NM1 Exam 1

Question 1 of 61

1

You are preparing for an initial eval with a new patient. You know he had a CVA, but you can't find in the chart which cerebral artery was involved. During the eval you note the following deficits: Left-sided hemiparesis and sensory loss with mostly LE involvement and mental confusion.

Based solely upon these findings, which artery was most likely involved?

Select one of the following:

R ACA
R MCA
R PCA
L MCA
L PCA
L ACA

Explanation

Question 2 of 61

1

You are preparing for an initial eval with a new patient. You know he had a CVA, but you can't find in the chart which cerebral artery was involved. During the eval you note the following deficits: left-side hemiparesis and sensory loss with mostly UE involvement, Homonymous Hemianopsia, and left-side neglect.

Based solely upon these findings, which artery was most likely involved?

Select one of the following:

R MCA
L MCA
R ACA
L ACA
R PCA
L PCA

Explanation

Question 3 of 61

1

You are preparing for an initial eval with a new patient. You know he had a CVA, but you can't find in the chart which cerebral artery was involved. During the eval you note the following deficits: Right-sided hemiparesis and sensory loss with mostly UE involvement, homonymous hemianopsia, apraxia, and aphasia.

Based solely upon these findings, which artery was most likely involved?

Select one of the following:

L MCA
R MCA
L ACA
R ACA
L PCA
R PCA

Explanation

Question 4 of 61

1

You are preparing for an initial eval with a new patient. You know she had a CVA, but you can't find in the chart which cerebral artery was involved. During the eval you note the following deficits: Transient left-sided hemiparesis and sensory loss and left-sided homonymous hemianopsia

Based solely upon these findings, which artery was most likely involved?

Select one of the following:

R PCA
L PCA
R MCA
L MCA
R ACA
L ACA

Explanation

Question 5 of 61

1

Which of the following are typical effects of RIGHT-SIDED Brain Damage?

Select one or more of the following:

Unilateral Left-Sided Neglect
Agnosia
Quick and Impulsive Behavior
Poor Judgement
Unawareness of Deficits
Emotional Lability (in appropriate laughing/crying)
Aphasia
Apraxia
Awareness of Deficits
Depressed and Negative Attitude

Explanation

Question 6 of 61

1

Which of the following are typical effects of LEFT-SIDED Brain Damage?

Select one or more of the following:

Aphasia
Apraxia
Slow, cautious, and hesitant behavior
Awareness of Deficits
Depressed and Negative Attitude
Unilateral Left-Sided Neglect
Agnosia
Poor Judgement
Unawareness of Deficits
Emotional lability (inappropriate laughing/crying)

Explanation

Question 7 of 61

1

Select from the dropdown lists to complete the text.

( Ideomotor apraxia, Ideational apraxia ): understand what to do but are unable to perform task. Habitual tasks can be done automatically but inability to perform on command.

( Ideational apraxia, Ideomotor apraxia ): have lost the idea of what to do. Unable to conceptualize a task and cannot perform purposeful motor act either on command or automatically.

Explanation

Question 8 of 61

1

Select from the dropdown lists to complete the text.

( Coup-contrecoup injury, Polar Brain Injury, Diffuse Axonal Injury (DAI) ) - When the brain “bounces” due to the force of impact and make contact with the skull at the opposite side of local damage.

( Polar brain injury, Coup-contrecoup Injury, Diffuse Axonal Injury (DAI) ) - Occurs in response to acceleration-deceleration and rotational forces (such as in a head on collision). The moving body and head suddenly stop with impact but the brain continues to accelerate forward until it slams into the skull.

( Diffuse Axonal Injury (DAI), Coup-contrecoup Injury, Polar Brain Injury ) - Rapid movement of the brain within the skull causes widespread stretching and tearing of the neuronal axons within their myelin sheaths (subcortical white matter shearing).

Explanation

Question 9 of 61

1

Which type of Hematoma is associated with Medial Meningeal Artery Damage?

Select one of the following:

Epidural
Subdural
Intracerebral

Explanation

Question 10 of 61

1

Which type of Hematoma is particularly common in the elderly?

Select one of the following:

Epidural
Subdural
Intracerebral

Explanation

Question 11 of 61

1

In the Disablement Frameworks, what is defined as "interruption or interference with normal processes, and effort of the organism to regain normal state."

Select one of the following:

Nagi - Active Pathology
Nagi - Impairment
Nagi Functional Limitation
ICF - Health Condition
ICF - Activity Limitation
ICF - Participation Restriction

Explanation

Question 12 of 61

1

In the Disablement Frameworks, what is defined as "anatomical, physiological, mental or emotional abnormalities"?

Select one of the following:

Nagi - Impairment
ICF - Impairment
Nagi - Functional Limitation
ICF - Health Condition
Nagi - Disability

Explanation

Question 13 of 61

1

In the Disablement Frameworks, what is defined as "limitation in performance at the level of the whole organism or person"?

Select one of the following:

Nagi - Functional Limitation
Nagi - Disability
Nagi - Impairment
ICF - Participation Restriction
ICF - Impairment

Explanation

Question 14 of 61

1

In the Disablement Frameworks, what is defined as "problems an individual may experience in involvement in life situations"?

Select one of the following:

ICF - Participation Restriction
ICF - Activity Limitation
ICF - Impairment
Nagi - Functional Limitation
Nagi - Impairment

Explanation

Question 15 of 61

1

Which disablement model accounts for personal and environmental factors?

Select one or more of the following:

ICF
Nagi

Explanation

Question 16 of 61

1

Which of the following correspond to Spasticity?

Select one or more of the following:

Occurs during Fast, Passive Elongation
Caused by stimulation of the muscle spindle and hyperexcitability of the stretch reflex
Related to a lesion of the UML of Corticospinal Tract
Occurs during Fast and Slow, Passive Elongation
Commonly associated with lesions of the Basal Ganglia
Affects both Agonist and Antagonist muscles

Explanation

Question 17 of 61

1

Which of the following correspond to Rigidity?

Select one or more of the following:

Affects both Agonist and Antagonist muscles
Commonly associated with lesions of the Basal Ganglia
Occurs during Fast and Slow, Passive Elongation
Caused by stimulation of the muscle spindle and hyperexcitability of the stretch reflex
Caused by lesion of the UML of Corticospinal Tract
Occurs during Fast, Passive Elongation

Explanation

Question 18 of 61

1

At which Brunnstrom Level is Spasticity at its worst?

Select one of the following:

Stage 1
Stage 2
Stage 3
Stage 4
Stage 5
Stage 6

Explanation

Question 19 of 61

1

During which Brunnstrom Stages does the patient have Spasticity?

Select one or more of the following:

Stage 1
Stage 2
Stage 3
Stage 4
Stage 5
Stage 6

Explanation

Question 20 of 61

1

Once your patient reaches Brunnstrom Stage 1, most of his symptoms have disappeared (spasticity, flaccidity, etc.).

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 21 of 61

1

One aspect of Wernicke's Aphasia is that the patient becomes frustrated with their inability to communicate.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 22 of 61

1

❌ - Failure to recognize visually-presented objects, despite normal vision.
❌ - Inability to perceive multiple sensations at once when trying to perceive a stimulus as a whole.
❌ - Inability to identify a known person by their face.
❌ - Inability to recognize non-speech sounds or discriminate between them.
❌ - Inability to recognize objects by handling or touching them.

Drag and drop to complete the text.

Visual Object Agnosia

Simultagnosia

Prosopagnosia

Auditory Agnosia

Astereognosis

Explanation

Question 23 of 61

1

Put the Motor Control Theories in Chronological Order:
❌ - Late 1800s - Early 1900s
❌ - Mid 1900s
❌ - Late 1900s

Drag and drop to complete the text.

Reflex Theory

Hierarchical Theory

Contemporary Systems Theory

Explanation

Question 24 of 61

1

Which Motor Control Theory states : "Reflexes are modified to adapt to the task via central commands."

Select one of the following:

Hierarchical Theory
Contemporary Systems Theory
Reflex Theory

Explanation

Question 25 of 61

1

Which Motor Control Theory can be described as "an integrated theory of motor control that allows for flexibility of motor patterns (versus stereotyped movements) that can adapt to the task and the environmental constraints."

Select one of the following:

Contemporary Systems Theory
Hierarchical Theory
Reflex Theory

Explanation

Question 26 of 61

1

Which Motor Control Theory states that "Reflexes are the building blocks of complex behavior."

Select one of the following:

Reflex Theory
Hierarchical Theory
Contemporary Systems Theory

Explanation

Question 27 of 61

1

Label this image

Drag an answer into the correct orange point.

Reflex

Hierarchical

Systems

Muscle ReEducation

Neurotherapeutic Facilitation

Contemporary Task-Oriented

Explanation

Question 28 of 61

1

Which of the following are limitations of the Reflex Theory of Motor Control?

Select one or more of the following:

It does not explain novel movements
Many coordinated movements (i.e. locomotion) can be performed in the absence of sensory input
The reflex is the basic unit of behavior
Inhibition of primitive reflexes does not release normal movements
Very cognitive (requires active problem solving)

Explanation

Question 29 of 61

1

Which of the following are limitations of the Hierarchical Theory of Motor Control?

Select one or more of the following:

It does not explain the normal presence of primitive reflexes in neurologically healthy adults
Inhibition of primitive reflexes does not release normal movements
It does not explain novel movements
Reflex chaining does not explain the fact that a single stimuli can result in variable response
Very cognitive (requires active problem solving)

Explanation

Question 30 of 61

1

If your patient has a balance deficit, which type of impairment is it?

Select one of the following:

Composite
Direct
Indirect

Explanation

Question 31 of 61

1

The coordination test we learned in lab which involves the patient rapidly alternating both hands between supination and pronation is testing for which of the following conditions?

Select one of the following:

Dysdiadochokinesia
Dysmetria
Intention Tremor
Resting Tremor

Explanation

Question 32 of 61

1

An action tremor (aka intention tremor) may be caused by a lesion to which of the following areas of the CNS?

Select one of the following:

Cerebellum
Basal Ganglia
Spinal Cord

Explanation

Question 33 of 61

1

Lesion to the Basal Ganglia results in which sort of tremor?

Select one of the following:

Resting Tremor
Action Tremor

Explanation

Question 34 of 61

1

A lesion of the cerebellum may result in which of the following coordination problems?

Select one or more of the following:

Dysdiadochokinesia
Action Tremor
Dysmetria
Akinesia
Bradykinesia
Rigidity
Resting Tremor
Chorea
Athetosis

Explanation

Question 35 of 61

1

A lesion of the basal ganglia may result in which of the following coordination problems?

Select one or more of the following:

Akinesia
Bradykinesia
Rigidity
Resting Tremor
Chorea
Athetosis
Dysdiadochokinesia
Hypermetria

Explanation

Question 36 of 61

1

Spascticity is velocity dependent.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 37 of 61

1

❌: Patient has a decreased interest in their surroundings, slowed response to stimuli, and sleepiness.
❌: Patient has an even lower level of consciousness; only responds by grimacing or drawing away from painful stimuli.
❌: Patient cannot be aroused; no response to stimuli.

Drag and drop to complete the text.

Obtunded

Stupor

Coma

Explanation

Question 38 of 61

1

❌: Characterized by awkward articulation, restricted vocabulary and a preservation of auditory comprehension
❌: An impairment in auditory comprehension. Speech remains fluent, but is marked by word substitutions.
❌: “Slurred speech”; may occur after an UMN lesion when there is damage to the motor system controlling the muscles and movements associated with speech production (right and left sided lesions).
❌: Impaired swallowing ability. It occurs in 30-40% of individuals with stroke and is common in patients with Parkinsons’s discase, MS, and cerebral palsy.

Drag and drop to complete the text.

Expressive Aphasia

Receptive Aphasia

Dysarthria

Dysphagia

Explanation

Question 39 of 61

1

Which type of Hematoma is considered the most deadly?

Select one of the following:

Epidural
Subdural
Intracerebral

Explanation

Question 40 of 61

1

Which of the following represents the correct cascade of events following oxygen deprivation in the brain secondary to a stroke?

Select one of the following:

Neurons release excessive Glutamate;
Altered Ca Ion channels cause influx of Ca into neurons;
High-levels of intracellular Ca activates destructive Ca-sensitive enzymes;
Enzymes cause further neuronal cell death;
Intracellular fluid floods into brain causing edema.
Altered Ca Ion channels cause influx of Ca into neurons;
High-levels of intracellular Ca activates destructive Ca-sensitive enzymes;
Enzymes cause further neuronal cell death;
Neurons release excessive Glutamate;
Intracellular fluid floods into brain causing edema.
Intracellular fluid floods into brain causing edema;
Altered Ca Ion channels cause influx of Ca into neurons;
High-levels of intracellular Ca activates destructive Ca-sensitive enzymes;
Enzymes cause further neuronal cell death;
Neurons release excessive Glutamate;

Explanation

Question 41 of 61

1

Which of the following values are indicative of normal ICP?

Select one or more of the following:

4 mmHg
15 mmHg
12 mmHg
2 mmHg
20 mmHg
40 mmHg

Explanation

Question 42 of 61

1

At which of the following levels of ICP is it necessary to notify the patient's nurse and doctor, but it's ok to continue therapy?

Select one of the following:

10 mmHg
25 mmHg
15 mmHg
5 mmHg
30 mmHg

Explanation

Question 43 of 61

1

At which of the following levels of ICP should you immediately stop therapy and notify the patient's nurse and doctor?

Select one of the following:

5 mmHg
15 mmHg
20 mmHg
30 mmHg

Explanation

Question 44 of 61

1

Brain edema begins within ❌ of stroke onset, peaks around ❌, and disappears within ❌.

Drag and drop to complete the text.

a few minutes

60 minutes

4 hours

3 - 4 days

7 - 10 days

10 - 14 days

3 weeks

2 months

6 months

Explanation

Question 45 of 61

1

Typical onset of Multiple Sclerosis begins during which of the following age brackets?

Select one of the following:

20 and 40 years of age
50 and 70 years of age
5 and 10 years of age
65 and 70 years of age

Explanation

Question 46 of 61

1

Typical onset of Parkinson's Disease begins during which of the following age brackets?

Select one of the following:

50 - 60 years of age
20 - 40 years of age
5 - 10 years of age
70 - 80 years of age

Explanation

Question 47 of 61

1

Which type of Multiple Sclerosis is described below?

• Characterized by discrete attacks of neurological deficits with either full or partial recovery in subsequent weeks to months.
• The periods between relapses are characterized by lack of disease progression.

Select one of the following:

Relapsing-Remitting MS (RRMS)
Secondary-Progressive MS (SPMS)
Primary-Progressive MS (PPMS)
Progressive-Relapsing MS (PRMS)

Explanation

Question 48 of 61

1

Which type of Multiple Sclerosis is described below?

• Characterized by an initial relapsing-remitting course, followed by a change in clinical course with progression to steady and irreversible decline with or without continued acute attacks.
• May be the result of progressive axonal loss rather than new lesions.

Select one of the following:

Relapsing-Remitting MS (RRMS)
Secondary-Progressive MS (SPMS)
Primary-Progressive MS (PPMS)
Progressive-Relapsing MS (PRMS)

Explanation

Question 49 of 61

1

Which type of Multiple Sclerosis is described below?

• Characterized by disease progression and steady functional decline from onset; patients may experience modest fluctuations in neurological disability but discrete attacks do not occur.

Select one of the following:

Relapsing-Remitting MS (RRMS)
Secondary-Progressive MS (SPMS)
Primary-Progressive MS (PPMS)
Progressive-Relapsing MS (PRMS)

Explanation

Question 50 of 61

1

Which type of Multiple Sclerosis is described below?

• Characterized by a steady deterioration in disease from onset but with occasional acute attacks.
• Intervals between attacks are characterized by continuing disease progression.

Select one of the following:

Relapsing-Remitting MS (RRMS)
Secondary-Progressive MS (SPMS)
Primary-Progressive MS (PPMS)
Progressive-Relapsing MS (PRMS)

Explanation

Question 51 of 61

1

Which of the following is the Abnormal Flexion Synergy Pattern for UE?

Select one of the following:

Scapular – Retraction/Elevation
Shoulder – AB-D, ER
Elbow – Flexion
Forearm – Supination
Wrist – Flexion
Fingers - Flexion
Scapular – Retraction/Elevation
Shoulder – AB-D, IR
Elbow – Flexion
Forearm – Pronation
Wrist – Flexion
Fingers - Extension
Scapular – Retraction/Elevation
Shoulder – AD-D, ER
Elbow – Flexion
Forearm – Pronation
Wrist – Flexion
Fingers - Extension
Scapular – Retraction/Elevation
Shoulder – AD-D, ER
Elbow – Flexion
Forearm – Pronation
Wrist – Flexion
Fingers - Flexion

Explanation

Question 52 of 61

1

Which of the following is the Abnormal Extension Synergy Pattern for UE?

Select one of the following:

Scapular – Protraction
Shoulder – AD-D, IR
Elbow – Extension
Forearm – Pronation
Wrist – Extension
Fingers - Flexion
Scapular – Retraction
Shoulder – AD-D, IR
Elbow – Extension
Forearm – Pronation
Wrist – Extension
Fingers - Extension
Scapular – Retraction
Shoulder – AB-D, IR
Elbow – Extension
Forearm – Pronation
Wrist – Extension
Fingers - Extension
Scapular – Retraction
Shoulder – AB-D, IR
Elbow – Extension
Forearm – Supination
Wrist – Extension
Fingers - Flexion

Explanation

Question 53 of 61

1

Select the proper components for the Abnormal Flexion Synergy Pattern for LE?

Select one or more of the following:

Hip - Flexion, AB-D, ER
Knee - Flexion
Ankle - DF, Inversion
Toe DF
Hip - Flexion, AB-D, IR
Hip - Flexion, AD-D, IR
Ankle - PF, Inversion
Ankle - PF, Eversion
Toe - PF

Explanation

Question 54 of 61

1

Select the proper components for the Abnormal Extension Synergy Pattern for LE?

Select one or more of the following:

Hip - Extension, AD-D, IR
Knee Extension
Ankle - PF, Inversion
Toe - PF
Toe - DF
Ankle - DF, Inversion
Ankle - DF, Eversion
Hip - Extension, AB-D, IR

Explanation

Question 55 of 61

1

You are working with a patient with a known abnormal synergy pattern.
Assuming cerebral shock has resolved, what happens when you resist Flexion at a joint of the UnInvolved UE?

Select one of the following:

Flexion synergy of the Involved UE
Extension synergy of the Involved UE
Flexion synergy of the Involved LE
Extension synergy of the Involved LE

Explanation

Question 56 of 61

1

You are working with a patient with a known abnormal synergy pattern.
Assuming cerebral shock has resolved, what happens when you resist Extension at a joint of the UnInvolved UE?

Select one of the following:

Extension synergy of the Involved UE
Flexion synergy of the Involved UE
Extension synergy of the Involved LE
Flexion synergy of the Involved LE

Explanation

Question 57 of 61

1

You are working with a patient with a known abnormal synergy pattern.
Assuming cerebral shock has resolved, what happens when you resist Flexion at a joint of the UnInvolved LE?

Select one of the following:

Extension Synergy of the Involved LE
Extension Synergy of the Involved UE
Flexion Synergy of the Involved LE
Flexion Synergy of the Involved UE

Explanation

Question 58 of 61

1

You are working with a patient with a known abnormal synergy pattern.
Assuming cerebral shock has resolved, what happens when you resist Extension at a joint of the UnInvolved LE?

Select one of the following:

Flexion synergy of the involved LE
Extension synergy of the involved LE
Flexion synergy of the involved UE
Extension synergy of the involved UE

Explanation

Question 59 of 61

1

You are working with a patient with a known abnormal synergy pattern.
Assuming cerebral shock has resolved, what happens when you resist Flexion at a joint of the Involved UE?

Select one of the following:

Flexion synergy of the involved LE
Extension synergy of the involved LE
Flexion synergy of the Uninvolved LE
Extension synergy of the Uninvolved LE

Explanation

Question 60 of 61

1

You are working with a patient with a known abnormal synergy pattern.
Assuming cerebral shock has resolved, what happens when you resist Extension at a joint of the Involved LE?

Select one of the following:

Extension synergy of the Involved UE
Flexion synergy of the Involved UE
Extension synergy of the UnInvolved LE
Flexion synergy of the UnInvolved LE

Explanation

Question 61 of 61

1

❌: a visual field cut that reduces part or all of the contra-lesional visual field.
❌: double vision, which can be the result of a decrease in oculomotor control or range of motion.
❌: an eye alignment problem that leads to difficulty with depth perception.
❌: involuntary, cyclic movement of the eye (side to side/horizontal, up-down, or rotatory/torsional).

Drag and drop to complete the text.

Homonymous Hemianopsia

Diploplia

Strabismus

Nystagmus

	Created by Ben Williams almost 7 years ago

USA - NM1 Quiz on NM1 Exam 1, created by Ben Williams on 13/06/2017.

Question 1 of 61

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 2 of 61

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 3 of 61

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 4 of 61

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 5 of 61

Which of the following are typical effects of RIGHT-SIDED Brain Damage?

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 6 of 61

Which of the following are typical effects of LEFT-SIDED Brain Damage?

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 7 of 61

Select from the dropdown lists to complete the text.

Explanation

Question 8 of 61

Select from the dropdown lists to complete the text.

Explanation

Question 9 of 61

Which type of Hematoma is associated with Medial Meningeal Artery Damage?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 10 of 61

Which type of Hematoma is particularly common in the elderly?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 11 of 61

In the Disablement Frameworks, what is defined as "interruption or interference with normal processes, and effort of the organism to regain normal state."

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 12 of 61

In the Disablement Frameworks, what is defined as "anatomical, physiological, mental or emotional abnormalities"?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 13 of 61

In the Disablement Frameworks, what is defined as "limitation in performance at the level of the whole organism or person"?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 14 of 61

In the Disablement Frameworks, what is defined as "problems an individual may experience in involvement in life situations"?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 15 of 61

Which disablement model accounts for personal and environmental factors?

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 16 of 61

Which of the following correspond to Spasticity?

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 17 of 61

Which of the following correspond to Rigidity?

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 18 of 61

At which Brunnstrom Level is Spasticity at its worst?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 19 of 61

During which Brunnstrom Stages does the patient have Spasticity?

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 20 of 61

Once your patient reaches Brunnstrom Stage 1, most of his symptoms have disappeared (spasticity, flaccidity, etc.).

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 21 of 61

One aspect of Wernicke's Aphasia is that the patient becomes frustrated with their inability to communicate.

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Put the Motor Control Theories in Chronological Order:
❌ - Late 1800s - Early 1900s
❌ - Mid 1900s
❌ - Late 1900s

❌: Patient has a decreased interest in their surroundings, slowed response to stimuli, and sleepiness.
❌: Patient has an even lower level of consciousness; only responds by grimacing or drawing away from painful stimuli.
❌: Patient cannot be aroused; no response to stimuli.