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Bio 1240

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a composite of quizzes and exams
Toria Chukwuemeka
Quiz by Toria Chukwuemeka, updated more than 1 year ago
Toria Chukwuemeka
Created by Toria Chukwuemeka almost 7 years ago
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Resource summary

Question 1

Question
_____ are alternative forms of a gene that govern the same feature, such as eye color
Answer
  • alleles
  • loci
  • genes
  • coupled traits

Question 2

Question
pea plants were ell chosen for use in Mendel's breeding experiment for all of the following reasons except
Answer
  • peas show easily observed variations in a number of characteristics which as pea shape and flower color
  • it is possible to completely control matings between different pea plants
  • it is possible to obtain large number of progeny from any given cross
  • peas have an unusually long generation time (life span)
  • many of the observable characteristics that vary in pea plants are controlled by single genes

Question 3

Question
the separation of alleles of a gene takes place during
Answer
  • anaphase of mitosis
  • cytokinesis of mitosis
  • anaphase I of meiosis
  • telophase II of meiosis
  • cytokinesis of meiosis

Question 4

Question
which of the following represents the possible genotype(s) resulting from a cross between an individual homozygous (ZZ) and one heterozygous (Zz) individual?
Answer
  • ZZ and Zz
  • ZZ, Zz, and zz
  • ZZ only
  • Zz only
  • zz only

Question 5

Question
Mating an individual expressing a dominant phenotype, but whose genotype is unknown, with an individual expressing the corresponding recessive phenotype is an example of
Answer
  • a heterozygous cross
  • an F1 cross
  • an F2 cross
  • a parental cross
  • a test cross

Question 6

Question
in humans, assume that the allele for brown eyes is dominant and the allele for blue eyes is recessive. If two brown-eyed individuals have a child with blue eyes, that means
Answer
  • both parents are homozygous for brown eyes
  • both parents are heterozygous for eye color
  • multiple alleles are involved
  • none of these

Question 7

Question
mendel crossed true-breeding plants having yellow peas with plants having green peas. the resulting plants all had yellow peas. An F2 cross resulted in 3/4 of the plants having yellow peas and 1/4 of the plants having green peas. What does this tell you about the alleles for color?
Answer
  • yellow is usually the dominant color, but sometimes green can be dominant
  • green is the dominant color
  • yellow is the dominant color
  • yellow is the recessive color
  • the F1 plants must have had some green peas that went unnoticed

Question 8

Question
An organism with the genotype of AaXx can produce gametes containing ____ if the two genes are unlinked
Answer
  • either Aa or Xx
  • either AX, Ax, aX, ax
  • AaXx
  • AX or ax
  • A,a,X,x

Question 9

Question
why is color blindness more common in males than in females?
Answer
  • because females would have to receive one copy of the recessive color blindness gene to actually express the trait
  • because a male only needs to receive one recessive allele from his mother to be color-blind
  • because color blindness is an Y-linked trait
  • females are hemizygous

Question 10

Question
what are the possible phenotypes of the children of the children is the mother has Type O blood and the father has AB blood?
Answer
  • all AB
  • A,B
  • A, AB
  • A, B, AB
  • A, B, O

Question 11

Question
The information carried by DNA is incorporated in a code verified by the
Answer
  • phosphodiester bonds of the DNA strand
  • number of separate strands of DNA
  • size of a particular chromosome
  • specific nucleotide sequence of the DNA molecule
  • number is bases in a DNA strand

Question 12

Question
Which of the following nucleotide sequences represents the complement to the DNA strand 5' - AGATCCG - 3' ?
Answer
  • 5' - AGATCCG - 3'
  • 3' - AGATCCG - 5'
  • 5' - CTCGAAT - 3'
  • 3' - CTCGAAT - 5'
  • 3' - TCTAGGC - 5'

Question 13

Question
Transcription of RNA takes place in the
Answer
  • mitochondria
  • cytoplasm
  • ribosomes
  • nucleus
  • endoplasmic reticulum

Question 14

Question
which of the following adds new nucleotides to a growing RNA chain?
Answer
  • DNA polymerase
  • DNA helicase
  • RNA primer
  • RNA polymerase
  • more than one of these

Question 15

Question
the form of RNA the carries the code from DNA to the site where the protein is assembled his called
Answer
  • messenger RNA
  • nuclear RNA
  • ribosomal RNA
  • transfer RNA
  • structural RNA

Question 16

Question
uracil can pair with
Answer
  • ribose
  • adenine
  • cytosine
  • thymine
  • guanine

Question 17

Question
the portions of an RNA molecule that are translated are called
Answer
  • introns
  • exons
  • regulatory proteins
  • anticodons
  • transcriptions

Question 18

Question
sickle-cell anemia is caused by what type of mutation
Answer
  • frameshift
  • missense
  • nonsense
  • silent
  • viral

Question 19

Question
The inner surface of epithelial tissue rests on a
Answer
  • layer os adipose tissue
  • basement membrane / extracellular matrix
  • mix of cells and polysaccharides
  • mix of cells and proteins

Question 20

Question
the principal difference between simple and stratified epithelium is in the number of
Answer
  • cell layers
  • total cells
  • nuclei per cell
  • free surfaces
  • microvilli

Question 21

Question
what type of tissue is blood?
Answer
  • epithelial
  • muscular
  • connective
  • adipose
  • noncellular fluid

Question 22

Question
impulses are received by nerve cells through
Answer
  • an axon
  • any process that is long enough to reach the receptor
  • numerous dendrites
  • the intervention of the neuroglia
  • chondrocytes

Question 23

Question
an _____ is a combination of two or more kinds of tissue that together perform one or more functions
Answer
  • organ
  • cell
  • organ system
  • connective tissue
  • neuroglial cell

Question 24

Question
at rest, a nerve cell has a
Answer
  • negative membrane potential
  • difference of -70mV comparing the inside to the outside
  • resting potential
  • all of these are correct

Question 25

Question
for sodium to accumulate rapidly inside a neuron cell membrane,
Answer
  • a stimulus above the threshold open sodium gates
  • the wave of depolarization must occur to reestablish a resting potential
  • there must be a dramatic increases in the negative charge of the cytoplasm
  • the potassium gates must open first

Question 26

Question
which of the following would not be considered part of the peripheral nervous system?
Answer
  • the eyes
  • the spinal cord
  • afferent neurons
  • the ears
  • efferent neurons

Question 27

Question
afferent neurons
Answer
  • transmit information to the central nervous system
  • provide support for the neurons
  • transmit information from the central nervous system to effectors
  • are part of the central nervous system
  • connect motor and sensory neurons

Question 28

Question
what happens immediately following the closing of the sodium gates during an action potential?
Answer
  • sodium ions enter the cell
  • sodium ions leave the cell
  • potassium ions enter the cell
  • potassium ions leave the cell
  • calcium ions leave the cell

Question 29

Question
the membrane-bound enzyme system that helps to maintain the resting membrane potential is which of the following pumps
Answer
  • sodium-phosphorus
  • sodium-potassium
  • sodium-chlorine
  • phosphorus-calcium
  • phosphorus-chlorine

Question 30

Question
which form of RNA carries the code from the lac operon to the site where the protein is assembled?
Answer
  • messenger RNA
  • nuclear RNA
  • ribosomal RNA
  • transfer RNA
  • structural RNA

Question 31

Question
genes may be
Answer
  • turned on and off (regulated)
  • activated for only a short time in one cell and a long time in another cell
  • turned on and left on (constitutive)
  • two of these are correct
  • all of these are correct

Question 32

Question
co-repressors in a repressible system bind to the ____ and make the operon _____
Answer
  • operator, inactive
  • repressor, inactive
  • operator, active
  • repressor, active

Question 33

Question
RNA polymerase must have access to the DNA helix and be able to bind to the ___ in order for a gene to be transcribed
Answer
  • activator
  • regulator
  • promotor
  • operator
  • repressor

Question 34

Question
the lac genes of E. coli are transcribe in the presence of lactose because
Answer
  • RNA polymerase binds to the operator
  • the repressor cannot bind to the promoter
  • as isomer of lactose binds to the repressor
  • none of these is correct

Question 35

Question
which of the following applies to an inducible system?
Answer
  • a repressor protein, which is bound to DNA in absence of any other factor
  • a repressor protein, which is bound to DNA in the presence of a corepressor
  • an activator protein, which is bound to DNA in absence of any other factor
  • an activator protein, which is bound to DNA in the absence of an inhibitor

Question 36

Question
which of the following lists the correct sequence of events involved in cell signaling in paracrine signaling between two cells?
Answer
  • amplifying, signal transducing, receiving, responding
  • signal transducing, sending, receiving, terminating
  • sending, signal transducing, receiving, amplifying
  • receiving, sending, signal transducing, responding
  • sending, receiving, signal transducing, responding

Question 37

Question
a receptor on the cell surface usually has several domains. The functions of the external domain is
Answer
  • transmitting the signal to the inside of the cell
  • holding the receptor within the membrane
  • attaching the receptor to the DNA
  • function as an enzyme
  • binding the signaling molecule/ligand

Question 38

Question
a protein kinase directly catalyzes the reaction in which
Answer
  • a protein becomes glycosylated
  • a protein is phosphorylated (gains a phosphate group)
  • genes are transcribed
  • all of those

Question 39

Question
what does the term dominant mean?
Answer
  • it is the allele that is expressed in heterozygous organisms
  • it is the allele (and phenotype) that is more beneficial to the organism
  • it is the only type of allele that can be transmitted to future generations
  • it is the phenotype that will be exhibited in every individual, in every generation

Question 40

Question
the physical appearance an organism exhibites for a particular trait is called the
Answer
  • genotype
  • synapsis
  • genetics
  • dominance
  • phenotype

Question 41

Question
the physical position of a gene along a chromosome is its
Answer
  • trait
  • locus
  • allele
  • chromatid
  • none of the above

Question 42

Question
which genetic inheritance principle(s) was/were proven by gregor mendel using a cross that examined a single trait of Pisum sativum
Answer
  • dominance
  • independent assortment
  • two of these
  • segregation
  • all of these

Question 43

Question
a heterozygous male hamster is crossed with a female hamster that is homozygous recessive. If they produce 100 offspring, which answer below is the most reasonable number of heterozygotes produced?
Answer
  • 100
  • 51
  • 24
  • 0
  • none of these is a realistic possibility

Question 44

Question
mendel found that tall plants and yellow peas are dominant in the Pisum satvium plant. What is the expected phenotype for a pea plant with the genotype Ttyy?
Answer
  • tall with yellow peas
  • short with yellow peas
  • heterozygous
  • Ty
  • tall with green peas

Question 45

Question
how many alleles are present for a single gene in a typical gamete?
Answer
  • depends on the organism
  • more than two
  • two
  • one
  • none

Question 46

Question
in a typical mendellian monohybrid F1 x F1 cross, what percentage of offspring should have a homozygous recessive genotype?
Answer
  • 50
  • 25
  • 75
  • 100
  • 0

Question 47

Question
a lizard with a striped tail and solid head is crossed with one having a solid tail and spotted head. All of their offspring have solid tails and solid heads. Which of the following could be a parental genotype?
Answer
  • TtHh
  • Tthh
  • ttHH
  • TTHH
  • tthh

Question 48

Question
a genetic cross is conducted. The phenotypic ratio is 9:3:3:1. What conclusion can be drawn?
Answer
  • there are four separate genes involved
  • this is a test cross
  • this cross supports the idea of independent assortment, as described by mendel
  • this genotypic ratio is 3:1

Question 49

Question
the following cross was set up AAbb x aaBB What percentage of offspring will exhibit a dominant phenotype for gene A?
Answer
  • 100%
  • 25%
  • 50%
  • monohybrid

Question 50

Question
molly has a crop of red raspberries, produced from 10 generations of red raspberries. For all 10 generations, the raspberry bushes have been thornless. Daniel has a crop of black raspberries, produced from 10 generations of black raspberries. For all 10 generations, the raspberry bushes have had thorns. Suppose Molle and Daniel cross their plants and all offspring are Red Thorny. Which gametes will those red thorny offspring produce?
Answer
  • Rt, Rt, rT, rt
  • Rt, rT
  • RT, Rt
  • RrTt

Question 51

Question
yen has a crop of red roses, produced from 10 generations of red raspberries. For all 10 generations, the rose bushes have been thornless. Usman has a crop of black roses, produced from 10 generations of black roses. For all 10 generations, the raspberry bushes have had thorns. If yen and usman cross their plants, what phenotype would be exhibited by the offspring?
Answer
  • RRTT
  • black thornless
  • thorny thornless
  • red thornless
  • cannot determine

Question 52

Question
in string beans, green is dominant to yellow, and long beans are dominant to short. A plant that has long yellow beans is crossed with a plant that has short green beans. All of the offspring are identical to each other. Predict the parental genotypes
Answer
  • GgLl x GgLl
  • GgLl x ggll
  • GGLL x ggll
  • GGll x ggLL

Question 53

Question
two heterozygous hamsters are crossed. what percentage of their offspring will likely be homozygous dominant?
Answer
  • 33%
  • 50%
  • 25%
  • 0%

Question 54

Question
an individual who has trisomy 21 (Downs syndrome) has ___ total chromosomes per cell
Answer
  • 47
  • 21
  • 26
  • 24

Question 55

Question
a human gamete is found to possess 24 chromosomes. which of the following statements is correct?
Answer
  • the gamete is normal
  • nondisjunction occurred during zygote formation
  • nondisjunction occurred during meiosis
  • none of these is correct

Question 56

Question
in a certain small mammal, spotted tongue is caused by an X-linked recessive gene. In one litter, there are 2 females with spotted tongues, 1 male with spotted tongue, and 1 male without spotted tongue. What is the phenotype of the father?
Answer
  • cannot determine
  • dominant
  • recessive

Question 57

Question
in a certain iris flower variety, gene "Q" controls seed color, and it controls susceptibility to a disease. this gene exhibits
Answer
  • additive dominance
  • variegation
  • pleiotropy
  • codominance
  • incomplete dominance

Question 58

Question
which trait in humans is known to exhibit multiple alleles?
Answer
  • sickle cell disease
  • color blindness
  • hemophilia
  • blood typing antigens

Question 59

Question
an individual is homozygous recessive for colorblindness (XcXc). which of the following conclusions can be drawn?
Answer
  • the individual's mother is colorblind
  • the individual is a male
  • the indidual's father is not colorblind
  • none of these can be correct

Question 60

Question
a child has blood type O. His mother has blood type A. It is not possible for his father to have blood type:
Answer
  • AB
  • O
  • A
  • B
  • more than one choice is correct

Question 61

Question
Zachary has hemophilia, and X-linked condition. His fiancee, Taylor, does not hace the condition nor does she carry an allele for it. Which statement concerning their potential offspring is correct?
Answer
  • 100% of their daughters will carry the hemophilia allele
  • 50% of their daughters will have hemophilia
  • none of their sons will have hemophilia
  • 100% of their children will have hemophilia
  • more than one of these is correct

Question 62

Question
the central dogma of genetics outlines the transfer of geneti information as follows:
Answer
  • translation > transcription > replication
  • translation > replication > transcription
  • transcription > translation > replication
  • replication > transcription > translation

Question 63

Question
which of the following statements about DNA is false
Answer
  • DNA contains the sugar deoxyribose
  • DNA does not contain uracil
  • DNA is found in eukaryotic cells, but not in prokaryotic cells
  • DNA is usually double-stranded rather than single-stranded
  • all of these statements is false

Question 64

Question
in ____, the total number if purines is equal to the total number of pyrimidines
Answer
  • single-stranded DNA
  • single-stranded RNA
  • double-stranded DNA
  • more than one of these

Question 65

Question
a double stranded SNA molecule is analyzed. on strand 1, there is a adenosine at the 3' terminus. based on this information, which of the following statements is correct?
Answer
  • on strand 2, there is a uracil at the 5' terminus
  • on strand 2, there is a adenosine at the 5' terminus
  • on strand 2, there is a thymidine at the 5' terminus
  • on strand 2, there is a thymidine at the 3' terminus

Question 66

Question
the enzyme ___ catalyzes phosphodiester bonds in a growing deoxynucleotide strand
Answer
  • more than one of these
  • RNA polymerase
  • DNA polymerase
  • DNA helicase

Question 67

Question
Place the following events of DNA replication in the proper sequence (A) the hydrogen bonds holding two strands together break, allowing the strands to separate (B) phosphodiester bonds form between the nucleotide substrates (C) free-floating nucleotide substrates align with complimentary nucleotides on the template (D) the coils in the helix unwind (E) hydrogen bonds form between template strands and newly synthesized strands
Answer
  • DACBE
  • ECBAD
  • DCBAE
  • DACEB

Question 68

Question
a nucleotide monomer, when incorporated into a growing polynucleotide strand, is ___
Answer
  • added to the 5' end of the DNA or RNA molecule
  • added to the 3' end of the DNA or the 5' RNA molecule
  • added to the 3' end of the DNA or RNA molecule
  • none of these is correct

Question 69

Question
which of the following is not directly needed for transcription to occur
Answer
  • nucleotide monomers
  • DNA polymerase enzymes
  • a promoter
  • DNA
  • all of these are required

Question 70

Question
complementary and anti-parallel describes with of the following?
Answer
  • DNA template:RNA during transcription
  • ssDNA
  • dsDNA
  • two of these
  • all of these

Question 71

Question
sequences of nucleotides that ARE translated include
Answer
  • exons
  • codons
  • anticodons
  • two previous choices are correct
  • three previous choices are correct

Question 72

Question
there are only 20,000 genes in human beings. Which of the following is not a way that the usefulness of a limited number of genes could be maximized?
Answer
  • the amount of an mRNA in a particular cell could be regulated by its stability
  • alternative splicing could allow for one gene to produce different proteins with different function
  • certain genes could be turned on in some cell types but not in others contributing to different phenotypes in different cells
  • all of these are ways that the usefulness of a limited number of genes could be maximized
  • more than one of these are ways that the usefulness of a limited number of genes could be maximized

Question 73

Question
which type of nucleic acid contains the codon sequence found in the chart used to determine the sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide?
Answer
  • ribosomal RNA
  • transfer RNA
  • messenger RNA
  • template DNA strand
  • more than one of these

Question 74

Question
the genetic code is redundant. this means that:
Answer
  • some codons code for more than one amino acid
  • more than one ribosome can bind to an mRNA molecule
  • there is more than one stop codon in the genetic code
  • some amino acids are coded for by more than one codon

Question 75

Question
as depicted in the central dogma, ____ is necessary to pass traits to future generations, whereas ____ are necessary for gene expression
Answer
  • replication; transcription and translation
  • transcription; translation and replication
  • translation; replication and transcription
  • none of these

Question 76

Question
which of the following is a small, circular DNA molecule, found in bacteria, and is used as a vector (a carrier that can transport a DNA fragment to a desired location?)
Answer
  • probe
  • plasmid
  • transformation
  • restriction enzyme

Question 77

Question
a certain gene contains 60 nucleotides. close to when transcription of the gene begins, one extra nucleotide is inserted into the growing RNA. as a result, the polypeptide later produced ____
Answer
  • will most likely have one fewer amino acids
  • will most likely contain one altered amino acid
  • will most likely contain several incorrect amino acids due to a frameshift
  • will most likely contain one extra amino acid

Question 78

Question
the transcriptionally regulated genes within an operon that code for the proteins needed to achieve the operon's overall goal are called the
Answer
  • repressible
  • regulatory
  • inducible
  • structural

Question 79

Question
which gene segment is positioned in between the promoter and the structural genes?
Answer
  • the RNA polymerase
  • the operator
  • the repressor protein
  • the codon

Question 80

Question
some operons are considered inducible while others are repressible. which situation describes the lac operon and trp operons?
Answer
  • lac is inducible; trp is repressible
  • both are inducible
  • lac is repressible; trp is inducible
  • both are repressible

Question 81

Question
an E. coli cell is growing in an environment that contains no lactose and no trytophan. which genes would you expect to be actively expressed in this cell?
Answer
  • the trp E structural gene
  • the lac Z gene
  • the regulatory gene that is the lac operon
  • two of the previos choices are correct
  • all of the previous choices are correct

Question 82

Question
the expression of a certain gene was recently studied in a large number of cells from a large number of individuals. in every cell type and in every organism the rate of gene expression was the same. this suggests that the gene is
Answer
  • controlled in a repressible operon
  • controlled in an inducible operon
  • catabolic
  • constitutively expressed
  • not easily classified

Question 83

Question
a certain infectious bacterium uses five enzymes to synthesize its disease causing components. all five of these enzymes are produced together in the bacterial cell. the region of the bacterial DNA that contains the genes for these enzymes is most precisely called a(n)
Answer
  • vector
  • regulatory region
  • chromosome
  • operon

Question 84

Question
which portion of the lac operon must be attached to something (i.e. an outside molecule) for initiation of transcription of the structural genes to occur?
Answer
  • structural gene D
  • structural gene E
  • the lac promoter region
  • the lac operator region

Question 85

Question
a bacterial culture can produce molecule Z. production is reduced when molecule Z is produced by the cells in large amounts or when it is added by a researcher to the growth medium. production of molecule Z is
Answer
  • sporadic
  • constitutive
  • controlled by a repressible operon
  • controlled by an inducible operon

Question 86

Question
what is the primary goal of the lac operon in E. coli?
Answer
  • to break lactose into its subunits
  • to use lactose as a molecular building block
  • to synthesize lactose from smaller components
  • all of the above

Question 87

Question
in the lac operon, what would be the result of a defect in the operator site that prevented repressor attachment?
Answer
  • the repressor would attach to the promoter
  • the operon would be permanently turned on
  • the structural genes would not be expressed
  • the operon would be permanently turned off

Question 88

Question
which gene codes for a catabolic enzyme?
Answer
  • gene E in the trp operon
  • gene z in the lac operon
  • gene a in the trp operon
  • the operator segment in the lac operon
  • none of these

Question 89

Question
which characteristics of eukaryotes present challenges to our study of gene regulation? 1. relatively short life span and lack of developmental changes 2. increased size of the eukaryotic genome 3. multicellularity with cell specialization 4. simplistic internal cell anatomy
Answer
  • all four charateristics
  • characteristic 2 and 3
  • characteristic 2, 3, and 4
  • characteristic 3, exclusively

Question 90

Question
tightly fitted sheets of cells are observed in ____ tissues
Answer
  • cartilage
  • blood
  • epithelial
  • connective

Question 91

Question
the ability to exert force by contracting is observed in _____ tissues
Answer
  • muscle
  • nervous
  • epithelial
  • blood

Question 92

Question
the linings of blood vessels are called ____ but are categorized as simple squamous epithelium
Answer
  • exovascular
  • endothelium
  • ectothelium
  • epicardium

Question 93

Question
autocrine signaling differs from other types of signaling in that the signaling molecule
Answer
  • is received by the same cell that sends it
  • acts on nearby cells
  • binds to a receptor
  • is secreted by neurons only

Question 94

Question
channel-linked receptors such as those that bind to neurotransmitters
Answer
  • can be ligand-gated or voltage gated
  • must be located on a cell membrane like the plasma membrane
  • allow for movement of ions down their concentration gradients
  • two of these are correct
  • all of these are correct

Question 95

Question
of the four steps in neural signaling, which one involves sorting and interpretation of stimuli?
Answer
  • transmission
  • integration
  • reception
  • none of these

Question 96

Question
stimuli are often converted to electrical signals by
Answer
  • sensory receptors
  • glial cells
  • autonomic nerves
  • efferent neurons

Question 97

Question
which of the following conditions can provide environmental information to a sensory receptor?
Answer
  • molecular concentration
  • pressure changes and vibrations
  • light and heat
  • two of these
  • all of the above

Question 98

Question
the conversion of stimulus energy into an energy form that can be communicated to the central nervous system is called
Answer
  • adaptation
  • reception
  • summation
  • transduction

Question 99

Question
free nerve endings are involved in the sense of
Answer
  • smell
  • sight
  • pain
  • touch
  • taste

Question 100

Question
the ability for visual accommodation is possessed by
Answer
  • insects and vertebrates
  • vertebrates, sea stars, and hydra
  • vertebrates
  • vertebrates, flatworms, and crustaceans

Question 101

Question
which of the following statements is false?
Answer
  • cones allow us to see colors
  • the fovea portion of the retina has a high concentration of rods and a low concentration of cones
  • rods are more sensitive to dim light than cones
  • all of the statements are false

Question 102

Question
which statement is false?
Answer
  • the sclera controls the amount of light that enters the pupil
  • the retina contains photoreceptors
  • the cornea is transparent
  • ciliary muscles are necessary for accommodation

Question 103

Question
the first focusing element in a vertebrate eye from the front to the back is the
Answer
  • cornea
  • iris
  • lens
  • retina

Question 104

Question
___ is an accumulation of excess connetive tissue on the lens, resulting in visual impairment
Answer
  • cataract
  • farsightedness
  • an astigmatism
  • glaucoma

Question 105

Question
which portion of the human ear contains sensor receptors
Answer
  • tympanic membrane
  • cochlea
  • semicircular canals
  • pinna
  • more than one of these

Question 106

Question
place the parts of the ear in the correct order as sound waves are received by the outer ear for transduction to a receptor potential for hearing 1. incus 2. malleus 3. stapes 4. tympanic membrane 5. semicircular canals 6. cochlea
Answer
  • 42135
  • 21346
  • 42136
  • 51236

Question 107

Question
the direction of information flow in a single neuron is from the ___ to the ___ and finally to the ___.
Answer
  • dendrite, cell body, synaptic terminus, axon
  • synaptic terminus, cell body, dendrite, axon
  • dendrite, cell body, axon, synaptic terminus
  • axon, cell body, synaptic terminus, dendrite

Question 108

Question
as organisms exhibiting bilateral symmetry evolved, nervous systems exhibiting ___ developed
Answer
  • nerve cords running anterior > posterior
  • a center of coordination
  • neurons with specific functions
  • greater numbers of neurons (per body mass)
  • all of the above

Question 109

Question
the triple layer of tissues which surround and protect the central nervous system are called the
Answer
  • meninges
  • glial cells
  • appendicular skeleton
  • neuromuscular junction

Question 110

Question
in humans, ___ nerves prepare our organs to respond to stressful situations
Answer
  • sympathetic
  • somatic
  • cerebral
  • parasympathetic

Question 111

Question
the presence of a myelin sheath can increase the
Answer
  • speed of the impulse
  • threshold value
  • resting potential
  • intensity of an impulse

Question 112

Question
a single neuron sends a message along its axon. the message is sent back to an earlier neuron in the pathway, causing positive feedback. this type of neural citcuit is called
Answer
  • reverbrating
  • convergent
  • divergent
  • reflex

Question 113

Question
which of the following would you expect to have the greatest influence on the generation of action potentials in neurons?
Answer
  • ion concentration
  • pH
  • hydration levels
  • temperature

Question 114

Question
which scenario best describes the generation of an action potential in a neuron?
Answer
  • influx of calciumm depolarizes the cell and efflux of hydrogen replarizes the cell
  • influx of potassium depolarizes the cell and efflux of calcium repolarizes the cell
  • influx of potassium depolarizes the cell and efflux of sodium repolarizes the cell
  • influx of sodium depolarizes the cell and efflux of potassium repolarizes the cell

Question 115

Question
an impulse travels to the pre-synaptic terminal of a neuron, which of the following is the most direct response to this occurence?
Answer
  • ion channels on the post-synaptic cell open
  • neurotransmitters attach to the post-synaptic cell
  • an influx of calcium causes synaptic vesicles to fuse with the cell membrane
  • sodium ions leave the neuron

Question 116

Question
if the neurotransmitter glycine caused negatively charged ions to enter a resting neuron, it would create a(n) ___ state
Answer
  • depolarized
  • excitatory
  • reflexive
  • hyperpolarized

Question 117

Question
which of the following are components of the central nervous system?
Answer
  • optic nerve
  • the cerebrum
  • femoral nerve (in the thigh)
  • radial nerve (in the arm and wrist)
  • more than one choice is correct

Question 118

Question
in multicellular organism, tissues that maintain homeostasis by responding to nerve impulses formed after a stimulus are called ____
Answer
  • effectors
  • sensory tissues
  • immunogens
  • neural tissues

Question 119

Question
why are skeletons useful in achieving locomotion?
Answer
  • movement of skeleton components push muscles
  • ions contained in skeletal tissue sreve as neurotransmitters at neuromuscular junctions
  • they provide a stationary point of resistance to muscle contraction
  • ions contained in skeletal tissue initiate muscle contraction

Question 120

Question
exoskeletons are present in ___
Answer
  • cnidarian (hydras)
  • vertebrates (horses)
  • mollusks (snail)
  • two of the previous choices are correct

Question 121

Question
bones of limbs are ___
Answer
  • axial
  • terminal
  • appendicular
  • cranial

Question 122

Question
the vertebrae are ___
Answer
  • the bones to which the femurs are attached
  • the subunits of the spinal cord
  • the layers of protective​ tissue around peripheral nerves
  • the bones of the wrist and ankle
  • none of the previous choices is correct

Question 123

Question
the point of a skeleton where bones are connected to each other in a hinge is called a ___
Answer
  • ligament
  • joint
  • tendon
  • cartilage

Question 124

Question
when a muscle contracts, it pulls on a ___ which then pulls on a ___
Answer
  • ligament ... joint
  • tendon ... bone
  • joint ... tendon
  • bone ... tendon

Question 125

Question
ATP hydrolysis is essential for ___
Answer
  • muscle relaxation
  • muscle contraction
  • both
  • neither

Question 126

Question
the organizational unit known as an osteon is a component of ___
Answer
  • spongy bone
  • cardiac muscle
  • joints
  • compact bone

Question 127

Question
a certain individual has an elevated number of osteoclasts and a reduced number of osteoblasts. which of the following health conditions might result from this?
Answer
  • bone spurs
  • muscle spasms
  • muscle degeneration
  • osteoporosis

Question 128

Question
which type of muscle is striated and responds to involuntary neural signals?
Answer
  • skeletal
  • smooth
  • cardiac
  • more than one of these is correct

Question 129

Question
a tube-shaped​ component in a muscle fiber, composed of overlapping myofilaments, is known as ___
Answer
  • a sarcolemma
  • a T tubule
  • a myofibril
  • a muscle

Question 130

Question
each time the tricep muscle in your upper arm contracts,
Answer
  • the biceps muscle in the opposite arm relaxes
  • the biceps muscle in the same arm contracts
  • the biceps muscle in the same arm relaxes
  • the biceps muscle in the opposite arm contracts

Question 131

Question
according to the sliding filament theory, when a skeletal muscle contracts, ___
Answer
  • the myosin filaments get shorter
  • the Z lines of a sarcomere move away from each other
  • the actin filaments get shorter
  • none of the above occurs

Question 132

Question
which of the following is associated with muscle fatigue and cramping?
Answer
  • lactic acid accumulation
  • hemoglobin depletion
  • calcium deficiency
  • ADP depletion

Question 133

Question
acetylcholine would most likely be found ___
Answer
  • in T tubules
  • in a sarcoplasmic reticulum
  • attached to microfilaments
  • in a neuromuscular junction
  • none of the choices is correct

Question 134

Question
what is a cross-bridge?
Answer
  • the connection between a neuron and a muscle
  • the connection that forms between actin and myosin
  • the connection between two osteons
  • the connection between a joint and two bones

Question 135

Question
high oxygen concentration in blood enables a high metabolic rate and greater level of activity/physical exertion. based on relative activity levels and respiratory and circulatory system complexity, which organism would you expect to have the highest clood O2?
Answer
  • frog
  • bird
  • crocodile
  • snake
  • all how rougly the same blood O2

Question 136

Question
which os the following have open circulatory systems
Answer
  • cnidarians
  • platyhelminthes
  • both of these
  • neither of these

Question 137

Question
new red blood cells are synthesized by ___
Answer
  • bone marrow
  • spleen
  • mature red blood cells
  • muscles

Question 138

Question
the oxygen carrier molecule hemoglobin is an essential compoent of ___
Answer
  • erythrocytes
  • red and white blood cells and platelets
  • red blood cells and white blood cells
  • platelets and red blood cells

Question 139

Question
the cellular fragment ___ is necessary for normal blood clotting ability
Answer
  • hemoglobin
  • platelets
  • carbon dioxide
  • plasma

Question 140

Question
blood is composed of cellular components, suspended in a fluid. which of the following best describes the proportion of cells to fluids in blood?
Answer
  • the proportion varies greatly from individual to individual assuming the individuals are well hydrated and do not have a cancer of the blood
  • there is a roughly equal amount of fluid and cells
  • there are many more cells than there is fluid
  • there is much more fluid than cellular material

Question 141

Question
the main difference between arteries and veins is that arteries
Answer
  • carry blood containing a higher concentration of oxygen
  • take blood away from the heart
  • carry blood containing a higher concentration of carbon dioxide
  • more than one of these is correct

Question 142

Question
where is blood pressure the lowest?
Answer
  • all are the same
  • pulmonary artery
  • dorsal aorta
  • vena cava

Question 143

Question
the superior and inferior vena cava deliver ___ blood to the ____
Answer
  • oxygenated ... right ventricle
  • deoxygenated ... right atrium
  • oxygenated ... left atrium
  • deoxygenated ... left atrium

Question 144

Question
which sequence correctly describes the pulmonary circuit?
Answer
  • right atrium > right ventricle > pulmonary arteries > pulmonary capillaries in lungs > pulmonary veins > left atrium
  • right atrium > left atrium > pulmonary arteries > pulmonary capillaries in lungs > pulmonary veins > right ventricle
  • right atrium > right ventricle > pulmonary veins > pulmonary capillaries in lungs > pulmonary arteries > left atrium
  • left atrium > right ventricle > pulmonary arteries > pulmonary capillaries in lungs > pulmonary veins > right atrium

Question 145

Question
the presence of two circulatory pathways (systemic and pulmonary) is typically observed in ___
Answer
  • birds
  • fishes
  • earthworms
  • hydra

Question 146

Question
the blood vessels that contain valves are called ___
Answer
  • arteries
  • arterioles
  • capillaries
  • veins
  • more than one of these

Question 147

Question
the spleen is a part of the ___ system
Answer
  • reproductive
  • cardiovascular
  • disgestive
  • immune

Question 148

Question
which os the following is a connection between the lymphatic system and the circulatory system?
Answer
  • the lymph system synthesizes erythrocytes for the blood
  • the lymph system collects and delivers interstitial fluid back to the blood
  • arteris are part of the lymphatic system
  • they are not related

Question 149

Question
respiratory systems in insects use ___ to transport oxygen directly into tissues
Answer
  • alveoli
  • gills
  • bronchi
  • tracheoles
  • all of the above

Question 150

Question
gas exchange is best accomplished by moving air across a ___ membrane
Answer
  • dry, thin
  • positively charged, dry
  • negatively charged, thick
  • moist, thin

Question 151

Question
during ___ the diaphragm relaxes, the chest cavity contracts, and air is expelled
Answer
  • inspiration
  • inhalation
  • none of these
  • expiration

Question 152

Question
which sequence of structures is correct (exterior > interior)
Answer
  • alveolus, trachea, bronchiole, bronchus
  • bronchus, trachea, bronchiole, alveolus
  • trachea, bronchiole, bronchus, alveolus
  • trachea, bronchus, bronchiole, alveolus

Question 153

Question
microbial infection of the bronchi, leading to airway obstruction and inflammation is called ___
Answer
  • emphysema
  • bronchitis
  • asthma
  • cystic fibrosis

Question 154

Question
in non-specific immunity, repeated exposure to a pathogen ___
Answer
  • increases the strength but decreases the speed of the immune response
  • decreases the speed and strength of the immune response
  • has no affect of the speed or strength of the immune response
  • increases the speed of the immune response

Question 155

Question
non-specific immunity is ___, while specific immunity is ___
Answer
  • induced ... suppressed
  • suppressed ... induced
  • acquired ... innate
  • innate ... acquired

Question 156

Question
interactions between infectious materials and antibodies are the central aspect of ___
Answer
  • physiologic immunity
  • non-specific immunity
  • humoral immunity
  • cell-mediated immunity
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