Jesse Clark
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12 moth study guide continued

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Jesse Clark
Created by Jesse Clark about 7 years ago
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12 month (2)

Question 1 of 102

1

"The chemical decomposition of a compound into one or more other substances by heat alone" is called ________________.

Select one of the following:

  • Pyrolysis

  • Sublimation

  • Combustibility

  • Fire

Explanation

Question 2 of 102

1

A flammable liquid has which of the following characteristics?

Select one of the following:

  • A flashpoint below 100 degrees Fahrenheit

  • A flashpoint above 100 degrees Fahrenheit

  • A flashpoint below 100 degrees Celsius

  • A flashpoint above 100 degrees Celsius

Explanation

Question 3 of 102

1

A liquid with a specific gravity of 1.4 ___________________

Select one of the following:

  • Is heavier than water and will sink.

  • Is lighter than water and will float.

  • Will mix readily with water.

  • It is impossible to predict how it will mix with water.

Explanation

Question 4 of 102

1

All matter that exist in a gaseous state will burn.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 5 of 102

1

All of the following are examples of mechanical heat sources except _____________.

Select one of the following:

  • Electromagnetic induction

  • Compression

  • Sparks caused by friction

  • Friction

Explanation

Question 6 of 102

1

All of the following are measurements of heat energy except __________.

Select one of the following:

  • Fahrenheit

  • British Thermal Units

  • Calories

  • Joules

Explanation

Question 7 of 102

1

All of the following are warning signs of backdraft except ______________.

Select one of the following:

  • Flames emerging from doors and windows

  • Lack of visible flames

  • Window glass appears as if it is being pulled in

  • Smoke puffing from the building

Explanation

Question 8 of 102

1

All of the following are warning signs of flashover except _______________.

Select one of the following:

  • Smoke churning in window glass

  • Flames licking overhead

  • Rapid buildup of heat in a room

  • Appearance of smoke or gases coming off all contents

Explanation

Question 9 of 102

1

An ignitable liquid must be atomized in order to burn.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 10 of 102

1

Conditions that will cause a static electricity discharge include the following except ___________.

Select one of the following:

  • Contact and separation between similar solids

  • Flowing powders

  • Contact and separation between dissimilar solids

  • Flowing liquids and gasses

Explanation

Question 11 of 102

1

Factors that affect he rate in which a fire will grow include all of the following except ___________.

Select one of the following:

  • The ambient temperature outside the fire area

  • The amount of oxygen

  • The amount of fuel

  • The size of the space involved in fire

Explanation

Question 12 of 102

1

Firefighters need to have a working knowledge of combustion dynamics, chemistry, physics, and basic engineering principles in order to attack and control fire.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 13 of 102

1

Flashover can be defined as occurring when a fire changes from being a fuel-controlled fire to a ventilation-controlled fire.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 14 of 102

1

In most cases, a fuel must be in a ______________ state to burn.

Select one of the following:

  • Gaseous

  • Solid

  • Liquid

  • Consumable

Explanation

Question 15 of 102

1

Match the item with the term below: Fire is affected by the amount of oxygen, fuel, space and insulation of ceilings and walls.

Select one of the following:

  • Growth

  • Ignition

  • Fully developed

  • Decay

Explanation

Question 16 of 102

1

Match the item with the term below: Fire is virtually free burning and has plenty of oxygen.

Select one of the following:

  • Fully developed

  • Ignition

  • Growth

  • Decay

Explanation

Question 17 of 102

1

Match the item with the term below: Fuel package has been mostly consumed and heat release rate drops.

Select one of the following:

  • Decay

  • Ignition

  • Growth

  • Fully developed

Explanation

Question 18 of 102

1

Match the item with the term below: Heat generated from the ignition now begins to cause heart transfer to surrounding combustibles.

Select one of the following:

  • Growth

  • Ignition

  • Fully developed

  • Decay

Explanation

Question 19 of 102

1

Match the item with the term below: In most cases, the fire is small and limited.

Select one of the following:

  • Ignition

  • Growth

  • Fully developed

  • Decay

Explanation

Question 20 of 102

1

Match the item with the term below: Small pockets of fire may still exist as the fuel slowly moves the point of total consumption.

Select one of the following:

  • Decay

  • Ignition

  • Growth

  • Fully developed

Explanation

Question 21 of 102

1

Matter can change from ________________ by heating or cooling, by applying pressure, or by releasing pressure.

Select one of the following:

  • one state to another

  • inorganic to organic

  • active to inactive

  • light to dark

Explanation

Question 22 of 102

1

Mechanical heat sources include friction and compression.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 23 of 102

1

Oil-soaked rags, discarded and reaching self-ignition temperature are examples of a(n)__________.

Select one of the following:

  • Exothermic reaction

  • Electrical heat source

  • Nuclear heat source

  • Endothermic reaction

Explanation

Question 24 of 102

1

One of the dangers associated with rollover is that fire can travel overhead and behind the firefighters and block their egress from the structure.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 25 of 102

1

Regular firefighting gear provides a small degree of protection to the firefighter from radiation.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 26 of 102

1

Specific gravity and vapor density measure the same basic principle and can be used interchangeably.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 27 of 102

1

The amount of heat generated by electrical means depends on several variables including_____________.

Select one of the following:

  • All of these

  • A - The amount of electricity flowing through the conductor

  • B - The amount of resistance in the conductor

  • C - The density of the conductor

  • Both A and C

Explanation

Question 28 of 102

1

The amount of heat that a substance absorbs as the temperature of the substance increases is called___________.

Select one of the following:

  • Specific heat

  • Latent heat

  • Specific gravity

  • Spontaneous heating

Explanation

Question 29 of 102

1

The danger of backdraft increases dramatically as oxygen levels drop below_________.

Select one of the following:

  • 16%

  • 21%

  • 19%

  • 17%

Explanation

Question 30 of 102

1

The latent heat of vaporization is___________________.

Select one of the following:

  • The amount of heat that is absorbed by a liquid that passes to a gaseous form.

  • The amount of heat that a substance absorbs as the temperature increases.

  • The amount of thermal energy required to raise one unit mass of substance by one degree.

  • Not important to most fire extinguishment.

Explanation

Question 31 of 102

1

The process of changing a solid directly to a gas is called__________.

Select one of the following:

  • Sublimation

  • Oxidation

  • Evaporation

  • Pyrolysis

Explanation

Question 32 of 102

1

There are two types of explosions: conflagration and detonation.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 33 of 102

1

Two forms of nuclear energy are:

Select one of the following:

  • Fission and fusion

  • Alpha and Beta

  • Solar and radiant

  • Natural and man-made

Explanation

Question 34 of 102

1

Vapor density is the comparison of the density of a given vapor or gas to the density of__________.

Select one of the following:

  • Air

  • Oxygen

  • Nitrogen

  • Hydrogen

Explanation

Question 35 of 102

1

Which choice is not part of the fire tetrahedron?

Select one of the following:

  • Extinguishing agent

  • Fuel

  • Chemical reaction

  • Oxygen

Explanation

Question 36 of 102

1

Which of the following is not one of the four stages of fire development?

Select one of the following:

  • Rollover

  • Growth

  • Decay

  • Incipient

Explanation

Question 37 of 102

1

Which of the following is true regarding lower explosive limits (LEL)?

Select one of the following:

  • A fuel vapor will not ignite at levels below the LEL.

  • A fuel vapor below the LEL will ignite if exposed to an ignition source.

  • A fuel vapor must be at the LEL in order to ignite.

  • A fuel vapor above the LEL will always ignite if exposed to an ignition source.

Explanation

Question 38 of 102

1

Which of the following solids would be the easiest to ignite?

Select one of the following:

  • Wood saw dust

  • Wood shavings

  • A block of wood

  • Timber

Explanation

Question 39 of 102

1

Which statement about density is true?

Select one of the following:

  • As density increases, the amount of energy needed for ignition increases.

  • As density increases, the amount of energy needed for ignition decreases.

  • As density decreases, the flammability of the substance also decreases.

  • Density of an object has little effect on its ignition and flammable properties.

Explanation

Question 40 of 102

1

According to Boise Fire SOP 206.10, High Rise Operations (Initial Response) which engine will have the responsibility of establishing water supply?

Select one of the following:

  • Third

  • First

  • Second

  • Fourth

Explanation

Question 41 of 102

1

According to Boise SOP 206.10, High Rise Operations (Initial Response) which of the following equipment is NOT listed as part of the minimum to be brought in by the first arriving engine?

Select one of the following:

  • P-can

  • (2) 50' 2 1/2" hoselines with nozzle

  • (2) SCBA bottles

  • Standpipe Kit

Explanation

Question 42 of 102

1

According to Boise SOP 206.12 High Rise Operations (Elevator Use), once determined safe, what is the highest floor the elevator may be used to transport personnel and equipment prior to fire control?

Select one of the following:

  • The staging floor

  • The floor below the fire

  • The floor above the fire

  • There are no limits on how high the elevator may be used

Explanation

Question 43 of 102

1

According to Boise SOP 206.12, High Rise Operations (Elevator Use), never overload an elevator as
a general rule _____ firefighters plus equipment shall constitute a full load.

Select one of the following:

  • 6

  • 2

  • 4

  • 8

Explanation

Question 44 of 102

1

According to SOP 206.10, what group of resources constitutes the "Fire Attack Group" during a high rise operation?

Select one of the following:

  • First and second-in engines and first-in truck

  • First-in engine and Battalion Chief

  • First and second-in engines

  • First two engines, first two trucks and Battalion Chief

Explanation

Question 45 of 102

1

According to training guide "High Rise", the basic fire attack approach is a __________ ft stretch from ______________.

Select one of the following:

  • 150', the floor below

  • 150', two floors below

  • 250', the floor below

  • 250', two floors below

Explanation

Question 46 of 102

1

According to training guide, "High Rise", who would be a good choice for "Standpipe control"?

Select one of the following:

  • A driver/operator from the fire attack group

  • A firefighter from the fire attack group

  • A driver/operator from the third-in engine (company assigned to lobby)

  • A company officer from the fire attack group

Explanation

Question 47 of 102

1

Each BFD company carries a 2 1/2" smooth bore nozzle with an 1 1/8" solid stream tip for high rise operations. Approximately how many gpm does this tip provide when supplied at 50psi?

Select one of the following:

  • 250

  • 180

  • 325

  • 400

Explanation

Question 48 of 102

1

What piece of equipment is required when stacking a charged 2 1/2" line?

Select one of the following:

  • A 1 1/2" to 2 1/2" increaser

  • A 2" reducer

  • A 1 1/2" gated wye

  • A 50 psi fog nozzle

Explanation

Question 49 of 102

1

What size of hose should be used initially in fighting a high rise fire?

Select one of the following:

  • 2 1/2"

  • 1"

  • 1 3/4"

  • 3"

Explanation

Question 50 of 102

1

When preparing to make entry on the fire floor, the Nozzleman should open his nozzle until _____________________.

Select one of the following:

  • Standpipe control communicates that the pressure is set

  • He feel it has "burped" enough air out of the line

  • There has been sufficient time for any debris from the standpipe to flow out through the nozzle

  • He has flooded the stairwell below him

Explanation

Question 51 of 102

1

Which of the following is NOT a type of pressure regulating device?

Select one of the following:

  • Pressure relieving

  • Pressure restricting

  • Pressure reducing

  • Pressure controlling

Explanation

Question 52 of 102

1

According to the NFPA Standard on Life Safety Rope and Equipment for Emergency Services, which of
the following would cause a life safety rope to be removed from service?

Select one of the following:

  • All of these

  • Exposure to chemicals or abrasion

  • Used in an actual life safety operation

  • Overloaded or shocked

Explanation

Question 53 of 102

1

Prior to the adoption of the NFPA Standard on Life Safety Rope and Equipment for Emergency Services, which was a common practice regarding rope use in the fire service?

Select one of the following:

  • All of these

  • Using rope interchangeably for life safety purposes and utility purposes.

  • Storing rope on the exterior of a fire apparatus with no protection from the elements.

  • Using rope without regard to usage history or life span limits.

Explanation

Question 54 of 102

1

What is the safety factor of a life safety rope.

Select one of the following:

  • 15:1

  • 10:1

  • 5:1

  • 20:1

Explanation

Question 55 of 102

1

Which is the NFPA Standard on Life Safety Rope and Equipment for Emergency Services?

Select one of the following:

  • NFPA 1983

  • NFPA 1980

  • NFPA 1975

  • NFPA 1982

Explanation

Question 56 of 102

1

After a life safety rope has been “downgraded,” it is most usually used as a ________.

Select one of the following:

  • Utility rope

  • Dynamic kernmantle rope

  • Running end

  • Round turn knot

Explanation

Question 57 of 102

1

All equipment hoisted by utility ropes should have _____________________.

Select one of the following:

  • A tag line attached

  • Many knots of assorted variety

  • A carabiner attached

  • Padding to protect the equipment

Explanation

Question 58 of 102

1

If the manufacturer’s instructions cannot be found, synthetic rope may be washed using cold water
and a mild detergent in a diluted solution.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 59 of 102

1

Match the item with the correct choice below: Becket bend

Select one of the following:

  • Ties the ends of two ropes

  • Used with an open end to slide the hitch over

  • Tied after the primary knot

  • Used to tie to an object without an open end

Explanation

Question 60 of 102

1

Match the item with the correct choice below: Bight

Select one of the following:

  • The rope brought back upon itself to lay side-by-side

  • A twist in the rope with the standing part continuing in the same direction

  • A loop where the stand part continues in the direction it came from

Explanation

Question 61 of 102

1

Match the item with the correct
choice below: Clove hitch—closed

Select one of the following:

  • Used to tie to an object without an open end

  • Used with an open end to slide the hitch over

  • Tied after the primary knot

  • Ties the ends of two ropes together

Explanation

Question 62 of 102

1

Match the item with the correct
choice below: Clove hitch—open

Select one of the following:

  • Used with an open end to slide the hitch over

  • Tied after the primary knot

  • Used to tie to an object without an open end

  • Ties the ends of two ropes

Explanation

Question 63 of 102

1

Match the item with the correct choice below: Loop

Select one of the following:

  • A twist in the rope with the standing part continuing in the same direction

  • The rope brought back upon itself to lay side-by-side

  • A loop where the standing part continues in the direction it came from

Explanation

Question 64 of 102

1

Match the item with the correct choice below: Overhand (safety knot)

Select one of the following:

  • Tied after the primary knot

  • Used with an open end to slide the hitch over

  • Used to tie to an object without an open end

  • Ties the ends of two ropes

Explanation

Question 65 of 102

1

Match the item with the correct choice below: Round turn

Select one of the following:

  • A loop where the standing part continues in the direction it came from

  • A twist in the rope with the standing part continuing in the same direction

  • The rope brought back upon itself to lay side-by-side

Explanation

Question 66 of 102

1

Match the item with the correct choice below: Running end

Select one of the following:

  • The rest of the rope used for hoisting, pulling, etc.

  • The part of the rope used to tie the knot itself

  • The part of the rope above or below the knot

Explanation

Question 67 of 102

1

Match the item with the correct choice below: Standing end

Select one of the following:

  • The part of the rope above or below the knot

  • The rest of the rope used for hoisting, pulling, etc.

  • The part of the rope used to tie the knot itself

Explanation

Question 68 of 102

1

Match the item with the correct choice below: Working end

Select one of the following:

  • The part of the rope used to tie the knot itself

  • The rest of the rope used for hoisting, pulling, etc.

  • The part of the rope above or below the knot

Explanation

Question 69 of 102

1

Natural fiber ropes are especially resistant to abrasion.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 70 of 102

1

Natural fiber ropes need to be bigger in order to be stronger.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 71 of 102

1

Polyester rope has a relatively low stretch under a load, but does not hold up well if a shock load is applied.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 72 of 102

1

Rope made from Manila, sisal, or cotton is termed ____________________________.

Select one of the following:

  • Natural fiber rope

  • Synthetic fiber rope

  • Utility grade rope

  • Nominative strength rope

Explanation

Question 73 of 102

1

Ropes should be inspected after every use. It is recommended that ropes have a usage and inspection
card.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 74 of 102

1

Static (low stretch) rope is used in most fire department applications.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 75 of 102

1

Synthetic material ropes are stronger than natural fiber ropes because each continuous fiber is the same length.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 76 of 102

1

Which of the following is not a recommended method for drying a rope?

Select one of the following:

  • Put it in a dryer on "gentle" cycle

  • Lay it flat over a ladder

  • Hang it from the hose tower

  • Suspend it across bar joists

Explanation

Question 77 of 102

1

Channel announcement will be preempted by radio traffic?

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 78 of 102

1

Dispatch can tell that it’s your radio that is transmitting anytime you key the mic.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 79 of 102

1

Does channel announcement work in all zones and on all channels?

Select one of the following:

  • No, only Zones A, B, and C

  • Yes

  • No, only Zone C

Explanation

Question 80 of 102

1

For the clearest communication the microphone should be held 1 to 2 inches from your mouth (no SCBA mask).

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 81 of 102

1

How can I reset my radio after an accidental activation of the EMER button?

Select one of the following:

  • Both of these are correct

  • Press the emer button a 2nd time

  • Turn the radio off and then back on

  • Neither of these are correct

Explanation

Question 82 of 102

1

How long do you need to press the EMER button to send an emer alert to Dispatch?

Select one of the following:

  • 2 seconds

  • 1 second

  • 4 seconds

  • 5 seconds

Explanation

Question 83 of 102

1

How long does will your radio transmit when EMER is activated?

Select one of the following:

  • Indefinitely

  • 5 seconds

  • 10 seconds

  • 15 seconds

Explanation

Question 84 of 102

1

How many channels are there in each zone?

Select one of the following:

  • Up to 16

  • Up to 10

  • Up to 12

  • Up to 14

Explanation

Question 85 of 102

1

I quickly press the select button on the face of the radio and the radio does not respond. Why not?

Select one of the following:

  • Because buttons must be held for two seconds to activate

  • The radio is malfunctioning

  • The radio is set to the wrong zone

Explanation

Question 86 of 102

1

In Zone C all of the channels are on the 700MHz trunked system except:

Select one of the following:

  • FIRE-16

  • 1A-FIRE-9

  • 1A-ARFF-14

  • 1A-M/A-15

Explanation

Question 87 of 102

1

It doesn’t matter which portable radio I use that is assigned to my apparatus.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 88 of 102

1

Scenario: A firefighter loses consciousness, falls down, and inadvertently keys his mic, essentially tying up the talk group he was operating on. How long will that firefighter’s radio tie up the channel with its open mic?

Select one of the following:

  • 60 seconds

  • 10 seconds

  • 30 seconds

  • 45 seconds

Explanation

Question 89 of 102

1

The term simplex means that a radio transmission goes from one radio to another.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 90 of 102

1

What clues tell you that you are on a channel that is on the 700MHz trunked system?

Select one of the following:

  • All of these

  • Channel name is preceded by "1A"

  • Signal strength indicator is present

  • No simplex icon

  • None of these

Explanation

Question 91 of 102

1

What does 1A stand for?

Select one of the following:

  • The Ada County 700MHz trunked system

  • The Ada County 700Mhz simplex system

  • The Ada County 700Mhz VHF analog system

Explanation

Question 92 of 102

1

What does Dispatch need to hear from you if you have had an accidental activation of the EMER button?

Select one of the following:

  • unit id, accidental emer activation, and "Code-4"

  • unit id, accidental emer activation

  • accidental emer activation, and "Code-4"

  • unit id and "Code-4"

Explanation

Question 93 of 102

1

What does the home button do?

Select one of the following:

  • Returns the radio to Zone C, 1A-Dispatch

  • Return the radio to Zone A, 1A-Dispatch

  • Returns the radio to Zone C, 1C-Dispatch

  • Returns the radio to Zone A, 1A­-Dispatch

Explanation

Question 94 of 102

1

What zone do we primarily operate in on a day to day basis?

Select one of the following:

  • Zone C

  • Zone A

  • Zone D

  • Zone G

Explanation

Question 95 of 102

1

What zone does Boise Police primarily operate in on a day to day basis?

Select one of the following:

  • Zone A

  • Zone C

  • Zone D

  • Zone G

Explanation

Question 96 of 102

1

When the APX7000 is turned off and then back on, what zone and channel will it default to?

Select one of the following:

  • The last zone selected prior to powering off and whatever the channel selector is set to when powered on

  • Zone C, 1A Dispatch

  • Zone A, 1A Dispatch

  • The last zone and channel selected prior to powering off

Explanation

Question 97 of 102

1

When wearing an SCBA mask, the clearest communication will be by placing the microphone 1 to 2 inches in front of the SCBA regulator.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 98 of 102

1

Which of the following is NOT a feature available on a 700MHz trunked channel?

Select one of the following:

  • Radio to radio communications

  • Talk permit tone

  • "Emer" activation

  • Unique radio identifier is transmitted with radio transmission

Explanation

Question 99 of 102

1

Which of the following will the keypad lock NOT disable?

Select one of the following:

  • Emer button

  • Keypad buttons

  • Channel selector knob

  • Home button

Explanation

Question 100 of 102

1

Which term correctly refers to the radio mounted in your apparatus?

Select one of the following:

  • Mobile

  • Portable

  • Base

Explanation

Question 101 of 102

1

Will the other memebers of my crew receive the radio transmission from my radio after I have pressed the EMER button?

Select one of the following:

  • No, it transmits on a separate channel

  • Yes

Explanation

Question 102 of 102

1

Your radio should always be set to (high/low) power.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

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