Toria Chukwuemeka
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Toria Chukwuemeka
Created by Toria Chukwuemeka almost 7 years ago
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Bio 1240

Question 1 of 156

1

_____ are alternative forms of a gene that govern the same feature, such as eye color

Select one of the following:

  • alleles

  • loci

  • genes

  • coupled traits

Explanation

Question 2 of 156

1

pea plants were ell chosen for use in Mendel's breeding experiment for all of the following reasons except

Select one of the following:

  • peas show easily observed variations in a number of characteristics which as pea shape and flower color

  • it is possible to completely control matings between different pea plants

  • it is possible to obtain large number of progeny from any given cross

  • peas have an unusually long generation time (life span)

  • many of the observable characteristics that vary in pea plants are controlled by single genes

Explanation

Question 3 of 156

1

the separation of alleles of a gene takes place during

Select one of the following:

  • anaphase of mitosis

  • cytokinesis of mitosis

  • anaphase I of meiosis

  • telophase II of meiosis

  • cytokinesis of meiosis

Explanation

Question 4 of 156

1

which of the following represents the possible genotype(s) resulting from a cross between an individual homozygous (ZZ) and one heterozygous (Zz) individual?

Select one of the following:

  • ZZ and Zz

  • ZZ, Zz, and zz

  • ZZ only

  • Zz only

  • zz only

Explanation

Question 5 of 156

1

Mating an individual expressing a dominant phenotype, but whose genotype is unknown, with an individual expressing the corresponding recessive phenotype is an example of

Select one of the following:

  • a heterozygous cross

  • an F1 cross

  • an F2 cross

  • a parental cross

  • a test cross

Explanation

Question 6 of 156

1

in humans, assume that the allele for brown eyes is dominant and the allele for blue eyes is recessive. If two brown-eyed individuals have a child with blue eyes, that means

Select one of the following:

  • both parents are homozygous for brown eyes

  • both parents are heterozygous for eye color

  • multiple alleles are involved

  • none of these

Explanation

Question 7 of 156

1

mendel crossed true-breeding plants having yellow peas with plants having green peas. the resulting plants all had yellow peas. An F2 cross resulted in 3/4 of the plants having yellow peas and 1/4 of the plants having green peas. What does this tell you about the alleles for color?

Select one of the following:

  • yellow is usually the dominant color, but sometimes green can be dominant

  • green is the dominant color

  • yellow is the dominant color

  • yellow is the recessive color

  • the F1 plants must have had some green peas that went unnoticed

Explanation

Question 8 of 156

1

An organism with the genotype of AaXx can produce gametes containing ____ if the two genes are unlinked

Select one of the following:

  • either Aa or Xx

  • either AX, Ax, aX, ax

  • AaXx

  • AX or ax

  • A,a,X,x

Explanation

Question 9 of 156

1

why is color blindness more common in males than in females?

Select one of the following:

  • because females would have to receive one copy of the recessive color blindness gene to actually express the trait

  • because a male only needs to receive one recessive allele from his mother to be color-blind

  • because color blindness is an Y-linked trait

  • females are hemizygous

Explanation

Question 10 of 156

1

what are the possible phenotypes of the children of the children is the mother has Type O blood and the father has AB blood?

Select one of the following:

  • all AB

  • A,B

  • A, AB

  • A, B, AB

  • A, B, O

Explanation

Question 11 of 156

1

The information carried by DNA is incorporated in a code verified by the

Select one of the following:

  • phosphodiester bonds of the DNA strand

  • number of separate strands of DNA

  • size of a particular chromosome

  • specific nucleotide sequence of the DNA molecule

  • number is bases in a DNA strand

Explanation

Question 12 of 156

1

Which of the following nucleotide sequences represents the complement to the DNA strand 5' - AGATCCG - 3' ?

Select one of the following:

  • 5' - AGATCCG - 3'

  • 3' - AGATCCG - 5'

  • 5' - CTCGAAT - 3'

  • 3' - CTCGAAT - 5'

  • 3' - TCTAGGC - 5'

Explanation

Question 13 of 156

1

Transcription of RNA takes place in the

Select one of the following:

  • mitochondria

  • cytoplasm

  • ribosomes

  • nucleus

  • endoplasmic reticulum

Explanation

Question 14 of 156

1

which of the following adds new nucleotides to a growing RNA chain?

Select one of the following:

  • DNA polymerase

  • DNA helicase

  • RNA primer

  • RNA polymerase

  • more than one of these

Explanation

Question 15 of 156

1

the form of RNA the carries the code from DNA to the site where the protein is assembled his called

Select one of the following:

  • messenger RNA

  • nuclear RNA

  • ribosomal RNA

  • transfer RNA

  • structural RNA

Explanation

Question 16 of 156

1

uracil can pair with

Select one of the following:

  • ribose

  • adenine

  • cytosine

  • thymine

  • guanine

Explanation

Question 17 of 156

1

the portions of an RNA molecule that are translated are called

Select one of the following:

  • introns

  • exons

  • regulatory proteins

  • anticodons

  • transcriptions

Explanation

Question 18 of 156

1

sickle-cell anemia is caused by what type of mutation

Select one of the following:

  • frameshift

  • missense

  • nonsense

  • silent

  • viral

Explanation

Question 19 of 156

1

The inner surface of epithelial tissue rests on a

Select one of the following:

  • layer os adipose tissue

  • basement membrane / extracellular matrix

  • mix of cells and polysaccharides

  • mix of cells and proteins

Explanation

Question 20 of 156

1

the principal difference between simple and stratified epithelium is in the number of

Select one of the following:

  • cell layers

  • total cells

  • nuclei per cell

  • free surfaces

  • microvilli

Explanation

Question 21 of 156

1

what type of tissue is blood?

Select one of the following:

  • epithelial

  • muscular

  • connective

  • adipose

  • noncellular fluid

Explanation

Question 22 of 156

1

impulses are received by nerve cells through

Select one of the following:

  • an axon

  • any process that is long enough to reach the receptor

  • numerous dendrites

  • the intervention of the neuroglia

  • chondrocytes

Explanation

Question 23 of 156

1

an _____ is a combination of two or more kinds of tissue that together perform one or more functions

Select one of the following:

  • organ

  • cell

  • organ system

  • connective tissue

  • neuroglial cell

Explanation

Question 24 of 156

1

at rest, a nerve cell has a

Select one of the following:

  • negative membrane potential

  • difference of -70mV comparing the inside to the outside

  • resting potential

  • all of these are correct

Explanation

Question 25 of 156

1

for sodium to accumulate rapidly inside a neuron cell membrane,

Select one of the following:

  • a stimulus above the threshold open sodium gates

  • the wave of depolarization must occur to reestablish a resting potential

  • there must be a dramatic increases in the negative charge of the cytoplasm

  • the potassium gates must open first

Explanation

Question 26 of 156

1

which of the following would not be considered part of the peripheral nervous system?

Select one of the following:

  • the eyes

  • the spinal cord

  • afferent neurons

  • the ears

  • efferent neurons

Explanation

Question 27 of 156

1

afferent neurons

Select one of the following:

  • transmit information to the central nervous system

  • provide support for the neurons

  • transmit information from the central nervous system to effectors

  • are part of the central nervous system

  • connect motor and sensory neurons

Explanation

Question 28 of 156

1

what happens immediately following the closing of the sodium gates during an action potential?

Select one of the following:

  • sodium ions enter the cell

  • sodium ions leave the cell

  • potassium ions enter the cell

  • potassium ions leave the cell

  • calcium ions leave the cell

Explanation

Question 29 of 156

1

the membrane-bound enzyme system that helps to maintain the resting membrane potential is which of the following pumps

Select one of the following:

  • sodium-phosphorus

  • sodium-potassium

  • sodium-chlorine

  • phosphorus-calcium

  • phosphorus-chlorine

Explanation

Question 30 of 156

1

which form of RNA carries the code from the lac operon to the site where the protein is assembled?

Select one of the following:

  • messenger RNA

  • nuclear RNA

  • ribosomal RNA

  • transfer RNA

  • structural RNA

Explanation

Question 31 of 156

1

genes may be

Select one of the following:

  • turned on and off (regulated)

  • activated for only a short time in one cell and a long time in another cell

  • turned on and left on (constitutive)

  • two of these are correct

  • all of these are correct

Explanation

Question 32 of 156

1

co-repressors in a repressible system bind to the ____ and make the operon _____

Select one of the following:

  • operator, inactive

  • repressor, inactive

  • operator, active

  • repressor, active

Explanation

Question 33 of 156

1

RNA polymerase must have access to the DNA helix and be able to bind to the ___ in order for a gene to be transcribed

Select one of the following:

  • activator

  • regulator

  • promotor

  • operator

  • repressor

Explanation

Question 34 of 156

1

the lac genes of E. coli are transcribe in the presence of lactose because

Select one of the following:

  • RNA polymerase binds to the operator

  • the repressor cannot bind to the promoter

  • as isomer of lactose binds to the repressor

  • none of these is correct

Explanation

Question 35 of 156

1

which of the following applies to an inducible system?

Select one of the following:

  • a repressor protein, which is bound to DNA in absence of any other factor

  • a repressor protein, which is bound to DNA in the presence of a corepressor

  • an activator protein, which is bound to DNA in absence of any other factor

  • an activator protein, which is bound to DNA in the absence of an inhibitor

Explanation

Question 36 of 156

1

which of the following lists the correct sequence of events involved in cell signaling in paracrine signaling between two cells?

Select one of the following:

  • amplifying, signal transducing, receiving, responding

  • signal transducing, sending, receiving, terminating

  • sending, signal transducing, receiving, amplifying

  • receiving, sending, signal transducing, responding

  • sending, receiving, signal transducing, responding

Explanation

Question 37 of 156

1

a receptor on the cell surface usually has several domains. The functions of the external domain is

Select one of the following:

  • transmitting the signal to the inside of the cell

  • holding the receptor within the membrane

  • attaching the receptor to the DNA

  • function as an enzyme

  • binding the signaling molecule/ligand

Explanation

Question 38 of 156

1

a protein kinase directly catalyzes the reaction in which

Select one of the following:

  • a protein becomes glycosylated

  • a protein is phosphorylated (gains a phosphate group)

  • genes are transcribed

  • all of those

Explanation

Question 39 of 156

1

what does the term dominant mean?

Select one of the following:

  • it is the allele that is expressed in heterozygous organisms

  • it is the allele (and phenotype) that is more beneficial to the organism

  • it is the only type of allele that can be transmitted to future generations

  • it is the phenotype that will be exhibited in every individual, in every generation

Explanation

Question 40 of 156

1

the physical appearance an organism exhibites for a particular trait is called the

Select one of the following:

  • genotype

  • synapsis

  • genetics

  • dominance

  • phenotype

Explanation

Question 41 of 156

1

the physical position of a gene along a chromosome is its

Select one of the following:

  • trait

  • locus

  • allele

  • chromatid

  • none of the above

Explanation

Question 42 of 156

1

which genetic inheritance principle(s) was/were proven by gregor mendel using a cross that examined a single trait of Pisum sativum

Select one of the following:

  • dominance

  • independent assortment

  • two of these

  • segregation

  • all of these

Explanation

Question 43 of 156

1

a heterozygous male hamster is crossed with a female hamster that is homozygous recessive. If they produce 100 offspring, which answer below is the most reasonable number of heterozygotes produced?

Select one of the following:

  • 100

  • 51

  • 24

  • 0

  • none of these is a realistic possibility

Explanation

Question 44 of 156

1

mendel found that tall plants and yellow peas are dominant in the Pisum satvium plant. What is the expected phenotype for a pea plant with the genotype Ttyy?

Select one of the following:

  • tall with yellow peas

  • short with yellow peas

  • heterozygous

  • Ty

  • tall with green peas

Explanation

Question 45 of 156

1

how many alleles are present for a single gene in a typical gamete?

Select one of the following:

  • depends on the organism

  • more than two

  • two

  • one

  • none

Explanation

Question 46 of 156

1

in a typical mendellian monohybrid F1 x F1 cross, what percentage of offspring should have a homozygous recessive genotype?

Select one of the following:

  • 50

  • 25

  • 75

  • 100

  • 0

Explanation

Question 47 of 156

1

a lizard with a striped tail and solid head is crossed with one having a solid tail and spotted head. All of their offspring have solid tails and solid heads. Which of the following could be a parental genotype?

Select one of the following:

  • TtHh

  • Tthh

  • ttHH

  • TTHH

  • tthh

Explanation

Question 48 of 156

1

a genetic cross is conducted. The phenotypic ratio is 9:3:3:1. What conclusion can be drawn?

Select one of the following:

  • there are four separate genes involved

  • this is a test cross

  • this cross supports the idea of independent assortment, as described by mendel

  • this genotypic ratio is 3:1

Explanation

Question 49 of 156

1

the following cross was set up

AAbb x aaBB

What percentage of offspring will exhibit a dominant phenotype for gene A?

Select one of the following:

  • 100%

  • 25%

  • 50%

  • monohybrid

Explanation

Question 50 of 156

1

molly has a crop of red raspberries, produced from 10 generations of red raspberries. For all 10 generations, the raspberry bushes have been thornless. Daniel has a crop of black raspberries, produced from 10 generations of black raspberries. For all 10 generations, the raspberry bushes have had thorns. Suppose Molle and Daniel cross their plants and all offspring are Red Thorny. Which gametes will those red thorny offspring produce?

Select one of the following:

  • Rt, Rt, rT, rt

  • Rt, rT

  • RT, Rt

  • RrTt

Explanation

Question 51 of 156

1

yen has a crop of red roses, produced from 10 generations of red raspberries. For all 10 generations, the rose bushes have been thornless. Usman has a crop of black roses, produced from 10 generations of black roses. For all 10 generations, the raspberry bushes have had thorns. If yen and usman cross their plants, what phenotype would be exhibited by the offspring?

Select one of the following:

  • RRTT

  • black thornless

  • thorny thornless

  • red thornless

  • cannot determine

Explanation

Question 52 of 156

1

in string beans, green is dominant to yellow, and long beans are dominant to short. A plant that has long yellow beans is crossed with a plant that has short green beans. All of the offspring are identical to each other. Predict the parental genotypes

Select one of the following:

  • GgLl x GgLl

  • GgLl x ggll

  • GGLL x ggll

  • GGll x ggLL

Explanation

Question 53 of 156

1

two heterozygous hamsters are crossed. what percentage of their offspring will likely be homozygous dominant?

Select one of the following:

  • 33%

  • 50%

  • 25%

  • 0%

Explanation

Question 54 of 156

1

an individual who has trisomy 21 (Downs syndrome) has ___ total chromosomes per cell

Select one of the following:

  • 47

  • 21

  • 26

  • 24

Explanation

Question 55 of 156

1

a human gamete is found to possess 24 chromosomes. which of the following statements is correct?

Select one of the following:

  • the gamete is normal

  • nondisjunction occurred during zygote formation

  • nondisjunction occurred during meiosis

  • none of these is correct

Explanation

Question 56 of 156

1

in a certain small mammal, spotted tongue is caused by an X-linked recessive gene. In one litter, there are 2 females with spotted tongues, 1 male with spotted tongue, and 1 male without spotted tongue. What is the phenotype of the father?

Select one of the following:

  • cannot determine

  • dominant

  • recessive

Explanation

Question 57 of 156

1

in a certain iris flower variety, gene "Q" controls seed color, and it controls susceptibility to a disease. this gene exhibits

Select one of the following:

  • additive dominance

  • variegation

  • pleiotropy

  • codominance

  • incomplete dominance

Explanation

Question 58 of 156

1

which trait in humans is known to exhibit multiple alleles?

Select one of the following:

  • sickle cell disease

  • color blindness

  • hemophilia

  • blood typing antigens

Explanation

Question 59 of 156

1

an individual is homozygous recessive for colorblindness (XcXc). which of the following conclusions can be drawn?

Select one of the following:

  • the individual's mother is colorblind

  • the individual is a male

  • the indidual's father is not colorblind

  • none of these can be correct

Explanation

Question 60 of 156

1

a child has blood type O. His mother has blood type A. It is not possible for his father to have blood type:

Select one of the following:

  • AB

  • O

  • A

  • B

  • more than one choice is correct

Explanation

Question 61 of 156

1

Zachary has hemophilia, and X-linked condition. His fiancee, Taylor, does not hace the condition nor does she carry an allele for it. Which statement concerning their potential offspring is correct?

Select one of the following:

  • 100% of their daughters will carry the hemophilia allele

  • 50% of their daughters will have hemophilia

  • none of their sons will have hemophilia

  • 100% of their children will have hemophilia

  • more than one of these is correct

Explanation

Question 62 of 156

1

the central dogma of genetics outlines the transfer of geneti information as follows:

Select one of the following:

  • translation > transcription > replication

  • translation > replication > transcription

  • transcription > translation > replication

  • replication > transcription > translation

Explanation

Question 63 of 156

1

which of the following statements about DNA is false

Select one of the following:

  • DNA contains the sugar deoxyribose

  • DNA does not contain uracil

  • DNA is found in eukaryotic cells, but not in prokaryotic cells

  • DNA is usually double-stranded rather than single-stranded

  • all of these statements is false

Explanation

Question 64 of 156

1

in ____, the total number if purines is equal to the total number of pyrimidines

Select one of the following:

  • single-stranded DNA

  • single-stranded RNA

  • double-stranded DNA

  • more than one of these

Explanation

Question 65 of 156

1

a double stranded SNA molecule is analyzed. on strand 1, there is a adenosine at the 3' terminus. based on this information, which of the following statements is correct?

Select one of the following:

  • on strand 2, there is a uracil at the 5' terminus

  • on strand 2, there is a adenosine at the 5' terminus

  • on strand 2, there is a thymidine at the 5' terminus

  • on strand 2, there is a thymidine at the 3' terminus

Explanation

Question 66 of 156

1

the enzyme ___ catalyzes phosphodiester bonds in a growing deoxynucleotide strand

Select one of the following:

  • more than one of these

  • RNA polymerase

  • DNA polymerase

  • DNA helicase

Explanation

Question 67 of 156

1

Place the following events of DNA replication in the proper sequence

(A) the hydrogen bonds holding two strands together break, allowing the strands to separate
(B) phosphodiester bonds form between the nucleotide substrates
(C) free-floating nucleotide substrates align with complimentary nucleotides on the template
(D) the coils in the helix unwind
(E) hydrogen bonds form between template strands and newly synthesized strands

Select one of the following:

  • DACBE

  • ECBAD

  • DCBAE

  • DACEB

Explanation

Question 68 of 156

1

a nucleotide monomer, when incorporated into a growing polynucleotide strand, is ___

Select one of the following:

  • added to the 5' end of the DNA or RNA molecule

  • added to the 3' end of the DNA or the 5' RNA molecule

  • added to the 3' end of the DNA or RNA molecule

  • none of these is correct

Explanation

Question 69 of 156

1

which of the following is not directly needed for transcription to occur

Select one of the following:

  • nucleotide monomers

  • DNA polymerase enzymes

  • a promoter

  • DNA

  • all of these are required

Explanation

Question 70 of 156

1

complementary and anti-parallel describes with of the following?

Select one of the following:

  • DNA template:RNA during transcription

  • ssDNA

  • dsDNA

  • two of these

  • all of these

Explanation

Question 71 of 156

1

sequences of nucleotides that ARE translated include

Select one of the following:

  • exons

  • codons

  • anticodons

  • two previous choices are correct

  • three previous choices are correct

Explanation

Question 72 of 156

1

there are only 20,000 genes in human beings. Which of the following is not a way that the usefulness of a limited number of genes could be maximized?

Select one of the following:

  • the amount of an mRNA in a particular cell could be regulated by its stability

  • alternative splicing could allow for one gene to produce different proteins with different function

  • certain genes could be turned on in some cell types but not in others contributing to different phenotypes in different cells

  • all of these are ways that the usefulness of a limited number of genes could be maximized

  • more than one of these are ways that the usefulness of a limited number of genes could be maximized

Explanation

Question 73 of 156

1

which type of nucleic acid contains the codon sequence found in the chart used to determine the sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide?

Select one of the following:

  • ribosomal RNA

  • transfer RNA

  • messenger RNA

  • template DNA strand

  • more than one of these

Explanation

Question 74 of 156

1

the genetic code is redundant. this means that:

Select one of the following:

  • some codons code for more than one amino acid

  • more than one ribosome can bind to an mRNA molecule

  • there is more than one stop codon in the genetic code

  • some amino acids are coded for by more than one codon

Explanation

Question 75 of 156

1

as depicted in the central dogma, ____ is necessary to pass traits to future generations, whereas ____ are necessary for gene expression

Select one of the following:

  • replication; transcription and translation

  • transcription; translation and replication

  • translation; replication and transcription

  • none of these

Explanation

Question 76 of 156

1

which of the following is a small, circular DNA molecule, found in bacteria, and is used as a vector (a carrier that can transport a DNA fragment to a desired location?)

Select one of the following:

  • probe

  • plasmid

  • transformation

  • restriction enzyme

Explanation

Question 77 of 156

1

a certain gene contains 60 nucleotides. close to when transcription of the gene begins, one extra nucleotide is inserted into the growing RNA. as a result, the polypeptide later produced ____

Select one of the following:

  • will most likely have one fewer amino acids

  • will most likely contain one altered amino acid

  • will most likely contain several incorrect amino acids due to a frameshift

  • will most likely contain one extra amino acid

Explanation

Question 78 of 156

1

the transcriptionally regulated genes within an operon that code for the proteins needed to achieve the operon's overall goal are called the

Select one of the following:

  • repressible

  • regulatory

  • inducible

  • structural

Explanation

Question 79 of 156

1

which gene segment is positioned in between the promoter and the structural genes?

Select one of the following:

  • the RNA polymerase

  • the operator

  • the repressor protein

  • the codon

Explanation

Question 80 of 156

1

some operons are considered inducible while others are repressible. which situation describes the lac operon and trp operons?

Select one of the following:

  • lac is inducible; trp is repressible

  • both are inducible

  • lac is repressible; trp is inducible

  • both are repressible

Explanation

Question 81 of 156

1

an E. coli cell is growing in an environment that contains no lactose and no trytophan. which genes would you expect to be actively expressed in this cell?

Select one of the following:

  • the trp E structural gene

  • the lac Z gene

  • the regulatory gene that is the lac operon

  • two of the previos choices are correct

  • all of the previous choices are correct

Explanation

Question 82 of 156

1

the expression of a certain gene was recently studied in a large number of cells from a large number of individuals. in every cell type and in every organism the rate of gene expression was the same. this suggests that the gene is

Select one of the following:

  • controlled in a repressible operon

  • controlled in an inducible operon

  • catabolic

  • constitutively expressed

  • not easily classified

Explanation

Question 83 of 156

1

a certain infectious bacterium uses five enzymes to synthesize its disease causing components. all five of these enzymes are produced together in the bacterial cell. the region of the bacterial DNA that contains the genes for these enzymes is most precisely called a(n)

Select one of the following:

  • vector

  • regulatory region

  • chromosome

  • operon

Explanation

Question 84 of 156

1

which portion of the lac operon must be attached to something (i.e. an outside molecule) for initiation of transcription of the structural genes to occur?

Select one of the following:

  • structural gene D

  • structural gene E

  • the lac promoter region

  • the lac operator region

Explanation

Question 85 of 156

1

a bacterial culture can produce molecule Z. production is reduced when molecule Z is produced by the cells in large amounts or when it is added by a researcher to the growth medium. production of molecule Z is

Select one of the following:

  • sporadic

  • constitutive

  • controlled by a repressible operon

  • controlled by an inducible operon

Explanation

Question 86 of 156

1

what is the primary goal of the lac operon in E. coli?

Select one of the following:

  • to break lactose into its subunits

  • to use lactose as a molecular building block

  • to synthesize lactose from smaller components

  • all of the above

Explanation

Question 87 of 156

1

in the lac operon, what would be the result of a defect in the operator site that prevented repressor attachment?

Select one of the following:

  • the repressor would attach to the promoter

  • the operon would be permanently turned on

  • the structural genes would not be expressed

  • the operon would be permanently turned off

Explanation

Question 88 of 156

1

which gene codes for a catabolic enzyme?

Select one of the following:

  • gene E in the trp operon

  • gene z in the lac operon

  • gene a in the trp operon

  • the operator segment in the lac operon

  • none of these

Explanation

Question 89 of 156

1

which characteristics of eukaryotes present challenges to our study of gene regulation?

1. relatively short life span and lack of developmental changes
2. increased size of the eukaryotic genome
3. multicellularity with cell specialization
4. simplistic internal cell anatomy

Select one of the following:

  • all four charateristics

  • characteristic 2 and 3

  • characteristic 2, 3, and 4

  • characteristic 3, exclusively

Explanation

Question 90 of 156

1

tightly fitted sheets of cells are observed in ____ tissues

Select one of the following:

  • cartilage

  • blood

  • epithelial

  • connective

Explanation

Question 91 of 156

1

the ability to exert force by contracting is observed in _____ tissues

Select one of the following:

  • muscle

  • nervous

  • epithelial

  • blood

Explanation

Question 92 of 156

1

the linings of blood vessels are called ____ but are categorized as simple squamous epithelium

Select one of the following:

  • exovascular

  • endothelium

  • ectothelium

  • epicardium

Explanation

Question 93 of 156

1

autocrine signaling differs from other types of signaling in that the signaling molecule

Select one of the following:

  • is received by the same cell that sends it

  • acts on nearby cells

  • binds to a receptor

  • is secreted by neurons only

Explanation

Question 94 of 156

1

channel-linked receptors such as those that bind to neurotransmitters

Select one of the following:

  • can be ligand-gated or voltage gated

  • must be located on a cell membrane like the plasma membrane

  • allow for movement of ions down their concentration gradients

  • two of these are correct

  • all of these are correct

Explanation

Question 95 of 156

1

of the four steps in neural signaling, which one involves sorting and interpretation of stimuli?

Select one of the following:

  • transmission

  • integration

  • reception

  • none of these

Explanation

Question 96 of 156

1

stimuli are often converted to electrical signals by

Select one of the following:

  • sensory receptors

  • glial cells

  • autonomic nerves

  • efferent neurons

Explanation

Question 97 of 156

1

which of the following conditions can provide environmental information to a sensory receptor?

Select one of the following:

  • molecular concentration

  • pressure changes and vibrations

  • light and heat

  • two of these

  • all of the above

Explanation

Question 98 of 156

1

the conversion of stimulus energy into an energy form that can be communicated to the central nervous system is called

Select one of the following:

  • adaptation

  • reception

  • summation

  • transduction

Explanation

Question 99 of 156

1

free nerve endings are involved in the sense of

Select one of the following:

  • smell

  • sight

  • pain

  • touch

  • taste

Explanation

Question 100 of 156

1

the ability for visual accommodation is possessed by

Select one of the following:

  • insects and vertebrates

  • vertebrates, sea stars, and hydra

  • vertebrates

  • vertebrates, flatworms, and crustaceans

Explanation

Question 101 of 156

1

which of the following statements is false?

Select one of the following:

  • cones allow us to see colors

  • the fovea portion of the retina has a high concentration of rods and a low concentration of cones

  • rods are more sensitive to dim light than cones

  • all of the statements are false

Explanation

Question 102 of 156

1

which statement is false?

Select one of the following:

  • the sclera controls the amount of light that enters the pupil

  • the retina contains photoreceptors

  • the cornea is transparent

  • ciliary muscles are necessary for accommodation

Explanation

Question 103 of 156

1

the first focusing element in a vertebrate eye from the front to the back is the

Select one of the following:

  • cornea

  • iris

  • lens

  • retina

Explanation

Question 104 of 156

1

___ is an accumulation of excess connetive tissue on the lens, resulting in visual impairment

Select one of the following:

  • cataract

  • farsightedness

  • an astigmatism

  • glaucoma

Explanation

Question 105 of 156

1

which portion of the human ear contains sensor receptors

Select one of the following:

  • tympanic membrane

  • cochlea

  • semicircular canals

  • pinna

  • more than one of these

Explanation

Question 106 of 156

1

place the parts of the ear in the correct order as sound waves are received by the outer ear for transduction to a receptor potential for hearing

1. incus
2. malleus
3. stapes
4. tympanic membrane
5. semicircular canals
6. cochlea

Select one of the following:

  • 42135

  • 21346

  • 42136

  • 51236

Explanation

Question 107 of 156

1

the direction of information flow in a single neuron is from the ___ to the ___ and finally to the ___.

Select one of the following:

  • dendrite, cell body, synaptic terminus, axon

  • synaptic terminus, cell body, dendrite, axon

  • dendrite, cell body, axon, synaptic terminus

  • axon, cell body, synaptic terminus, dendrite

Explanation

Question 108 of 156

1

as organisms exhibiting bilateral symmetry evolved, nervous systems exhibiting ___ developed

Select one of the following:

  • nerve cords running anterior > posterior

  • a center of coordination

  • neurons with specific functions

  • greater numbers of neurons (per body mass)

  • all of the above

Explanation

Question 109 of 156

1

the triple layer of tissues which surround and protect the central nervous system are called the

Select one of the following:

  • meninges

  • glial cells

  • appendicular skeleton

  • neuromuscular junction

Explanation

Question 110 of 156

1

in humans, ___ nerves prepare our organs to respond to stressful situations

Select one of the following:

  • sympathetic

  • somatic

  • cerebral

  • parasympathetic

Explanation

Question 111 of 156

1

the presence of a myelin sheath can increase the

Select one of the following:

  • speed of the impulse

  • threshold value

  • resting potential

  • intensity of an impulse

Explanation

Question 112 of 156

1

a single neuron sends a message along its axon. the message is sent back to an earlier neuron in the pathway, causing positive feedback. this type of neural citcuit is called

Select one of the following:

  • reverbrating

  • convergent

  • divergent

  • reflex

Explanation

Question 113 of 156

1

which of the following would you expect to have the greatest influence on the generation of action potentials in neurons?

Select one of the following:

  • ion concentration

  • pH

  • hydration levels

  • temperature

Explanation

Question 114 of 156

1

which scenario best describes the generation of an action potential in a neuron?

Select one of the following:

  • influx of calciumm depolarizes the cell and efflux of hydrogen replarizes the cell

  • influx of potassium depolarizes the cell and efflux of calcium repolarizes the cell

  • influx of potassium depolarizes the cell and efflux of sodium repolarizes the cell

  • influx of sodium depolarizes the cell and efflux of potassium repolarizes the cell

Explanation

Question 115 of 156

1

an impulse travels to the pre-synaptic terminal of a neuron, which of the following is the most direct response to this occurence?

Select one of the following:

  • ion channels on the post-synaptic cell open

  • neurotransmitters attach to the post-synaptic cell

  • an influx of calcium causes synaptic vesicles to fuse with the cell membrane

  • sodium ions leave the neuron

Explanation

Question 116 of 156

1

if the neurotransmitter glycine caused negatively charged ions to enter a resting neuron, it would create a(n) ___ state

Select one of the following:

  • depolarized

  • excitatory

  • reflexive

  • hyperpolarized

Explanation

Question 117 of 156

1

which of the following are components of the central nervous system?

Select one of the following:

  • optic nerve

  • the cerebrum

  • femoral nerve (in the thigh)

  • radial nerve (in the arm and wrist)

  • more than one choice is correct

Explanation

Question 118 of 156

1

in multicellular organism, tissues that maintain homeostasis by responding to nerve impulses formed after a stimulus are called ____

Select one of the following:

  • effectors

  • sensory tissues

  • immunogens

  • neural tissues

Explanation

Question 119 of 156

1

why are skeletons useful in achieving locomotion?

Select one of the following:

  • movement of skeleton components push muscles

  • ions contained in skeletal tissue sreve as neurotransmitters at neuromuscular junctions

  • they provide a stationary point of resistance to muscle contraction

  • ions contained in skeletal tissue initiate muscle contraction

Explanation

Question 120 of 156

1

exoskeletons are present in ___

Select one of the following:

  • cnidarian (hydras)

  • vertebrates (horses)

  • mollusks (snail)

  • two of the previous choices are correct

Explanation

Question 121 of 156

1

bones of limbs are ___

Select one of the following:

  • axial

  • terminal

  • appendicular

  • cranial

Explanation

Question 122 of 156

1

the vertebrae are ___

Select one of the following:

  • the bones to which the femurs are attached

  • the subunits of the spinal cord

  • the layers of protective​ tissue around peripheral nerves

  • the bones of the wrist and ankle

  • none of the previous choices is correct

Explanation

Question 123 of 156

1

the point of a skeleton where bones are connected to each other in a hinge is called a ___

Select one of the following:

  • ligament

  • joint

  • tendon

  • cartilage

Explanation

Question 124 of 156

1

when a muscle contracts, it pulls on a ___ which then pulls on a ___

Select one of the following:

  • ligament ... joint

  • tendon ... bone

  • joint ... tendon

  • bone ... tendon

Explanation

Question 125 of 156

1

ATP hydrolysis is essential for ___

Select one of the following:

  • muscle relaxation

  • muscle contraction

  • both

  • neither

Explanation

Question 126 of 156

1

the organizational unit known as an osteon is a component of ___

Select one of the following:

  • spongy bone

  • cardiac muscle

  • joints

  • compact bone

Explanation

Question 127 of 156

1

a certain individual has an elevated number of osteoclasts and a reduced number of osteoblasts. which of the following health conditions might result from this?

Select one of the following:

  • bone spurs

  • muscle spasms

  • muscle degeneration

  • osteoporosis

Explanation

Question 128 of 156

1

which type of muscle is striated and responds to involuntary neural signals?

Select one of the following:

  • skeletal

  • smooth

  • cardiac

  • more than one of these is correct

Explanation

Question 129 of 156

1

a tube-shaped​ component in a muscle fiber, composed of overlapping myofilaments, is known as ___

Select one of the following:

  • a sarcolemma

  • a T tubule

  • a myofibril

  • a muscle

Explanation

Question 130 of 156

1

each time the tricep muscle in your upper arm contracts,

Select one of the following:

  • the biceps muscle in the opposite arm relaxes

  • the biceps muscle in the same arm contracts

  • the biceps muscle in the same arm relaxes

  • the biceps muscle in the opposite arm contracts

Explanation

Question 131 of 156

1

according to the sliding filament theory, when a skeletal muscle contracts, ___

Select one of the following:

  • the myosin filaments get shorter

  • the Z lines of a sarcomere move away from each other

  • the actin filaments get shorter

  • none of the above occurs

Explanation

Question 132 of 156

1

which of the following is associated with muscle fatigue and cramping?

Select one of the following:

  • lactic acid accumulation

  • hemoglobin depletion

  • calcium deficiency

  • ADP depletion

Explanation

Question 133 of 156

1

acetylcholine would most likely be found ___

Select one of the following:

  • in T tubules

  • in a sarcoplasmic reticulum

  • attached to microfilaments

  • in a neuromuscular junction

  • none of the choices is correct

Explanation

Question 134 of 156

1

what is a cross-bridge?

Select one of the following:

  • the connection between a neuron and a muscle

  • the connection that forms between actin and myosin

  • the connection between two osteons

  • the connection between a joint and two bones

Explanation

Question 135 of 156

1

high oxygen concentration in blood enables a high metabolic rate and greater level of activity/physical exertion. based on relative activity levels and respiratory and circulatory system complexity, which organism would you expect to have the highest clood O2?

Select one of the following:

  • frog

  • bird

  • crocodile

  • snake

  • all how rougly the same blood O2

Explanation

Question 136 of 156

1

which os the following have open circulatory systems

Select one of the following:

  • cnidarians

  • platyhelminthes

  • both of these

  • neither of these

Explanation

Question 137 of 156

1

new red blood cells are synthesized by ___

Select one of the following:

  • bone marrow

  • spleen

  • mature red blood cells

  • muscles

Explanation

Question 138 of 156

1

the oxygen carrier molecule hemoglobin is an essential compoent of ___

Select one of the following:

  • erythrocytes

  • red and white blood cells and platelets

  • red blood cells and white blood cells

  • platelets and red blood cells

Explanation

Question 139 of 156

1

the cellular fragment ___ is necessary for normal blood clotting ability

Select one of the following:

  • hemoglobin

  • platelets

  • carbon dioxide

  • plasma

Explanation

Question 140 of 156

1

blood is composed of cellular components, suspended in a fluid. which of the following best describes the proportion of cells to fluids in blood?

Select one of the following:

  • the proportion varies greatly from individual to individual assuming the individuals are well hydrated and do not have a cancer of the blood

  • there is a roughly equal amount of fluid and cells

  • there are many more cells than there is fluid

  • there is much more fluid than cellular material

Explanation

Question 141 of 156

1

the main difference between arteries and veins is that arteries

Select one of the following:

  • carry blood containing a higher concentration of oxygen

  • take blood away from the heart

  • carry blood containing a higher concentration of carbon dioxide

  • more than one of these is correct

Explanation

Question 142 of 156

1

where is blood pressure the lowest?

Select one of the following:

  • all are the same

  • pulmonary artery

  • dorsal aorta

  • vena cava

Explanation

Question 143 of 156

1

the superior and inferior vena cava deliver ___ blood to the ____

Select one of the following:

  • oxygenated ... right ventricle

  • deoxygenated ... right atrium

  • oxygenated ... left atrium

  • deoxygenated ... left atrium

Explanation

Question 144 of 156

1

which sequence correctly describes the pulmonary circuit?

Select one of the following:

  • right atrium > right ventricle > pulmonary arteries > pulmonary capillaries in lungs > pulmonary veins > left atrium

  • right atrium > left atrium > pulmonary arteries > pulmonary capillaries in lungs > pulmonary veins > right ventricle

  • right atrium > right ventricle > pulmonary veins > pulmonary capillaries in lungs > pulmonary arteries > left atrium

  • left atrium > right ventricle > pulmonary arteries > pulmonary capillaries in lungs > pulmonary veins > right atrium

Explanation

Question 145 of 156

1

the presence of two circulatory pathways (systemic and pulmonary) is typically observed in ___

Select one of the following:

  • birds

  • fishes

  • earthworms

  • hydra

Explanation

Question 146 of 156

1

the blood vessels that contain valves are called ___

Select one of the following:

  • arteries

  • arterioles

  • capillaries

  • veins

  • more than one of these

Explanation

Question 147 of 156

1

the spleen is a part of the ___ system

Select one of the following:

  • reproductive

  • cardiovascular

  • disgestive

  • immune

Explanation

Question 148 of 156

1

which os the following is a connection between the lymphatic system and the circulatory system?

Select one of the following:

  • the lymph system synthesizes erythrocytes for the blood

  • the lymph system collects and delivers interstitial fluid back to the blood

  • arteris are part of the lymphatic system

  • they are not related

Explanation

Question 149 of 156

1

respiratory systems in insects use ___ to transport oxygen directly into tissues

Select one of the following:

  • alveoli

  • gills

  • bronchi

  • tracheoles

  • all of the above

Explanation

Question 150 of 156

1

gas exchange is best accomplished by moving air across a ___ membrane

Select one of the following:

  • dry, thin

  • positively charged, dry

  • negatively charged, thick

  • moist, thin

Explanation

Question 151 of 156

1

during ___ the diaphragm relaxes, the chest cavity contracts, and air is expelled

Select one of the following:

  • inspiration

  • inhalation

  • none of these

  • expiration

Explanation

Question 152 of 156

1

which sequence of structures is correct (exterior > interior)

Select one of the following:

  • alveolus, trachea, bronchiole, bronchus

  • bronchus, trachea, bronchiole, alveolus

  • trachea, bronchiole, bronchus, alveolus

  • trachea, bronchus, bronchiole, alveolus

Explanation

Question 153 of 156

1

microbial infection of the bronchi, leading to airway obstruction and inflammation is called ___

Select one of the following:

  • emphysema

  • bronchitis

  • asthma

  • cystic fibrosis

Explanation

Question 154 of 156

1

in non-specific immunity, repeated exposure to a pathogen ___

Select one of the following:

  • increases the strength but decreases the speed of the immune response

  • decreases the speed and strength of the immune response

  • has no affect of the speed or strength of the immune response

  • increases the speed of the immune response

Explanation

Question 155 of 156

1

non-specific immunity is ___, while specific immunity is ___

Select one of the following:

  • induced ... suppressed

  • suppressed ... induced

  • acquired ... innate

  • innate ... acquired

Explanation

Question 156 of 156

1

interactions between infectious materials and antibodies are the central aspect of ___

Select one of the following:

  • physiologic immunity

  • non-specific immunity

  • humoral immunity

  • cell-mediated immunity

Explanation

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