explanation

Question 10 of 190

1

All Airmen should exercise prudent discretion in taking immediate action when it is clear that an attack is ___________?

Select one of the following:

  • Probable

  • Likely

  • Imminent or in progress

  • Inadvertent

Explanation

Question 11 of 190

1

Teams transporting guidance information, Propulsion System Rocket Engine (PSRE) movement, or a missile stage movement best describes which missile category

Select one of the following:

  • Mission CAT III

  • Mission CAT II

  • Mission CAT V

  • Mission CAT IV

Explanation

Question 12 of 190

1

Teams transporting Code Components best describes which mission category?

Select one of the following:

  • Mission CAT III

  • Mission CAT II

  • Mission CAT V

  • Mission CAT IV

Explanation

Question 13 of 190

1

Teams transporting classified critical components, other than code components best describes which Mission Category

Select one of the following:

  • Mission CAT III

  • Mission CAT II

  • Mission CAT V

  • Mission CAT IV

Explanation

Question 14 of 190

1

Which Mission Category does Security Forces Fall under?

Select one of the following:

  • Mission CAT III

  • Mission CAT II

  • Mission CAT VII

  • Mission CAT V

Explanation

Question 15 of 190

1

The SET is routinely dispatched with who?

Select one of the following:

  • Missile Maintenance

  • ART's

  • SRT's

  • Fire Teams

Explanation

Question 16 of 190

1

Units will take appropriate measures to ensure whose survivability during an adversary engagement in order to guarantee activation of LF delay features and adversary attrition?

Select one of the following:

  • ART

  • Alarm Monitor

  • SET

  • Fire Team

Explanation

Question 17 of 190

1

Who will be provided a copy of the Flight Time-Dispatch Response Matrix?

Select one of the following:

  • MSC and all SCC's

  • MCC and MSC

  • SCC's and MCC

  • MCC, MSC and all SCC

Explanation

Question 18 of 190

1

The Flight Time-Dispatch Response Matrix will be considered what classification when filled in?

Select one of the following:

  • Secret

  • DCNI

  • unclassified

  • Top Secret

Explanation

Question 19 of 190

1

What security situation describes Attack/Seismic Indications?

Select one of the following:

  • Situation 1

  • Situation 2

  • Situation 3

  • Situation 4

Explanation

Question 20 of 190

1

What security situation describes Duress Indications?

Select one of the following:

  • Situation 1

  • Situation 2

  • Situation 3

  • Situation 4

Explanation

Question 21 of 190

1

What security situation describes UNAUTHRORIZED/UNIDENTIFIED personnel on or Attempting Entry?

Select one of the following:

  • Situation 1

  • Situation 2

  • Situation 3

  • Situation 4

Explanation

Question 22 of 190

1

What security situation describes LF down (LFDN)?

Select one of the following:

  • Situation 2

  • Situation 3

  • Situation 4

  • Situation 5

Explanation

Question 23 of 190

1

What Security Situation describes LF Alarm Situations

Select one of the following:

  • Situation 2

  • Situation 3

  • Situation 4

  • Situation 5

Explanation

Question 24 of 190

1

You are in the Mike flight area and Recon 2 states "the road condition is green", what weather condition is Recon 2 talking about?

Select one of the following:

  • <35 Knot winds, visibility of >0.5 miles and no snow accumulation

  • 35-45 Knot sustained winds, visibility of 0.1-0.5 miles and 0.5'' to 6'' snow accumulation

  • >45 Knot sustained winds, visibility of <0.1 miles and > 6'' snow accumulation

  • None of the above

Explanation

Question 25 of 190

1

Travel condition yellow represents what weather conditions?

Select one of the following:

  • <35 Knot winds, visibility of >0.5 miles and no snow accumulation

  • 35-45 Knot sustained winds, visibility of 0.1-0.5 miles and 0.5'' to 6'' snow accumulation

  • >45 Knot sustained winds, visibility of <0.1 and >6'' snow accumulation

  • None of the above

Explanation

Question 26 of 190

1

You are in the Alpha canyons and Dog relays "there is patchy snow/ice on the roads and they can't see 1 mile in front of them". What travel condition would this be?

Select one of the following:

  • Travel condition Normal

  • Travel condition Green

  • Travel condition Yellow

  • Travel condition Red

Explanation

Question 27 of 190

1

Travel Condition RED represents what weather condition?

Select one of the following:

  • <35 Knot winds, visibility of >0.5 miles and no snow accumulation

  • 35-45 Knot sustained winds, visibility of 0.1-0.5 miles and 0.5'' to 6'' snow accumulation

  • >45 Knot sustained winds, visibility of <0.1 miles and >6'' snow accumulation

  • None of the above

Explanation

Question 28 of 190

1

Wing commander permission is required for any lone member dispatching during travel condition what?

Select one of the following:

  • Green

  • Yellow

  • Red

  • All of the above

Explanation

Question 29 of 190

1

Commercial facility stops are authorized to combat driver fatigue, health and safety issues. When will SF teams notify their respective control center?

Select one of the following:

  • Prior to Guardmount

  • Upon resuming travel

  • Notifications are not required

  • Prior to stopping and upon resuming travel

Explanation

Question 30 of 190

1

Brief rest or safety stops at gas stations, convenience stores or eating establishments are allowed outside a _________ radius from the base.

Select one of the following:

  • 10 mile

  • 25 mile

  • 15 mile

  • 20 mile

Explanation

Question 31 of 190

1

When armed and stopping at commercial facilities one team member will remain with the vehicle at all times to ________?

Select one of the following:

  • Monitor radio communications and safeguard team weapons

  • Monitor radio communications

  • Safeguard duty gear to include weapons along with RON gear

  • Not required if the members have a mobile radio turned on

Explanation

Question 32 of 190

1

If SCCs are unable to perform their function, responsibility transfers to any surviving mobile element having communications capability with whom?

Select one of the following:

  • MSC

  • FSC

  • MCC

  • Flight Leadership

Explanation

Question 33 of 190

1

Who must establish procedures for the wing command post (WCP) to determine the current status of missile security control (MSC)?

Select one of the following:

  • The Pentagon

  • Each MAJCOM Command

  • Each Group/CC or designated representative in writing

  • Each Installation

Explanation

Question 34 of 190

1

Upon declaration of a security situation by the MCC, who will immediately direct security response?

Select one of the following:

  • FSC

  • MSC

  • MCC

  • MSC and MCC

Explanation

Question 35 of 190

1

Who can make a visual assessment of a site but is not allowed to conduct a complete investigation during multiple alarm situations?

Select one of the following:

  • Two armed SF personnel

  • A single individual

  • RVA will be used to visually assess a site

  • Two MEED equipped personnel

Explanation

Question 36 of 190

1

Who can be diverted to assist in assessing alarms, but must be coordinated with the missile maintenance operations center (MMOC)?

Select one of the following:

  • Maintenance Teams with SET Guards traveling through the area. (if meeting security criteria)

  • Maintenance Teams traveling though the area

  • SET Guards traveling through the area

  • Capsule Teams traveling through the area to clearly identify the alarm status

Explanation

Question 37 of 190

1

The concept for protection of nuclear weapons mandates what?

Select one of the following:

  • That the security system stops an intruder AFTER unauthorized access to a weapon can be achieved

  • That the security system stops an intruder BEFORE unauthorized access to a weapon can be achieved

  • That the security system stops and intruder DURING unauthorized access to a weapon can be achieved

  • That the security system stops an intruder BEFORE authorized access to a weapon can be achieved

Explanation

Question 38 of 190

1

All of the following accomplish the concept for protection of nuclear weapons EXCEPT which one?

Select one of the following:

  • Physical security technologies deployed from the weapon outward

  • implementation of planned actions to disrupt adversary planning cycles

  • immediate response and action by dedicated and well-trained security forces

  • perform delay/withdraw procedures

Explanation

Question 39 of 190

1

What are the five Integrated Defense (ID) principles?

Select one of the following:

  • Damage, Destroy, Destruction

  • Safe, Secure, Reliable

  • Deter, Detect, Delay, Deny, Defeat

  • Observation, Cover and Concealment, Obstacle, Key Terrain, Avenues of approach

Explanation

Question 40 of 190

1

Vegetation within the limited areas will not exceed how many inches?

Select one of the following:

  • Eight

  • Four

  • Six

  • Seven

Explanation

Question 41 of 190

1

Restricted area signs will be positioned on or outside the outer perimeter fence at not greater than ______________ intervals?

Select one of the following:

  • 50 m

  • 50 ft

  • 100 m

  • 100 ft

Explanation

Question 42 of 190

1

A typical missile squadron has how many ARTs on duty 24hrs a day?

Select one of the following:

  • five two person ARTs

  • Four two person ARTs

  • Three two person ARTs

  • One two person ART

Explanation

Question 43 of 190

1

After LF entry, SETs will inspect sites for security deficiencies and report deficiencies to who?

Select one of the following:

  • MCC

  • MSC

  • FSC

  • MMOC

Explanation

Question 44 of 190

1

What security requirement needs to be in place when MCC has the inability to monitor LF security status or simultaneous Outer Zone (OZ) and Inner Zone (IZ) malfunctions?

Select one of the following:

  • Response Force (15x5)

  • 2 person ART

  • 4 person CAT

  • 2 person CAT

Explanation

Question 45 of 190

1

An area where the Two-Person Concept must be enforced because it contains a nuclear weapon, nuclear weapon system, or certified critical component is a _______?

Select one of the following:

  • No Lone Zone

  • Safe Area

  • Safe Haven

  • PAH

Explanation

Question 46 of 190

1

Vehicles entering and exiting limited/exclusion areas shall be given at least a ________ inspection of readily accessible areas (e.g. driver and passenger compartments, cargo carrying area, engine compartment, and undercarriage)?

Select one of the following:

  • Hands on

  • visual

  • Simple frisk

  • Complete

Explanation

Question 47 of 190

1

A person authorized escorted entry to exclusion areas will present what item to the person controlling entry?

Select one of the following:

  • picture identification

  • AFGC 246

  • authentication

  • finger print

Explanation

Question 48 of 190

1

This person is responsible for ensuring personnel entering the exclusion area are members of a unauthorized two person concept team and have a valid reason to be in the exclusion area?

Select one of the following:

  • Team Chief

  • FSC

  • Sole Vouching Authority

  • MSC

Explanation

Question 49 of 190

1

The ___________ is a Defense Intelligence Agency (DIA) -led intelligence community assessment of the capabilities and intentions of a variety of actors to gain unauthorized physical access to a U.S. nuclear weapon?

Select one of the following:

  • Random Antiterrorism Measures

  • Route Vulnerability Assessment

  • COVERED WAGON

  • Nuclear Security Threat Capability Assessment

Explanation

Question 50 of 190

1

An unexpected event involving the release or potential release of nuclear material caused by adversary (insider or outsider) actions defines what?

Select one of the following:

  • Mishap involving nuclear weapon

  • Incident involving nuclear weapon

  • Explosion involving nuclear weapon

  • Detonation involving nuclear weapons

Explanation

Question 51 of 190

1

Lettering of warning signs, surrounding a limited area shall be legible from how many feet away?

Select one of the following:

  • 25 ft

  • 75 ft

  • 50 ft

  • 100 ft

Explanation

Question 52 of 190

1

What type of padlocks can be used on manually operated gates?

Select one of the following:

  • Type I

  • Type III

  • Type II

  • Both B and C

Explanation

Question 53 of 190

1

Opportunity to tamper with or modify a nuclear weapon, critical nuclear weapon system component or positive control/Nuclear Command and Control (NC2) material describe what nuclear surety term?

Select one of the following:

  • Access

  • Opportunity

  • Custody

  • Exclusion Area

Explanation

Question 54 of 190

1

Responsibility for the control of, transfer and movement of, and access to nuclear weapons and components describes what nuclear surety term?

Select one of the following:

  • Secure

  • Custody

  • Observation

  • Detection

Explanation

Question 55 of 190

1

The intentional separation of an unarmed weapon from its delivery system or transport carrier in response to an emergency describes what nuclear surety term?

Select one of the following:

  • Launching

  • Deliberate

  • Jettison

  • Inadvertent

Explanation

Question 56 of 190

1

Which certification describes a PRP screening process to help ensure active duty military individuals meet PRP standards before assignment, or while at training for PRP duties?

Select one of the following:

  • Interim Certification

  • Recertification

  • Administrative Qualification

  • Certification

Explanation

Question 57 of 190

1

Which position, where an individual is assigned nuclear duties, has access, but no technical knowledge?

Select one of the following:

  • Controlled

  • Critical

  • Formal

  • Technical

Explanation

Question 58 of 190

1

____________shall be accomplished by or through a combination of sentries and patrols, towers, security fences, electronic sensors, barriers, lights, clear zones, and observation devices.

Select one of the following:

  • intrusion detection system (IDS)

  • Detection

  • Defeat

  • Random Anti-terrorism Measures (RAM)

Explanation

Question 59 of 190

1

Nuclear weapons facilities will be equipped with _______ and __________ to incapacitate an adversary who has achieved unauthorized entry to such facility before unauthorized access is possible?

Select one of the following:

  • external delay and denial systems

  • M240B and MK19

  • Internal and External SRT

  • Internal Delay and Denial systems

Explanation

Question 60 of 190

1

Each installation that stores or routinely supports transit of nuclear weapons shall conduct recapture and recovery exercises how often? This exercise must include the participation of all military agencies and forces that would be expected to assist in the recapture and recovery of a weapon.

Select one of the following:

  • Annually

  • Monthly

  • Bi-Weekly

  • Semi-Annually

Explanation

Question 61 of 190

1

During exigent circumstances related to the recapture and recovery of a nuclear weapon what suffices for FBI entry into a limited or exclusion area(s)?

Select one of the following:

  • Presentation of credential

  • Restricted area badge

  • Sign/Countersign

  • Code Words

Explanation

Question 62 of 190

1

Actions taken to regain custody of a U.S. nuclear weapon within the boundaries of a storage or operational site, convoy, facility, or military installation where it has been seized by a hostile force or unauthorized person(s) defines what term?

Select one of the following:

  • Recovery

  • Recapture

  • Custody

  • Regain

Explanation

Question 63 of 190

1

_________ are used to safeguard classified defense information and protect DOD equipment and/or material outside the confines of a military installation, but within the territory of the US

Select one of the following:

  • National Defense Areas

  • Recapture events

  • Dull Swords

  • Restricted Areas

Explanation

Question 64 of 190

1

Nuclear weapons inspections and visits shall focus primarily on whether the security program can meet the requirements of __________?

Select one of the following:

  • Integrated Defense Plan

  • Nuclear Weapons Security Standards

  • Weapons System Safety Rules

  • Site Defense Plan

Explanation

Question 65 of 190

1

Which cryptographic control groups does security forces belong to?

Select one of the following:

  • A side

  • B side

  • C side

  • D side

Explanation

Question 66 of 190

1

Security Forces primary goal while posted within the missile complex is to ensure ___________ weapons are postured for deployment.

Select one of the following:

  • Safe

  • Secure

  • Reliable

  • All of the above

Explanation

Question 67 of 190

1

All of the following are categories of deviations except which one?

Select one of the following:

  • Technical

  • Suspended

  • Temporary

  • Permanent

Explanation

Question 68 of 190

1

What teams will not be used to conduct visual assessments, nor will they respond to investigate alarms

Select one of the following:

  • Carrying classified material (other than MEED)

  • Carrying critical components, or classified material (other than MEED)

  • Carrying Code Components or classified material (other than MEED)

  • Carrying Code Components, Critical components, or classified material (other than MEED)

Explanation

Question 69 of 190

1

Who establishes a program to selectively exercise SF elements and identifies, in writing, individuals authorized to conduct SRE's?

Select one of the following:

  • Wing/CC

  • SFG/CC

  • MXG/CC

  • OG/CC

Explanation

Question 70 of 190

1

Exercise termination requires how many authentications from the team that initiated the exercise?

Select one of the following:

  • One

  • Two

  • Three

  • None are required

Explanation

Question 71 of 190

1

What will posted SF not remove during exercises?

Select one of the following:

  • Vest

  • Helmet

  • Magazines

  • Cold Weather Gear

Explanation

Question 72 of 190

1

During incident response procedures, who approves access through the ECP?

Select one of the following:

  • IC or designated representative

  • Wing Commander

  • Group Commander

  • FSC

Explanation

Question 73 of 190

1

Select ECP locations for temporary restricted areas based upon what factors?

Select one of the following:

  • Operational requirements

  • Logical routes of travel

  • Elevation

  • Both A and B

Explanation

Question 74 of 190

1

What is used to secure crime scenes and major accidents?

Select one of the following:

  • Cordon

  • White Chalk

  • Tent

  • Red Tape

Explanation

Question 75 of 190

1

MSgt Smith whom is attempting to process through the Golf MAF gate held at gun point exchanges pleasantries with the FSC while using "Temple" in a normal sentence over the gate phone. The FSC clearly recognizes "Temple" as the current primary duress word and immediately up-channels the incident. This is an example of what type of duress?

Select one of the following:

  • Sign, Counter Sign

  • Subliminal Duress

  • Passive Duress

  • Active Duress

Explanation

Question 76 of 190

1

Amn Doe, assigned to Hotel 60 is dispatched to a 5G at H-3. While conducting an access road sweep the team is taken hostage. Hotel control prompts a status check, with Hotel 60 passing the call sign of November 60. This is an example of what type of duress?

Select one of the following:

  • positive duress

  • passive duress

  • sign, counter sign

  • active duress

Explanation

Question 77 of 190

1

Units will publish procedures for active and passive duress in what document?

Select one of the following:

  • Installation Defense Plan (IDP)

  • DoD 5210.41M

  • Special Security Instructions (SSI's)

  • Operational Instructions (OI's)

Explanation

Question 78 of 190

1

When conducting physical checks of unguarded LF's, what activations must be included?

Select one of the following:

  • Inner and Outer zone IDS

  • IZ only

  • OZ only

  • WALM, PGLV, IZ and OZ

Explanation

Question 79 of 190

1

How frequently will you physically check secure unguarded LFs

Select one of the following:

  • Once every 14 days

  • Once every 15 days

  • Once every 12 days

  • Once every 7 days

Explanation

Question 80 of 190

1

Teams generating IZ alarms during an LF check are not required to authenticate upon IZ illumination if two team members have authenticated within how many minutes?

Select one of the following:

  • 10

  • 5

  • 15

  • 30

Explanation

Question 81 of 190

1

What form is used at any installation, office, controlled or restricted area where visitors must be registered?

Select one of the following:

  • AF form 1190

  • DD form 1190

  • AF form 1109

  • AFGSC 1109

Explanation

Question 82 of 190

1

A change in a Response Condition (RC) does not automatically change what?

Select one of the following:

  • Information protection condition (INFOCON)

  • Travel Condition (TC)

  • Force Protection Condition (FPCON)

  • Road Conditions (RC I or RC II)

Explanation

Question 83 of 190

1

Normal conditions exist and LF(s) is/are accessible to SF best describes what

Select one of the following:

  • Road Condition I

  • Travel Condition "Green"

  • Road Condition II

  • Travel Condition "Yellow"

Explanation

Question 84 of 190

1

Weather or road conditions have affected response, or the ability to respond to the LF(s) and the site(s) is/are not accessible best describes what?

Select one of the following:

  • TC II

  • RC I

  • RC II

  • TC I

Explanation

Question 85 of 190

1

What filter is the M50 gas mask equipped with?

Select one of the following:

  • M4A3 filter

  • C2A1 filter

  • C1A2 filter

  • M61 filter

Explanation

Question 86 of 190

1

What does the M50 mask use to protect against CBRN threats?

Select one of the following:

  • The mask uses a single filter positioned on the face-piece

  • The mask uses twin filters positioned on the face-Piece

  • the mask uses a seal designed to suction around the jaw line

  • the mask uses twin C2A1 filters positioned on the face piece

Explanation

Question 87 of 190

1

The M50 Joint Service General Purpose Field Mask is designed to provide what?

Select one of the following:

  • 24 hours continuous head-eye-respiratory Chemical/Biological, radiological particulates, and toxic industrial chemical protection

  • Protection from biological particulates and toxic industrial chemical protection

  • head-eye respiratory chemical/biological and radiological protection

  • provide a high level of protection form all airborne threats

Explanation

Question 88 of 190

1

Which agency identifies the need for a team to be dispatched to the missile field?

Select one of the following:

  • Initiating Agency

  • Dispatch Agency

  • KCCC

  • KCCC and the dispatch agency jointly identify the need

Explanation

Question 89 of 190

1

Who confirms the need for sending the team into the missile field

Select one of the following:

  • the owning CO

  • KCCC

  • Dispatch Agency

  • Initiating Agency

Explanation

Question 90 of 190

1

Who is responsible for ensuring that all personnel assigned to PRP duties have their PRP status verified prior to being placed on the AFGSC Form 246/MADO?

Select one of the following:

  • Initiating Agency

  • Squadron CO

  • Dispatch Agency

  • PRP Monitor

Explanation

Question 91 of 190

1

Who assigns the mission category?

Select one of the following:

  • Dispatch Agency

  • Initiating Agency

  • KCCC

  • Initiating Agency or Dispatch agency

Explanation

Question 92 of 190

1

Specific individuals within each initiating agency must be appointed in writing using what form?

Select one of the following:

  • A memorandum with the appropriate header and signature block

  • AFGSC Form 577

  • AFGSC Form 527

  • AFGSC Form 257

Explanation

Question 93 of 190

1

What is recommended but not required for trips dispatching to the missile field that will not require entry to LFs and MAFs?

Select one of the following:

  • AFGSC Form 277

  • AFGSC Form 247

  • AFGSC Form 245

  • AFGSC Form 246

Explanation

Question 94 of 190

1

What is utilized to gauge the effectiveness of flight level exercises?

Select one of the following:

  • Specific Security Instructions

  • Operations Instructions

  • Training Exercise Evaluation outlines and Task Performance Checklists

  • Remote Visual Assessment

Explanation

Question 95 of 190

1

An official military function conducted at the start of Security Forces shift, and is the first communication between SF members is known what?

Select one of the following:

  • Weapons Inspection

  • Roll Call

  • Open Ranks

  • Guardmount

Explanation

Question 96 of 190

1

Security Forces shall not consume alcoholic beverages within _______________ hrs of duty?

Select one of the following:

  • 6 hrs

  • 8 hrs

  • 12 hrs

  • 4 hrs

Explanation

Question 97 of 190

1

Which arming group consists of DoD military, civilian and contract personnel performing law enforcement, security or force protection duties or personnel serving in an AFSC that specifies qualification to bear firearms as a mandatory requirement?

Select one of the following:

  • Group A

  • Group C

  • Group B

  • Group D

Explanation

Question 98 of 190

1

Temporary withdrawal to bear firearms for less than how many hours can be made by verbal notification?

Select one of the following:

  • 48 hrs (2 Days)

  • 72 hrs (3 days)

  • 24 hrs (1 day)

  • 12 hrs

Explanation

Question 99 of 190

1

Written notification must be made from the commander or designated representative to the affected person for any instances of a weapons withdrawal lasting longer than _____________ hrs?

Select one of the following:

  • 48

  • 24

  • 72

  • 12

Explanation

Question 100 of 190

1

What is conducted to ensure posted personnel are alert and knowledgeable of the assigned duties and responsibilities?

Select one of the following:

  • Post Checks

  • No-notice evaluations

  • Flight level exercises

  • Open ranks

Explanation

Question 101 of 190

1

Who assigns personnel to a duty position for posting?

Select one of the following:

  • Group CC

  • Squadron CC

  • Flight Chief

  • Supervisors

Explanation

Question 102 of 190

1

As a flight chief, proper management of your personnel is vital to the success of your mission. The following areas should be considered when managing your personnel:

Select one of the following:

  • Orient new personnel to the unit, mission and duty position

  • Ensure personnel maintain proper qualifications for their assigned posts

  • Be familiar with and qualified to perform subordinates duties

  • All of the above

Explanation

Question 103 of 190

1

As a leader focused on Integrated Defense, when deciding on priorities of work, what must be known to position weapons effectively?

Select one of the following:

  • Characteristics, Capabilities, and limitations of the weapons

  • Effects of terrain

  • Tactics used by the enemy

  • All of the above

Explanation

Question 104 of 190

1

What is not stored in a HHU after the A circuit is opened?

Select one of the following:

  • Combinations

  • Last known location

  • Your authenticator

  • Your pin

Explanation

Question 105 of 190

1

Deadly force is authorized under 8 circumstances. One of these circumstances is to protect inherently dangerous property. Which of the below is NOT an example of inherently dangerous property?

Select one of the following:

  • Special Nuclear Material

  • Weapons/Ammunition

  • Taser

  • Chemical Agents

Explanation

Question 106 of 190

1

LF subsequent/follow-on teams do not need to do what, if the on-site team chief or assistant team chief (at the direction of the team chief), personally recognizes and vouches for the team chief requesting entry?

Select one of the following:

  • Authenticate

  • Pass a valid trip number

  • Pass dispatch information

  • Vouch for individuals in the vehicle

Explanation

Question 107 of 190

1

What are unclassified and may be transmitted over unprotected communication lines?

Select one of the following:

  • Generator numbers and page numbers

  • Convoy composition and time of departure

  • LF combinations un-encrypted

  • Authenticators un-encrypted

Explanation

Question 108 of 190

1

MEED-equipped individuals will prevent unauthorized personnel from monitoring what, during authentication and combination processing?

Select one of the following:

  • Keyboard actions

  • Radio Frequencies

  • 360 degree security

  • The authenticator/combination written in the notepad

Explanation

Question 109 of 190

1

What does the acronym PCCs stand for?

Select one of the following:

  • Post convoy checks

  • Pre Combat Checks

  • Pre Convoy Checks

  • Post Combat Checks

Explanation

Question 110 of 190

1

What does the acronym PCI stand for?

Select one of the following:

  • Pre Combat Inspections

  • Post Combat Inspections

  • Pre Convoy Inspections

  • Post Convoy Inspections

Explanation

Question 111 of 190

1

The PCIs and PCCs process is used on all SF assigned duty ______.

Select one of the following:

  • Gear

  • Weapons

  • Vehicles

  • All of the above

Explanation

Question 112 of 190

1

Who is responsible for conducting changeover?

Select one of the following:

  • On coming SF member(s)

  • Off going SF member(s)

  • Both on coming and off going SF members

  • none of the above

Explanation

Question 113 of 190

1

What can be activated on the hand held radios to indicate duress?

Select one of the following:

  • Encrypt button

  • Push to talk button

  • Home button

  • Duress button

Explanation

Question 114 of 190

1

What is the purpose of challenging an individual?

Select one of the following:

  • Determine hostile from non-hostile

  • Place the suspect in a difficult situation

  • make a positive ID

  • Both A and C

Explanation

Question 115 of 190

1

Military members who violate any firearm safety standard are subject to administrative or disciplinary proceedings under article _________ of the UCMJ?

Select one of the following:

  • Article 104

  • Article 36

  • Article 92

  • Article 87

Explanation

Question 116 of 190

1

What must be present prior to clearing a firearm?

Select one of the following:

  • trained clearing barrel attendant

  • an authorized clearing area

  • clearing barrel

  • all of the above

Explanation

Question 117 of 190

1

When is a LACE report typically upchanneled?

Select one of the following:

  • During contact of enemy engagement

  • before sf engagement

  • After SF engagement with enemy

  • Once enemy contact has taken place

Explanation

Question 118 of 190

1

What does SALUTE stand for?

Select one of the following:

  • Size, Activity, Liquid, Unit, Time, Enemy

  • Size, Activity, Location, Uniform, Time, Equipment

  • Size, Activity, Location, Unit,Time, Equipment

  • Size, Ammo, Location, Uniform, Time, Enemy

Explanation

Question 119 of 190

1

Which factors affect range estimates?

Select one of the following:

  • Nature of the object

  • Nature of terrain

  • Light Conditions

  • All of the above

Explanation

Question 120 of 190

1

Which method of range determination is best used at night?

Select one of the following:

  • Appearance of object method

  • 100 meter unit of measure method

  • flash and sound method

  • the mil-relation method

Explanation

Question 121 of 190

1

Operational keying material is classified as what?

Select one of the following:

  • TOP SECRET

  • SECRET/CRYPTO/NOFORN

  • CLASSIFIED

  • DoD UCNI

Explanation

Question 122 of 190

1

How often should PCCs and PCIs be performed?

Select one of the following:

  • Daily

  • Weekly

  • Monthly

  • Upon leadership request

Explanation

Question 123 of 190

1

Flight leaders ensure sectors of fire are adjacent with other sectors. This happens when more than one position can fire a weapon system at the same target.

Select one of the following:

  • FPL

  • PDF

  • Interlocking fields of fire

  • sectors of fire

Explanation

Question 124 of 190

1

_______________ are designated to ensure adequate distribution and interlocking of fire across the flight front?

Select one of the following:

  • Weather and road conditions

  • Availability of personnel

  • Sectors of fire

  • Structures used during implantation

Explanation

Question 125 of 190

1

Individuals receiving authenticators must not make any record (written or electronic) of the authenticator nor permit its compromise at any time. Who will remind individuals receiving authenticators of these requirements?

Select one of the following:

  • KCCC

  • MSC

  • MOCC

  • TCC

Explanation

Question 126 of 190

1

Individuals receiving what must not make any record (written or electronic) of it, nor permit its compromise at any time?

Select one of the following:

  • Authenticators

  • KL-86A

  • COMSEC FORM 16

  • KL-85A

Explanation

Question 127 of 190

1

What gives SF the authority to apprehend military members?

Select one of the following:

  • UCMJ, Title 18

  • The Manual for Courts-artial, Rules for Courts-Martial Rule 302 (B) (1), and UCMJ, Article 7(b)

  • U.S. Constitution, Defense Force Commander

  • U.S. Government and the U.S. Armed Forces

Explanation

Question 128 of 190

1

Which act prevents Army and Air Force personnel from executing the laws of the states or the laws of the U.S. except when acting under the authority of the U.S. Constitution?

Select one of the following:

  • Posse Comitatus Act

  • Assimilative Crimes Act

  • LOAC

  • Lautenberg Act

Explanation

Question 129 of 190

1

A MEED can hold how many field keys?

Select one of the following:

  • Three

  • Two

  • One

  • Four

Explanation

Question 130 of 190

1

What maintenance is Security Forces authorized to conduct on a MEED unit?

Select one of the following:

  • Changing the batteries

  • adjusting bent pins

  • cleaning the connector and battery compartment

  • All of the above

Explanation

Question 131 of 190

1

One field key can encrypt or decrypt how many messages?

Select one of the following:

  • 1000 Messages

  • 2000 Messages

  • 500 Messages

  • 800 Messages

Explanation

Question 132 of 190

1

What type of maintenance of MEED devices is prohibited?

Select one of the following:

  • Internal maintenance

  • All maintenance is authorized (KCCC must be notified for internal maintenance)

  • wiping the screen (Causes abrasion scuffs)

  • Exterior maintenance

Explanation

Question 133 of 190

1

Battery life for the PVS-14 is typically how many hours?

Select one of the following:

  • 20 hours

  • 85 hours

  • 70 hours

  • 110 hours

Explanation

Question 134 of 190

1

What is accomplished when an individual believes the device in their possession may be compromised by overt or covert means, or when ordered by competent authority?

Select one of the following:

  • Routine Zeroization

  • Zeroization

  • Emergency Zeroization

  • Turn the MEED off

Explanation

Question 135 of 190

1

When does the routine zeroization of a field key in the HHU occur?

Select one of the following:

  • When the team member issued that key returns the HHU to KCCC

  • Anytime the individual believes the device in their possession may be compromised

  • When the team member returns to the MAF after LF checks

  • When told to do so by competent authority because the MEED may be compromised by overt or covert means

Explanation

Question 136 of 190

1

To be considered for this particular specialty, you must have graduated Close Precision Engagement Course or M107, .50 cal rifle course

Select one of the following:

  • Sharp-shooters

  • Marksmen

  • Expert

  • Sniper

Explanation

Question 137 of 190

1

Upon graduating Close Precision Engagement Course, Sharp-shooters will always be a what?

Select one of the following:

  • 4-man fire team

  • 2-man team

  • TRF team

  • .50 cal certified

Explanation

Question 138 of 190

1

What does the acronym ADM stand for?

Select one of the following:

  • Aeronautical Decision Making

  • Architectural Development Method

  • Advanced Development Model

  • Advanced Designated Marksman

Explanation

Question 139 of 190

1

What is the LF security guarding requirements for an open launcher at a site with a RS present?

Select one of the following:

  • 15/5 RF + 2 Person SET

  • 15/5 RF + 1 Person SET

  • 15/5 RF + 2 Person SRT

  • 15/5 RF + 2 Person ESET

Explanation

Question 140 of 190

1

One MFT must be positioned where during all penetrated sites and open launchers at a site with a RS present?

Select one of the following:

  • One MFT must be positioned on or adjacent to the access road

  • At the closest main intersection

  • On the right side of the road in such a manner as to slow down oncoming traffic

  • within weapons range to the 3 o'clock of the LF

Explanation

Question 141 of 190

1

What is the LF guarding requirements for a penetrated site with a RS present?

Select one of the following:

  • Two person armed SET with external access road team

  • 15/5 RF + 2 SET

  • 2 Person CAT

  • 4 Person CAT

Explanation

Question 142 of 190

1

What is the LF guarding requirements for B-plug maintenance?

Select one of the following:

  • 15/5 RF + 2 Person SET

  • 15/5 RF

  • 2 Person SET + External Team

  • External 3-man only

Explanation

Question 143 of 190

1

How will SF personnel patrol the topside of the LF for B-plug maintenance?

Select one of the following:

  • Two SET guards must remain in vehicle at all times

  • Both SF members remain outside of vehicle

  • One SF will patrol the LF surface and one may be in vehicle

  • Both SF members patrol in vehicle constantly

Explanation

Question 144 of 190

1

What are the LF guarding requirements for RS present (insecure B-plug) without a Maintenance team on site?

Select one of the following:

  • 15/5 RF

  • 15/5 RF + 2-Person SET

  • 2-Person SET

  • 15/5 RF + 4-Person CAT

Explanation

Question 145 of 190

1

The Metal-frisk Trans frisker functions by creating an electromagnetic field around the probe (wand) with a radius of approximately how many inches?

Select one of the following:

  • 18 inches

  • 16 inches

  • 15 inches

  • 17 inches

Explanation

Question 146 of 190

1

What type of maintenance is an SF member authorized to perform on a MEED device?

Select one of the following:

  • Cleaning and adjusting the connector to include the battery compartment contacts

  • Adjusting bent pins

  • Adjusting the connector to include the battery compartment contacts

  • Cleaning and adjusting the connector to include the battery compartment contacts and adjusting bent pins

Explanation

Question 147 of 190

1

The KL-86 and KL-85 are given what classification when unkeyed

Select one of the following:

  • DoD UCNI

  • UNCLASSIFIED

  • SECRET

  • CONFIDENTIAL

Explanation

Question 148 of 190

1

The KL-86 and KL-85 are handled as and controlled as what?

Select one of the following:

  • Cryptographic items

  • Confidential items

  • Classified items

  • Secret items

Explanation

Question 149 of 190

1

The KL-86 and KL-85 perform what functions

Select one of the following:

  • Sensitive cryptographic functions

  • Sensitive functions

  • Online cypher functions

  • Classified functions

Explanation

Question 150 of 190

1

When transferring HHUs, complete what sections of the AFGSC FORM 247?

Select one of the following:

  • One and Two

  • One and Three

  • Two and Three

  • Only section Three

Explanation

Question 151 of 190

1

Use what form to issue, transfer, and receipt for a MEED unit from the location the MEED unit is assigned?

Select one of the following:

  • AFGSC FORM 245

  • AFGSC FORM 246

  • AFGSC FORM 247

  • AFGSC FORM 577

Explanation

Question 152 of 190

1

What must a team arriving at the MAF gate pass the FSC?

Select one of the following:

  • Their trip number, team chief's name and number of personnel

  • Team chief's name and rank, and number of personnel

  • Their trip number, team chief's name and rank, and status

  • Their trip number, team chief's name and rank, and number of personnel

Explanation

Question 153 of 190

1

What form(s) must your information be verified against prior to the FSC allowing entry to the MAF?

Select one of the following:

  • AFGSC FORM 245/MADO/EAL

  • AFGSC FORM 246/MADO/EAL

  • AFGSC FORM 246/EAL

  • AFGSC FORM 245/MADO

Explanation

Question 154 of 190

1

What are the standard methods of passing dispatch information for MAF entry?

Select one of the following:

  • Vehicle radios only

  • Gate phone

  • Vehicle radios or the gate phone

  • Vehicle radios, Cell phone or the gate phone

Explanation

Question 155 of 190

1

Visual inspections of personnel requiring escorted entry to the SCC, elevator shaft way, LCEB and/or LCC will consist of what?

Select one of the following:

  • Removing all items from pockets and a visual inspection of the individual and all hand-carried items

  • A visual inspection of the individual and all hand-carried items

  • A physical search of personnel requesting entry and a visual inspection of all hand-carried items

  • Removing all items from pockets and a visual inspection of the individual

Explanation

Question 156 of 190

1

Emergency vehicles transporting seriously injured personnel will not be what?

Select one of the following:

  • Delayed for inspections

  • Authorized on the MAF

  • Monitored closely while in secured areas

  • None of the above

Explanation

Question 157 of 190

1

Who is the approval authority for teams entering LFs

Select one of the following:

  • Flight Leadership

  • FSC

  • MCC

  • MSC

Explanation

Question 158 of 190

1

Who will grant permission for all trips to depart the site?

Select one of the following:

  • MSC and MCC

  • FSC and MSC

  • FSC and Flight Leadership

  • FSC and MCC

Explanation

Question 159 of 190

1

What must all teams requesting entry into an LF pass the FSC prior to entry?

Select one of the following:

  • Their trip number, team chief's name and rank, number of personnel and the LF number

  • Their trip number, rank, number of personnel and LF number

  • Their trip number, Team Chiefs name and rank, number of personnel and status

  • They are required two good authentications prior to entry

Explanation

Question 160 of 190

1

Who is the exception and may be allowed on to a site with a security situation in progress?

Select one of the following:

  • Transient capsule crews

  • Team Chief

  • Maintenance teams

  • Responding security teams

Explanation

Question 161 of 190

1

Subsequent follow-on teams may not need to do what if the on-site team chief, or assistant team chief personally recognizes and vouches for the team chief requesting entry?

Select one of the following:

  • pass combinations

  • crew composition

  • Authenticate

  • Personal recognition is not authorized

Explanation

Question 162 of 190

1

What must be passed to penetrate the LF?

Select one of the following:

  • "A" and "B" combinations

  • "A" combinations

  • "B" combinations

  • proper authentications

Explanation

Question 163 of 190

1

The "A" circuit combination known only to the SET, holds what classification?

Select one of the following:

  • DoD UCNI

  • UCNI

  • SECRET

  • CLASSIFIED

Explanation

Question 164 of 190

1

What circuit combination must be changed by maintenance personnel trained and qualified to accomplish the task?

Select one of the following:

  • "A" side

  • "B" side

  • Team chief and Set guard

  • "A" or "B" side may open the pit vault door

Explanation

Question 165 of 190

1

What combinations must be changed at least annually or immediately when compromised?

Select one of the following:

  • maintenance combinations

  • "B" Circuit combinations

  • locally selected unclassified combinations

  • "A" Circuit Combinations

Explanation

Question 166 of 190

1

Security Forces may perform critical emergency maintenance tasks as directed by MMOC. What emergency maintenance tasks are SF personnel authorized to perform and if not accomplished in minimum time would result in damage to equipment?

Select one of the following:

  • Environmental control system resets

  • Primary power system resets

  • A only

  • A and B

Explanation

Question 167 of 190

1

When SF are performing critical emergency maintenance tasks, who must specifically authorize and control those tasks?

Select one of the following:

  • MSC and MCC

  • MMOC

  • MCC

  • MMOC, MSC, FSC and Flight Leadership

Explanation

Question 168 of 190

1

At a minimum, all information that would reveal a movement is planned or scheduled shall be classified as what?

Select one of the following:

  • CONFIDENTIAL

  • FOUO

  • SECRET

  • DoD UCNI

Explanation

Question 169 of 190

1

When a nuclear weapon movement destination, route, and timeline are combined into a single document or briefing, the document or briefing is classified what, until the movement is complete?

Select one of the following:

  • CONFIDENTIAL/FRD

  • FOUO

  • SECRET

  • DoD UCNI

Explanation

Question 170 of 190

1

Upon completion of the movement, a document or briefing that contains a nuclear weapon movement, destination, route, and timeline reverts to what classification?

Select one of the following:

  • CONFIDENTIAL/FRD

  • FOUO

  • SECRET

  • DoD UCNI

Explanation

Question 171 of 190

1

Information concerning times, routes and destinations shall be handled on _________ and controlled as appropriate.

Select one of the following:

  • A strict need to know basis

  • A strict confidential basis

  • A commander level

  • A strict secret or higher level

Explanation

Question 172 of 190

1

Dissemination, display, and access to information concerning impending or actual movements shall be limited to whom?

Select one of the following:

  • The minimum essential personnel to support the mission

  • Group commanders or their designated representatives

  • The public Affairs committee

  • 341 MW leadership

Explanation

Question 173 of 190

1

During all types of movement, progress reports shall be made to a control center tasked with plotting the progress of the movement and initiating a response in case of alarm or loss of communication at least every how many minutes?

Select one of the following:

  • 10

  • 15

  • 20

  • 30

Explanation

Question 174 of 190

1

Prior to entering the LF, who pre-announces the convoy composition to the FSC or MCC

Select one of the following:

  • The Convoy CC

  • The Convoy FC

  • CC's Driver

  • The Highest ranking in the convoy movement

Explanation

Question 175 of 190

1

If the on-site team chief cannot make positive personal recognition, the convoy CC and another MEED equipped member must contact who, and authenticate after the PT has entered the LF?

Select one of the following:

  • FSC

  • MSC

  • MCC

  • MOC

Explanation

Question 176 of 190

1

If the on-site team chief cannot make positive personal recognition, the convoy CC and another MEED equipped member must contact the FSC and authenticate when?

Select one of the following:

  • After the PT has entered the LF

  • Before the PT has entered the LF

  • After the Convoy CC has entered the LF

  • Before the Convoy CC has entered the LF

Explanation

Question 177 of 190

1

Prior to entering the WSA, the Convoy CC pre-announces the convoy composition to whom?

Select one of the following:

  • The SSCC and EC

  • The parent FSC

  • MSC

  • MMOC

Explanation

Question 178 of 190

1

Who visually observes the convoy's approach and continues to keep the vehicles under visual observation until entry procedures are completed?

Select one of the following:

  • The EC, or designated individual

  • Panther Lead

  • CSC via RTES

  • CFC

Explanation

Question 179 of 190

1

Prior to entering the MAF, who pre-announces the convoy composition to the FSC or MCC?

Select one of the following:

  • The Convoy CC

  • The Convoy FC

  • CC's Driver

  • The highest ranking in the convoy movement

Explanation

Question 180 of 190

1

During MAF entry procedures, who visually observes the convoy's approach and continues to keep the vehicles under visual observation until entry procedures are completed?

Select one of the following:

  • FSC

  • MCC

  • MSC

  • CFC

Explanation

Question 181 of 190

1

The RF shall arrive before a hostile force can penetrate the secure portions of the LF, but in not more than how many minutes?

Select one of the following:

  • 45

  • 30

  • 60

  • 90

Explanation

Question 182 of 190

1

The BF shall be dispatched concurrently with the RF and shall arrive at the threatened LF in not more than how many minutes?

Select one of the following:

  • 45

  • 30

  • 60

  • 90

Explanation

Question 183 of 190

1

During a Recapture Operation, those actions, proportional to the threat, that disrupt the adversary and delay them from meaningful work in order to prevent theft, damage, sabotage, destruction, or detonation of a nuclear weapon best describes what?

Select one of the following:

  • Denial/Final Denial Fire

  • Containment

  • Assess

  • Immediate Sufficient Duress

Explanation

Question 184 of 190

1

The ability of the security forces to place effective fire on the entrances to facilities or platforms containing nuclear weapons best describes what?

Select one of the following:

  • Immediate sufficient duress

  • Denial

  • Containment

  • Final Denial

Explanation

Question 185 of 190

1

What is the immediate determination of the level of access an enemy force has achieved or their physical proximity in relation to areas containing nuclear resources?

Select one of the following:

  • Assess

  • Control

  • Immediate Sufficient Duress

  • Final Denial

Explanation

Question 186 of 190

1

The actions taken by the security force to neutralize hostile persons in the area surrounding the nuclear weapon defines what?

Select one of the following:

  • Control

  • Assault

  • Assess

  • Denial

Explanation

Question 187 of 190

1

To physically regain possession of resources and locations containing nuclear weapons and ensure a minimum of two personnel are positioned to control entry to the affected area (as determined by the on-scene commander) during Recapture or Recovery Operations defines what?

Select one of the following:

  • Control

  • Assess

  • Final Denial

  • Restore Government Control

Explanation

Question 188 of 190

1

A payload transporter carrying a nuclear weapon with a malfunction, breakdown, or other non-hostile condition(s) off base and deemed long-term may require a what?

Select one of the following:

  • Dull Sword

  • National Defense Area (NDA)

  • Covered Wagon

  • Safe Haven

Explanation

Question 189 of 190

1

Who approves establishment of the National Defense Area (NDA)?

Select one of the following:

  • Convoy Commander

  • Squadron level or higher commander

  • Group level or higher commander

  • Wing level or higher commander

Explanation

Question 190 of 190

1

Who will establish the initial area and direct actions to expedite NDA approval?

Select one of the following:

  • Convoy Flight Chief

  • Convoy CC

  • A MEED equipped convoy member

  • Two MEED equipped convoy members

Explanation