Quiz
Flight Chief QC 2016
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Questions in this quiz (190)
1Each LF is protected by how many sensors?
- ATwo
- BThree
- CNine
- DOne
2What does an OZ alarm detect?
- APenetration attempts to the launcher
- BIntrusions within a perimeter inside the topside of the LF
- CIntrusions access points within the LCC
- DIntrusions to the SCC access door
3What does an IZ alarm detect?
- APenetration attempts to the launcher
- BIntrusions within a perimeter inside the topside of the LF
- CUnauthorized access to the LCC
- DUnauthorized intrusion point at the SCC
4While on Alert who is in command of the flight area?
- AMSC
- BFlight Leadership
- CMCC
- DFSC
5What is reported to the MCC that provides indications of potential intrusions into protected areas of the LF?
- AWeapons System Alarms
- BIZ only
- CWALM only
- DOZ only
6What program ensures personnel design and operate nuclear weapons and nuclear weapons systems to satisfy the safety standards in department of defense?
- AAir Force Nuclear Weapons Surety Program
- BAir Force Personnel Reliability Program (PRP)
- CAir Force Nuclear Weapons Security Program
- DAir Force Surety Standards
7What Department of Defense (DOD) Directive governs the Nuclear Weapon System Surety Program?
- ADirective 3510.2
- BDoD 5210.41M
- CDoD 5210.41R
- DDirective 3150.02
8Which DoD surety standard is not correct?
- AThere shall be positive measures to prevent nuclear weapons involved in accidents or incidents, or jettisoned weapons, from producing a nuclear yield
- BThere shall be positive measures to prevent DELIBERATE pre-arming, arming, launching, or releasing of nuclear weapons, except upon execution of emergency war orders or when directed by competent authority
- CThere shall be positive measures to prevent DELIBERATE pre-arming, arming, launching, or releasing of nuclear weapons in all abnormal and credible normal environments
- DThere shall be positive measures to ensure adequate security of nuclear weapons, pursuant to DODM S-5210.41-R_AFMAN31-108V1
9Who may cancel a COVERED WAGON report?
- AFlight Commander
- BMCC
- CInstallation Commander
- DSquadron Commander
10All Airmen should exercise prudent discretion in taking immediate action when it is clear that an attack is ___________?
- AProbable
- BLikely
- CImminent or in progress
- DInadvertent
11Teams transporting guidance information, Propulsion System Rocket Engine (PSRE) movement, or a missile stage movement best describes which missile category
- AMission CAT III
- BMission CAT II
- CMission CAT V
- DMission CAT IV
12Teams transporting Code Components best describes which mission category?
- AMission CAT III
- BMission CAT II
- CMission CAT V
- DMission CAT IV
13Teams transporting classified critical components, other than code components best describes which Mission Category
- AMission CAT III
- BMission CAT II
- CMission CAT V
- DMission CAT IV
14Which Mission Category does Security Forces Fall under?
- AMission CAT III
- BMission CAT II
- CMission CAT VII
- DMission CAT V
15The SET is routinely dispatched with who?
- AMissile Maintenance
- BART's
- CSRT's
- DFire Teams
16Units will take appropriate measures to ensure whose survivability during an adversary engagement in order to guarantee activation of LF delay features and adversary attrition?
- AART
- BAlarm Monitor
- CSET
- DFire Team
17Who will be provided a copy of the Flight Time-Dispatch Response Matrix?
- AMSC and all SCC's
- BMCC and MSC
- CSCC's and MCC
- DMCC, MSC and all SCC
18The Flight Time-Dispatch Response Matrix will be considered what classification when filled in?
- ASecret
- BDCNI
- Cunclassified
- DTop Secret
19What security situation describes Attack/Seismic Indications?
- ASituation 1
- BSituation 2
- CSituation 3
- DSituation 4
20What security situation describes Duress Indications?
- ASituation 1
- BSituation 2
- CSituation 3
- DSituation 4
21What security situation describes UNAUTHRORIZED/UNIDENTIFIED personnel on or Attempting Entry?
- ASituation 1
- BSituation 2
- CSituation 3
- DSituation 4
22What security situation describes LF down (LFDN)?
- ASituation 2
- BSituation 3
- CSituation 4
- DSituation 5
23What Security Situation describes LF Alarm Situations
- ASituation 2
- BSituation 3
- CSituation 4
- DSituation 5
24You are in the Mike flight area and Recon 2 states "the road condition is green", what weather condition is Recon 2 talking about?
- A<35 Knot winds, visibility of >0.5 miles and no snow accumulation
- B35-45 Knot sustained winds, visibility of 0.1-0.5 miles and 0.5'' to 6'' snow accumulation
- C>45 Knot sustained winds, visibility of <0.1 miles and > 6'' snow accumulation
- DNone of the above
25Travel condition yellow represents what weather conditions?
- A<35 Knot winds, visibility of >0.5 miles and no snow accumulation
- B35-45 Knot sustained winds, visibility of 0.1-0.5 miles and 0.5'' to 6'' snow accumulation
- C>45 Knot sustained winds, visibility of <0.1 and >6'' snow accumulation
- DNone of the above
26You are in the Alpha canyons and Dog relays "there is patchy snow/ice on the roads and they can't see 1 mile in front of them". What travel condition would this be?
- ATravel condition Normal
- BTravel condition Green
- CTravel condition Yellow
- DTravel condition Red
27Travel Condition RED represents what weather condition?
- A<35 Knot winds, visibility of >0.5 miles and no snow accumulation
- B35-45 Knot sustained winds, visibility of 0.1-0.5 miles and 0.5'' to 6'' snow accumulation
- C>45 Knot sustained winds, visibility of <0.1 miles and >6'' snow accumulation
- DNone of the above
28Wing commander permission is required for any lone member dispatching during travel condition what?
- AGreen
- BYellow
- CRed
- DAll of the above
29Commercial facility stops are authorized to combat driver fatigue, health and safety issues. When will SF teams notify their respective control center?
- APrior to Guardmount
- BUpon resuming travel
- CNotifications are not required
- DPrior to stopping and upon resuming travel
30Brief rest or safety stops at gas stations, convenience stores or eating establishments are allowed outside a _________ radius from the base.
- A10 mile
- B25 mile
- C15 mile
- D20 mile
31When armed and stopping at commercial facilities one team member will remain with the vehicle at all times to ________?
- AMonitor radio communications and safeguard team weapons
- BMonitor radio communications
- CSafeguard duty gear to include weapons along with RON gear
- DNot required if the members have a mobile radio turned on
32If SCCs are unable to perform their function, responsibility transfers to any surviving mobile element having communications capability with whom?
- AMSC
- BFSC
- CMCC
- DFlight Leadership
33Who must establish procedures for the wing command post (WCP) to determine the current status of missile security control (MSC)?
- AThe Pentagon
- BEach MAJCOM Command
- CEach Group/CC or designated representative in writing
- DEach Installation
34Upon declaration of a security situation by the MCC, who will immediately direct security response?
- AFSC
- BMSC
- CMCC
- DMSC and MCC
35Who can make a visual assessment of a site but is not allowed to conduct a complete investigation during multiple alarm situations?
- ATwo armed SF personnel
- BA single individual
- CRVA will be used to visually assess a site
- DTwo MEED equipped personnel
36Who can be diverted to assist in assessing alarms, but must be coordinated with the missile maintenance operations center (MMOC)?
- AMaintenance Teams with SET Guards traveling through the area. (if meeting security criteria)
- BMaintenance Teams traveling though the area
- CSET Guards traveling through the area
- DCapsule Teams traveling through the area to clearly identify the alarm status
37The concept for protection of nuclear weapons mandates what?
- AThat the security system stops an intruder AFTER unauthorized access to a weapon can be achieved
- BThat the security system stops an intruder BEFORE unauthorized access to a weapon can be achieved
- CThat the security system stops and intruder DURING unauthorized access to a weapon can be achieved
- DThat the security system stops an intruder BEFORE authorized access to a weapon can be achieved
38All of the following accomplish the concept for protection of nuclear weapons EXCEPT which one?
- APhysical security technologies deployed from the weapon outward
- Bimplementation of planned actions to disrupt adversary planning cycles
- Cimmediate response and action by dedicated and well-trained security forces
- Dperform delay/withdraw procedures
39What are the five Integrated Defense (ID) principles?
- ADamage, Destroy, Destruction
- BSafe, Secure, Reliable
- CDeter, Detect, Delay, Deny, Defeat
- DObservation, Cover and Concealment, Obstacle, Key Terrain, Avenues of approach
40Vegetation within the limited areas will not exceed how many inches?
- AEight
- BFour
- CSix
- DSeven
41Restricted area signs will be positioned on or outside the outer perimeter fence at not greater than ______________ intervals?
- A50 m
- B50 ft
- C100 m
- D100 ft
42A typical missile squadron has how many ARTs on duty 24hrs a day?
- Afive two person ARTs
- BFour two person ARTs
- CThree two person ARTs
- DOne two person ART
43After LF entry, SETs will inspect sites for security deficiencies and report deficiencies to who?
- AMCC
- BMSC
- CFSC
- DMMOC
44What security requirement needs to be in place when MCC has the inability to monitor LF security status or simultaneous Outer Zone (OZ) and Inner Zone (IZ) malfunctions?
- AResponse Force (15x5)
- B2 person ART
- C4 person CAT
- D2 person CAT
45An area where the Two-Person Concept must be enforced because it contains a nuclear weapon, nuclear weapon system, or certified critical component is a _______?
- ANo Lone Zone
- BSafe Area
- CSafe Haven
- DPAH
46Vehicles entering and exiting limited/exclusion areas shall be given at least a ________ inspection of readily accessible areas (e.g. driver and passenger compartments, cargo carrying area, engine compartment, and undercarriage)?
- AHands on
- Bvisual
- CSimple frisk
- DComplete
47A person authorized escorted entry to exclusion areas will present what item to the person controlling entry?
- Apicture identification
- BAFGC 246
- Cauthentication
- Dfinger print
48This person is responsible for ensuring personnel entering the exclusion area are members of a unauthorized two person concept team and have a valid reason to be in the exclusion area?
- ATeam Chief
- BFSC
- CSole Vouching Authority
- DMSC
49The ___________ is a Defense Intelligence Agency (DIA) -led intelligence community assessment of the capabilities and intentions of a variety of actors to gain unauthorized physical access to a U.S. nuclear weapon?
- ARandom Antiterrorism Measures
- BRoute Vulnerability Assessment
- CCOVERED WAGON
- DNuclear Security Threat Capability Assessment
50An unexpected event involving the release or potential release of nuclear material caused by adversary (insider or outsider) actions defines what?
- AMishap involving nuclear weapon
- BIncident involving nuclear weapon
- CExplosion involving nuclear weapon
- DDetonation involving nuclear weapons
51Lettering of warning signs, surrounding a limited area shall be legible from how many feet away?
- A25 ft
- B75 ft
- C50 ft
- D100 ft
52What type of padlocks can be used on manually operated gates?
- AType I
- BType III
- CType II
- DBoth B and C
53Opportunity to tamper with or modify a nuclear weapon, critical nuclear weapon system component or positive control/Nuclear Command and Control (NC2) material describe what nuclear surety term?
- AAccess
- BOpportunity
- CCustody
- DExclusion Area
54Responsibility for the control of, transfer and movement of, and access to nuclear weapons and components describes what nuclear surety term?
- ASecure
- BCustody
- CObservation
- DDetection
55The intentional separation of an unarmed weapon from its delivery system or transport carrier in response to an emergency describes what nuclear surety term?
- ALaunching
- BDeliberate
- CJettison
- DInadvertent
56Which certification describes a PRP screening process to help ensure active duty military individuals meet PRP standards before assignment, or while at training for PRP duties?
- AInterim Certification
- BRecertification
- CAdministrative Qualification
- DCertification
57Which position, where an individual is assigned nuclear duties, has access, but no technical knowledge?
- AControlled
- BCritical
- CFormal
- DTechnical
58____________shall be accomplished by or through a combination of sentries and patrols, towers, security fences, electronic sensors, barriers, lights, clear zones, and observation devices.
- Aintrusion detection system (IDS)
- BDetection
- CDefeat
- DRandom Anti-terrorism Measures (RAM)
59Nuclear weapons facilities will be equipped with _______ and __________ to incapacitate an adversary who has achieved unauthorized entry to such facility before unauthorized access is possible?
- Aexternal delay and denial systems
- BM240B and MK19
- CInternal and External SRT
- DInternal Delay and Denial systems
60Each installation that stores or routinely supports transit of nuclear weapons shall conduct recapture and recovery exercises how often? This exercise must include the participation of all military agencies and forces that would be expected to assist in the recapture and recovery of a weapon.
- AAnnually
- BMonthly
- CBi-Weekly
- DSemi-Annually
61During exigent circumstances related to the recapture and recovery of a nuclear weapon what suffices for FBI entry into a limited or exclusion area(s)?
- APresentation of credential
- BRestricted area badge
- CSign/Countersign
- DCode Words
62Actions taken to regain custody of a U.S. nuclear weapon within the boundaries of a storage or operational site, convoy, facility, or military installation where it has been seized by a hostile force or unauthorized person(s) defines what term?
- ARecovery
- BRecapture
- CCustody
- DRegain
63_________ are used to safeguard classified defense information and protect DOD equipment and/or material outside the confines of a military installation, but within the territory of the US
- ANational Defense Areas
- BRecapture events
- CDull Swords
- DRestricted Areas
64Nuclear weapons inspections and visits shall focus primarily on whether the security program can meet the requirements of __________?
- AIntegrated Defense Plan
- BNuclear Weapons Security Standards
- CWeapons System Safety Rules
- DSite Defense Plan
65Which cryptographic control groups does security forces belong to?
- AA side
- BB side
- CC side
- DD side
66Security Forces primary goal while posted within the missile complex is to ensure ___________ weapons are postured for deployment.
- ASafe
- BSecure
- CReliable
- DAll of the above
67All of the following are categories of deviations except which one?
- ATechnical
- BSuspended
- CTemporary
- DPermanent
68What teams will not be used to conduct visual assessments, nor will they respond to investigate alarms
- ACarrying classified material (other than MEED)
- BCarrying critical components, or classified material (other than MEED)
- CCarrying Code Components or classified material (other than MEED)
- DCarrying Code Components, Critical components, or classified material (other than MEED)
69Who establishes a program to selectively exercise SF elements and identifies, in writing, individuals authorized to conduct SRE's?
- AWing/CC
- BSFG/CC
- CMXG/CC
- DOG/CC
70Exercise termination requires how many authentications from the team that initiated the exercise?
- AOne
- BTwo
- CThree
- DNone are required
71What will posted SF not remove during exercises?
- AVest
- BHelmet
- CMagazines
- DCold Weather Gear
72During incident response procedures, who approves access through the ECP?
- AIC or designated representative
- BWing Commander
- CGroup Commander
- DFSC
73Select ECP locations for temporary restricted areas based upon what factors?
- AOperational requirements
- BLogical routes of travel
- CElevation
- DBoth A and B
74What is used to secure crime scenes and major accidents?
- ACordon
- BWhite Chalk
- CTent
- DRed Tape
75MSgt Smith whom is attempting to process through the Golf MAF gate held at gun point exchanges pleasantries with the FSC while using "Temple" in a normal sentence over the gate phone. The FSC clearly recognizes "Temple" as the current primary duress word and immediately up-channels the incident. This is an example of what type of duress?
- ASign, Counter Sign
- BSubliminal Duress
- CPassive Duress
- DActive Duress
76Amn Doe, assigned to Hotel 60 is dispatched to a 5G at H-3. While conducting an access road sweep the team is taken hostage. Hotel control prompts a status check, with Hotel 60 passing the call sign of November 60. This is an example of what type of duress?
- Apositive duress
- Bpassive duress
- Csign, counter sign
- Dactive duress
77Units will publish procedures for active and passive duress in what document?
- AInstallation Defense Plan (IDP)
- BDoD 5210.41M
- CSpecial Security Instructions (SSI's)
- DOperational Instructions (OI's)
78When conducting physical checks of unguarded LF's, what activations must be included?
- AInner and Outer zone IDS
- BIZ only
- COZ only
- DWALM, PGLV, IZ and OZ
79How frequently will you physically check secure unguarded LFs
- AOnce every 14 days
- BOnce every 15 days
- COnce every 12 days
- DOnce every 7 days
80Teams generating IZ alarms during an LF check are not required to authenticate upon IZ illumination if two team members have authenticated within how many minutes?
- A10
- B5
- C15
- D30
81What form is used at any installation, office, controlled or restricted area where visitors must be registered?
- AAF form 1190
- BDD form 1190
- CAF form 1109
- DAFGSC 1109
82A change in a Response Condition (RC) does not automatically change what?
- AInformation protection condition (INFOCON)
- BTravel Condition (TC)
- CForce Protection Condition (FPCON)
- DRoad Conditions (RC I or RC II)
83Normal conditions exist and LF(s) is/are accessible to SF best describes what
- ARoad Condition I
- BTravel Condition "Green"
- CRoad Condition II
- DTravel Condition "Yellow"
84Weather or road conditions have affected response, or the ability to respond to the LF(s) and the site(s) is/are not accessible best describes what?
- ATC II
- BRC I
- CRC II
- DTC I
85What filter is the M50 gas mask equipped with?
- AM4A3 filter
- BC2A1 filter
- CC1A2 filter
- DM61 filter
86What does the M50 mask use to protect against CBRN threats?
- AThe mask uses a single filter positioned on the face-piece
- BThe mask uses twin filters positioned on the face-Piece
- Cthe mask uses a seal designed to suction around the jaw line
- Dthe mask uses twin C2A1 filters positioned on the face piece
87The M50 Joint Service General Purpose Field Mask is designed to provide what?
- A24 hours continuous head-eye-respiratory Chemical/Biological, radiological particulates, and toxic industrial chemical protection
- BProtection from biological particulates and toxic industrial chemical protection
- Chead-eye respiratory chemical/biological and radiological protection
- Dprovide a high level of protection form all airborne threats
88Which agency identifies the need for a team to be dispatched to the missile field?
- AInitiating Agency
- BDispatch Agency
- CKCCC
- DKCCC and the dispatch agency jointly identify the need
89Who confirms the need for sending the team into the missile field
- Athe owning CO
- BKCCC
- CDispatch Agency
- DInitiating Agency
90Who is responsible for ensuring that all personnel assigned to PRP duties have their PRP status verified prior to being placed on the AFGSC Form 246/MADO?
- AInitiating Agency
- BSquadron CO
- CDispatch Agency
- DPRP Monitor
91Who assigns the mission category?
- ADispatch Agency
- BInitiating Agency
- CKCCC
- DInitiating Agency or Dispatch agency
92Specific individuals within each initiating agency must be appointed in writing using what form?
- AA memorandum with the appropriate header and signature block
- BAFGSC Form 577
- CAFGSC Form 527
- DAFGSC Form 257
93What is recommended but not required for trips dispatching to the missile field that will not require entry to LFs and MAFs?
- AAFGSC Form 277
- BAFGSC Form 247
- CAFGSC Form 245
- DAFGSC Form 246
94What is utilized to gauge the effectiveness of flight level exercises?
- ASpecific Security Instructions
- BOperations Instructions
- CTraining Exercise Evaluation outlines and Task Performance Checklists
- DRemote Visual Assessment
95An official military function conducted at the start of Security Forces shift, and is the first communication between SF members is known what?
- AWeapons Inspection
- BRoll Call
- COpen Ranks
- DGuardmount
96Security Forces shall not consume alcoholic beverages within _______________ hrs of duty?
- A6 hrs
- B8 hrs
- C12 hrs
- D4 hrs
97Which arming group consists of DoD military, civilian and contract personnel performing law enforcement, security or force protection duties or personnel serving in an AFSC that specifies qualification to bear firearms as a mandatory requirement?
- AGroup A
- BGroup C
- CGroup B
- DGroup D
98Temporary withdrawal to bear firearms for less than how many hours can be made by verbal notification?
- A48 hrs (2 Days)
- B72 hrs (3 days)
- C24 hrs (1 day)
- D12 hrs
99Written notification must be made from the commander or designated representative to the affected person for any instances of a weapons withdrawal lasting longer than _____________ hrs?
- A48
- B24
- C72
- D12
100What is conducted to ensure posted personnel are alert and knowledgeable of the assigned duties and responsibilities?
- APost Checks
- BNo-notice evaluations
- CFlight level exercises
- DOpen ranks
101Who assigns personnel to a duty position for posting?
- AGroup CC
- BSquadron CC
- CFlight Chief
- DSupervisors
102As a flight chief, proper management of your personnel is vital to the success of your mission. The following areas should be considered when managing your personnel:
- AOrient new personnel to the unit, mission and duty position
- BEnsure personnel maintain proper qualifications for their assigned posts
- CBe familiar with and qualified to perform subordinates duties
- DAll of the above
103As a leader focused on Integrated Defense, when deciding on priorities of work, what must be known to position weapons effectively?
- ACharacteristics, Capabilities, and limitations of the weapons
- BEffects of terrain
- CTactics used by the enemy
- DAll of the above
104What is not stored in a HHU after the A circuit is opened?
- ACombinations
- BLast known location
- CYour authenticator
- DYour pin
105Deadly force is authorized under 8 circumstances. One of these circumstances is to protect inherently dangerous property. Which of the below is NOT an example of inherently dangerous property?
- ASpecial Nuclear Material
- BWeapons/Ammunition
- CTaser
- DChemical Agents
106LF subsequent/follow-on teams do not need to do what, if the on-site team chief or assistant team chief (at the direction of the team chief), personally recognizes and vouches for the team chief requesting entry?
- AAuthenticate
- BPass a valid trip number
- CPass dispatch information
- DVouch for individuals in the vehicle
107What are unclassified and may be transmitted over unprotected communication lines?
- AGenerator numbers and page numbers
- BConvoy composition and time of departure
- CLF combinations un-encrypted
- DAuthenticators un-encrypted
108MEED-equipped individuals will prevent unauthorized personnel from monitoring what, during authentication and combination processing?
- AKeyboard actions
- BRadio Frequencies
- C360 degree security
- DThe authenticator/combination written in the notepad
109What does the acronym PCCs stand for?
- APost convoy checks
- BPre Combat Checks
- CPre Convoy Checks
- DPost Combat Checks
110What does the acronym PCI stand for?
- APre Combat Inspections
- BPost Combat Inspections
- CPre Convoy Inspections
- DPost Convoy Inspections
111The PCIs and PCCs process is used on all SF assigned duty ______.
- AGear
- BWeapons
- CVehicles
- DAll of the above
112Who is responsible for conducting changeover?
- AOn coming SF member(s)
- BOff going SF member(s)
- CBoth on coming and off going SF members
- Dnone of the above
113What can be activated on the hand held radios to indicate duress?
- AEncrypt button
- BPush to talk button
- CHome button
- DDuress button
114What is the purpose of challenging an individual?
- ADetermine hostile from non-hostile
- BPlace the suspect in a difficult situation
- Cmake a positive ID
- DBoth A and C
115Military members who violate any firearm safety standard are subject to administrative or disciplinary proceedings under article _________ of the UCMJ?
- AArticle 104
- BArticle 36
- CArticle 92
- DArticle 87
116What must be present prior to clearing a firearm?
- Atrained clearing barrel attendant
- Ban authorized clearing area
- Cclearing barrel
- Dall of the above
117When is a LACE report typically upchanneled?
- ADuring contact of enemy engagement
- Bbefore sf engagement
- CAfter SF engagement with enemy
- DOnce enemy contact has taken place
118What does SALUTE stand for?
- ASize, Activity, Liquid, Unit, Time, Enemy
- BSize, Activity, Location, Uniform, Time, Equipment
- CSize, Activity, Location, Unit,Time, Equipment
- DSize, Ammo, Location, Uniform, Time, Enemy
119Which factors affect range estimates?
- ANature of the object
- BNature of terrain
- CLight Conditions
- DAll of the above
120Which method of range determination is best used at night?
- AAppearance of object method
- B100 meter unit of measure method
- Cflash and sound method
- Dthe mil-relation method
121Operational keying material is classified as what?
- ATOP SECRET
- BSECRET/CRYPTO/NOFORN
- CCLASSIFIED
- DDoD UCNI
122How often should PCCs and PCIs be performed?
- ADaily
- BWeekly
- CMonthly
- DUpon leadership request
123Flight leaders ensure sectors of fire are adjacent with other sectors. This happens when more than one position can fire a weapon system at the same target.
- AFPL
- BPDF
- CInterlocking fields of fire
- Dsectors of fire
124_______________ are designated to ensure adequate distribution and interlocking of fire across the flight front?
- AWeather and road conditions
- BAvailability of personnel
- CSectors of fire
- DStructures used during implantation
125Individuals receiving authenticators must not make any record (written or electronic) of the authenticator nor permit its compromise at any time. Who will remind individuals receiving authenticators of these requirements?
- AKCCC
- BMSC
- CMOCC
- DTCC
126Individuals receiving what must not make any record (written or electronic) of it, nor permit its compromise at any time?
- AAuthenticators
- BKL-86A
- CCOMSEC FORM 16
- DKL-85A
127What gives SF the authority to apprehend military members?
- AUCMJ, Title 18
- BThe Manual for Courts-artial, Rules for Courts-Martial Rule 302 (B) (1), and UCMJ, Article 7(b)
- CU.S. Constitution, Defense Force Commander
- DU.S. Government and the U.S. Armed Forces
128Which act prevents Army and Air Force personnel from executing the laws of the states or the laws of the U.S. except when acting under the authority of the U.S. Constitution?
- APosse Comitatus Act
- BAssimilative Crimes Act
- CLOAC
- DLautenberg Act
129A MEED can hold how many field keys?
- AThree
- BTwo
- COne
- DFour
130What maintenance is Security Forces authorized to conduct on a MEED unit?
- AChanging the batteries
- Badjusting bent pins
- Ccleaning the connector and battery compartment
- DAll of the above
131One field key can encrypt or decrypt how many messages?
- A1000 Messages
- B2000 Messages
- C500 Messages
- D800 Messages
132What type of maintenance of MEED devices is prohibited?
- AInternal maintenance
- BAll maintenance is authorized (KCCC must be notified for internal maintenance)
- Cwiping the screen (Causes abrasion scuffs)
- DExterior maintenance
133Battery life for the PVS-14 is typically how many hours?
- A20 hours
- B85 hours
- C70 hours
- D110 hours
134What is accomplished when an individual believes the device in their possession may be compromised by overt or covert means, or when ordered by competent authority?
- ARoutine Zeroization
- BZeroization
- CEmergency Zeroization
- DTurn the MEED off
135When does the routine zeroization of a field key in the HHU occur?
- AWhen the team member issued that key returns the HHU to KCCC
- BAnytime the individual believes the device in their possession may be compromised
- CWhen the team member returns to the MAF after LF checks
- DWhen told to do so by competent authority because the MEED may be compromised by overt or covert means
136To be considered for this particular specialty, you must have graduated Close Precision Engagement Course or M107, .50 cal rifle course
- ASharp-shooters
- BMarksmen
- CExpert
- DSniper
137Upon graduating Close Precision Engagement Course, Sharp-shooters will always be a what?
- A4-man fire team
- B2-man team
- CTRF team
- D.50 cal certified
138What does the acronym ADM stand for?
- AAeronautical Decision Making
- BArchitectural Development Method
- CAdvanced Development Model
- DAdvanced Designated Marksman
139What is the LF security guarding requirements for an open launcher at a site with a RS present?
- A15/5 RF + 2 Person SET
- B15/5 RF + 1 Person SET
- C15/5 RF + 2 Person SRT
- D15/5 RF + 2 Person ESET
140One MFT must be positioned where during all penetrated sites and open launchers at a site with a RS present?
- AOne MFT must be positioned on or adjacent to the access road
- BAt the closest main intersection
- COn the right side of the road in such a manner as to slow down oncoming traffic
- Dwithin weapons range to the 3 o'clock of the LF
141What is the LF guarding requirements for a penetrated site with a RS present?
- ATwo person armed SET with external access road team
- B15/5 RF + 2 SET
- C2 Person CAT
- D4 Person CAT
142What is the LF guarding requirements for B-plug maintenance?
- A15/5 RF + 2 Person SET
- B15/5 RF
- C2 Person SET + External Team
- DExternal 3-man only
143How will SF personnel patrol the topside of the LF for B-plug maintenance?
- ATwo SET guards must remain in vehicle at all times
- BBoth SF members remain outside of vehicle
- COne SF will patrol the LF surface and one may be in vehicle
- DBoth SF members patrol in vehicle constantly
144What are the LF guarding requirements for RS present (insecure B-plug) without a Maintenance team on site?
- A15/5 RF
- B15/5 RF + 2-Person SET
- C2-Person SET
- D15/5 RF + 4-Person CAT
145The Metal-frisk Trans frisker functions by creating an electromagnetic field around the probe (wand) with a radius of approximately how many inches?
- A18 inches
- B16 inches
- C15 inches
- D17 inches
146What type of maintenance is an SF member authorized to perform on a MEED device?
- ACleaning and adjusting the connector to include the battery compartment contacts
- BAdjusting bent pins
- CAdjusting the connector to include the battery compartment contacts
- DCleaning and adjusting the connector to include the battery compartment contacts and adjusting bent pins
147The KL-86 and KL-85 are given what classification when unkeyed
- ADoD UCNI
- BUNCLASSIFIED
- CSECRET
- DCONFIDENTIAL
148The KL-86 and KL-85 are handled as and controlled as what?
- ACryptographic items
- BConfidential items
- CClassified items
- DSecret items
149The KL-86 and KL-85 perform what functions
- ASensitive cryptographic functions
- BSensitive functions
- COnline cypher functions
- DClassified functions
150When transferring HHUs, complete what sections of the AFGSC FORM 247?
- AOne and Two
- BOne and Three
- CTwo and Three
- DOnly section Three
151Use what form to issue, transfer, and receipt for a MEED unit from the location the MEED unit is assigned?
- AAFGSC FORM 245
- BAFGSC FORM 246
- CAFGSC FORM 247
- DAFGSC FORM 577
152What must a team arriving at the MAF gate pass the FSC?
- ATheir trip number, team chief's name and number of personnel
- BTeam chief's name and rank, and number of personnel
- CTheir trip number, team chief's name and rank, and status
- DTheir trip number, team chief's name and rank, and number of personnel
153What form(s) must your information be verified against prior to the FSC allowing entry to the MAF?
- AAFGSC FORM 245/MADO/EAL
- BAFGSC FORM 246/MADO/EAL
- CAFGSC FORM 246/EAL
- DAFGSC FORM 245/MADO
154What are the standard methods of passing dispatch information for MAF entry?
- AVehicle radios only
- BGate phone
- CVehicle radios or the gate phone
- DVehicle radios, Cell phone or the gate phone
155Visual inspections of personnel requiring escorted entry to the SCC, elevator shaft way, LCEB and/or LCC will consist of what?
- ARemoving all items from pockets and a visual inspection of the individual and all hand-carried items
- BA visual inspection of the individual and all hand-carried items
- CA physical search of personnel requesting entry and a visual inspection of all hand-carried items
- DRemoving all items from pockets and a visual inspection of the individual
156Emergency vehicles transporting seriously injured personnel will not be what?
- ADelayed for inspections
- BAuthorized on the MAF
- CMonitored closely while in secured areas
- DNone of the above
157Who is the approval authority for teams entering LFs
- AFlight Leadership
- BFSC
- CMCC
- DMSC
158Who will grant permission for all trips to depart the site?
- AMSC and MCC
- BFSC and MSC
- CFSC and Flight Leadership
- DFSC and MCC
159What must all teams requesting entry into an LF pass the FSC prior to entry?
- ATheir trip number, team chief's name and rank, number of personnel and the LF number
- BTheir trip number, rank, number of personnel and LF number
- CTheir trip number, Team Chiefs name and rank, number of personnel and status
- DThey are required two good authentications prior to entry
160Who is the exception and may be allowed on to a site with a security situation in progress?
- ATransient capsule crews
- BTeam Chief
- CMaintenance teams
- DResponding security teams
161Subsequent follow-on teams may not need to do what if the on-site team chief, or assistant team chief personally recognizes and vouches for the team chief requesting entry?
- Apass combinations
- Bcrew composition
- CAuthenticate
- DPersonal recognition is not authorized
162What must be passed to penetrate the LF?
- A"A" and "B" combinations
- B"A" combinations
- C"B" combinations
- Dproper authentications
163The "A" circuit combination known only to the SET, holds what classification?
- ADoD UCNI
- BUCNI
- CSECRET
- DCLASSIFIED
164What circuit combination must be changed by maintenance personnel trained and qualified to accomplish the task?
- A"A" side
- B"B" side
- CTeam chief and Set guard
- D"A" or "B" side may open the pit vault door
165What combinations must be changed at least annually or immediately when compromised?
- Amaintenance combinations
- B"B" Circuit combinations
- Clocally selected unclassified combinations
- D"A" Circuit Combinations
166Security Forces may perform critical emergency maintenance tasks as directed by MMOC. What emergency maintenance tasks are SF personnel authorized to perform and if not accomplished in minimum time would result in damage to equipment?
- AEnvironmental control system resets
- BPrimary power system resets
- CA only
- DA and B
167When SF are performing critical emergency maintenance tasks, who must specifically authorize and control those tasks?
- AMSC and MCC
- BMMOC
- CMCC
- DMMOC, MSC, FSC and Flight Leadership
168At a minimum, all information that would reveal a movement is planned or scheduled shall be classified as what?
- ACONFIDENTIAL
- BFOUO
- CSECRET
- DDoD UCNI
169When a nuclear weapon movement destination, route, and timeline are combined into a single document or briefing, the document or briefing is classified what, until the movement is complete?
- ACONFIDENTIAL/FRD
- BFOUO
- CSECRET
- DDoD UCNI
170Upon completion of the movement, a document or briefing that contains a nuclear weapon movement, destination, route, and timeline reverts to what classification?
- ACONFIDENTIAL/FRD
- BFOUO
- CSECRET
- DDoD UCNI
171Information concerning times, routes and destinations shall be handled on _________ and controlled as appropriate.
- AA strict need to know basis
- BA strict confidential basis
- CA commander level
- DA strict secret or higher level
172Dissemination, display, and access to information concerning impending or actual movements shall be limited to whom?
- AThe minimum essential personnel to support the mission
- BGroup commanders or their designated representatives
- CThe public Affairs committee
- D341 MW leadership
173During all types of movement, progress reports shall be made to a control center tasked with plotting the progress of the movement and initiating a response in case of alarm or loss of communication at least every how many minutes?
- A10
- B15
- C20
- D30
174Prior to entering the LF, who pre-announces the convoy composition to the FSC or MCC
- AThe Convoy CC
- BThe Convoy FC
- CCC's Driver
- DThe Highest ranking in the convoy movement
175If the on-site team chief cannot make positive personal recognition, the convoy CC and another MEED equipped member must contact who, and authenticate after the PT has entered the LF?
- AFSC
- BMSC
- CMCC
- DMOC
176If the on-site team chief cannot make positive personal recognition, the convoy CC and another MEED equipped member must contact the FSC and authenticate when?
- AAfter the PT has entered the LF
- BBefore the PT has entered the LF
- CAfter the Convoy CC has entered the LF
- DBefore the Convoy CC has entered the LF
177Prior to entering the WSA, the Convoy CC pre-announces the convoy composition to whom?
- AThe SSCC and EC
- BThe parent FSC
- CMSC
- DMMOC
178Who visually observes the convoy's approach and continues to keep the vehicles under visual observation until entry procedures are completed?
- AThe EC, or designated individual
- BPanther Lead
- CCSC via RTES
- DCFC
179Prior to entering the MAF, who pre-announces the convoy composition to the FSC or MCC?
- AThe Convoy CC
- BThe Convoy FC
- CCC's Driver
- DThe highest ranking in the convoy movement
180During MAF entry procedures, who visually observes the convoy's approach and continues to keep the vehicles under visual observation until entry procedures are completed?
- AFSC
- BMCC
- CMSC
- DCFC
181The RF shall arrive before a hostile force can penetrate the secure portions of the LF, but in not more than how many minutes?
- A45
- B30
- C60
- D90
182The BF shall be dispatched concurrently with the RF and shall arrive at the threatened LF in not more than how many minutes?
- A45
- B30
- C60
- D90
183During a Recapture Operation, those actions, proportional to the threat, that disrupt the adversary and delay them from meaningful work in order to prevent theft, damage, sabotage, destruction, or detonation of a nuclear weapon best describes what?
- ADenial/Final Denial Fire
- BContainment
- CAssess
- DImmediate Sufficient Duress
184The ability of the security forces to place effective fire on the entrances to facilities or platforms containing nuclear weapons best describes what?
- AImmediate sufficient duress
- BDenial
- CContainment
- DFinal Denial
185What is the immediate determination of the level of access an enemy force has achieved or their physical proximity in relation to areas containing nuclear resources?
- AAssess
- BControl
- CImmediate Sufficient Duress
- DFinal Denial
186The actions taken by the security force to neutralize hostile persons in the area surrounding the nuclear weapon defines what?
- AControl
- BAssault
- CAssess
- DDenial
187To physically regain possession of resources and locations containing nuclear weapons and ensure a minimum of two personnel are positioned to control entry to the affected area (as determined by the on-scene commander) during Recapture or Recovery Operations defines what?
- AControl
- BAssess
- CFinal Denial
- DRestore Government Control
188A payload transporter carrying a nuclear weapon with a malfunction, breakdown, or other non-hostile condition(s) off base and deemed long-term may require a what?
- ADull Sword
- BNational Defense Area (NDA)
- CCovered Wagon
- DSafe Haven
189Who approves establishment of the National Defense Area (NDA)?
- AConvoy Commander
- BSquadron level or higher commander
- CGroup level or higher commander
- DWing level or higher commander
190Who will establish the initial area and direct actions to expedite NDA approval?
- AConvoy Flight Chief
- BConvoy CC
- CA MEED equipped convoy member
- DTwo MEED equipped convoy members
Information
- Description
- Quiz on Flight Chief QC 2016, created by donale paine on 07/02/2017.
- Author
- donale paine
- Language
- English
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- History
- Created on 7 Feb 2017 · updated on 6 Apr 2018
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