FINAL REVIEW

Descripción

HEML240 Test sobre FINAL REVIEW , creado por Nadia Persaud el 05/12/2017.
Nadia Persaud
Test por Nadia Persaud, actualizado hace más de 1 año
Nadia Persaud
Creado por Nadia Persaud hace más de 6 años
16
1

Resumen del Recurso

Pregunta 1

Pregunta
Which of the following is NOT indicative of accelerated red cell destruction?
Respuesta
  • decreased RBC, Hgb, Hct
  • increased unconjugated bilirubin, increased LDH
  • increase hemopexin
  • erythoid hyperplasia
  • URINE: increased urobilinogen, free hemoglobin, methemoglobin, hemosiderin

Pregunta 2

Pregunta
Which feature is present in BOTH intra- and extravascular hemolysis?
Respuesta
  • increased retics
  • spherocytes/schistocytes
  • increased unconjugated bilirubin
  • decreased poikilocytosis
  • A, B, and C
  • All of the above.

Pregunta 3

Pregunta
Select all that apply for INTRAVASCULAR hemolysis:
Respuesta
  • significant increase in LDH
  • hemoglobinemia
  • hemosiderinuria
  • IgG antibodies
  • decreased hemopexin
  • spherocytes

Pregunta 4

Pregunta
Select all that apply for EXTRAVASCULAR hemolysis:
Respuesta
  • IgG antibodies
  • presence of gall stones
  • splenomegaly
  • spherocytes
  • fragments

Pregunta 5

Pregunta
Normal adult hemoglobin consists of: 95% - 100% HbA 0% - 2% HbF 0% - 3.5% HbA2
Respuesta
  • True
  • False

Pregunta 6

Pregunta
Sickle Solubility screening test is a qualitative screening test that dectects the presence of sickling hemoglobins mainly HbA.
Respuesta
  • True
  • False

Pregunta 7

Pregunta
What are the components of an alkaline hemoglobin electrophoresis?
Respuesta
  • EDTA-borate buffer and cellulose acetate gel
  • pH 10.1
  • enzymatic reactions that move from cathode to anode
  • able to separate HbC from HbE

Pregunta 8

Pregunta
Alkaline electrophoresis runs SDG and CEOA2 together.
Respuesta
  • True
  • False

Pregunta 9

Pregunta
What techniques can be used to separate hemoglobin?
Respuesta
  • HbA2 ion exchange chromatography
  • HPLC: High Performance Liquid Chromatography
  • IEF: Isoelectric Focusing
  • Capillary Electrophoresis
  • Globin Chain Electrophoresis
  • All of the above

Pregunta 10

Pregunta
A positively charges cellulose attracts a negatively charged hemoglobin molecule. Which separation technique does this describe?
Respuesta
  • HPLC
  • Ion Exchange Chromatography
  • IEF
  • Globin Chain Electrophoresis

Pregunta 11

Pregunta
During HbA2 Column Chromatography, A2 is eluted as the 3mL glycine reagent and the absorbance of the A2 fraction and total hemoglobin are measured to determine the %HbA2.
Respuesta
  • True
  • False

Pregunta 12

Pregunta
Which hemoglobin fractions is HPLC able to detect and distinguish?
Respuesta
  • HbS
  • HbA2
  • HbF
  • HbA
  • HbC

Pregunta 13

Pregunta
Which hemoglobin separation technique separates fractions based on the difference in charge to size ratio through an electric field?
Respuesta
  • Isoelectric Focusing
  • Gas Chromatogrpahy
  • Ion Exchange Chromatography
  • Capillary Electrophoresis
  • Gel Electrophoresis

Pregunta 14

Pregunta
An increase in HbA2 is associated with which condition?
Respuesta
  • IDA
  • Beta-Thal Major
  • Alpha-Thal Minor
  • Beta-Thal Minor
  • Megaloblastic Anemia

Pregunta 15

Pregunta
The principle behind the Kleihauer-Betke Acid Elution test is eluting HbF out of the solution, making the cells colourless, while HbA are resistant to elution and will stain pink.
Respuesta
  • True
  • False

Pregunta 16

Pregunta
Which clinical condition is screened for using the sucrose hemolysis test?
Respuesta
  • Hereditary Persistence of Fetal Hemoglobin (HPFH)
  • Paroxymal Nocturnal Hemoglobinuria (PNH)
  • Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia (AIHA)
  • Filariasis

Pregunta 17

Pregunta
Less than 5% hemolysis indicates that RBCs of PNH are more sensitive to complement on their cell surface.
Respuesta
  • True
  • False

Pregunta 18

Pregunta
HAM test for PNH is based on:
Respuesta
  • acidified serum
  • neutral serum
  • alkaline serum

Pregunta 19

Pregunta
Which of the following interpretations matches G6PD deficiency screening test?
Respuesta
  • persistant fluorescence
  • weak or no fluorescence
  • NADPH not produced
  • NAD produced

Pregunta 20

Pregunta
The amount of NAD produced is proportional to the amount of PK in patient cells
Respuesta
  • True
  • False

Pregunta 21

Pregunta
What stain is required to see Heinz bodies?
Respuesta
  • Gram stain
  • Wright stain
  • Supravital stain
  • Eosin stain

Pregunta 22

Pregunta
Cells that are osmotically fragile will start to lyse at:
Respuesta
  • 0.85
  • 0.55
  • 0.45
  • 0.95

Pregunta 23

Pregunta
Which of the following is not included in the major hemostatic system?
Respuesta
  • Vascular System
  • Platelet Activity
  • Coagulation System
  • Fibrinolytic System
  • Thrombin System
  • Regulatory System

Pregunta 24

Pregunta
Which of the following is an example of an anticoagulant?
Respuesta
  • VonWillebrande's Factor
  • Thromboplastin
  • Protein S
  • Tissue Plasmimnogen Factor Inhibitor

Pregunta 25

Pregunta
What is needed for platelets to adhere to the sub-endothelium?
Respuesta
  • Thrombin
  • vWF
  • Ca2+
  • Phospholipid
  • Negatively Charged Surface

Pregunta 26

Pregunta
Which of the following is true about thromboxane A2?
Respuesta
  • produced by platelets
  • causes vasoconstriction
  • induces aggregation
  • inhibited by aspirin
  • all of the above are true

Pregunta 27

Pregunta
Which platelet membrane binding site is associated with aggregation?
Respuesta
  • GPIb/IX
  • GPIIb/IIIa
  • vWF Ag
  • Collagen binding site
  • FVIII Ag

Pregunta 28

Pregunta
Which of the following is not a primary hemostasis disorder?
Respuesta
  • Bernard-Soulier Syndrome
  • von Willebrande Disease
  • Gray Platelet Syndrome
  • Glanzmann's Thrombasthenia
  • Hemophilia A

Pregunta 29

Pregunta
Reduced aggregation with Ristocetin is associated with vWD and BSS.
Respuesta
  • True
  • False

Pregunta 30

Pregunta
Which condition is present if a patient has vWF, but lacks the receptor site on the platelet for it?
Respuesta
  • BSS
  • Glanzmann's Thrombasthenia
  • Grey Platelet Syndrome
  • vWD
  • Storage Pool Disease

Pregunta 31

Pregunta
What is the condition called if the platelets lack the receptor fibrinogen?
Respuesta
  • BSS
  • Glanzmann's Thrombasthenia
  • Gray Platelet Syndrome
  • vWD
  • Storage Pool Disease

Pregunta 32

Pregunta
Which of the following does not contribute to clot formation?
Respuesta
  • Tissue factor
  • Calcium
  • Heparin
  • Phospholipid
  • Thrombin

Pregunta 33

Pregunta
Which of the following does thrombin not have an effect on?
Respuesta
  • FXI activation
  • FVIII activation
  • FXIII activation
  • Fibrinogen --> Fibrin
  • FVII activation

Pregunta 34

Pregunta
Which of the following factors is not Vitamin K dependent?
Respuesta
  • FII
  • FV
  • FVII
  • FIX
  • FX

Pregunta 35

Pregunta
Select all that are TRUE:
Respuesta
  • both VIII:C and VIII:Ag are deficient in hemophilia
  • FVIII is released from vWF by prothrombin
  • FVIII is labile and degrades rapidly when unbound from vWF
  • FVIII is synthesized in the liver

Pregunta 36

Pregunta
vWF is synthesized by:
Respuesta
  • the liver
  • endothelial cells
  • plasma cells
  • Vitamin K
  • bone marrow

Pregunta 37

Pregunta
vWD is associated with a deficiency in:
Respuesta
  • vWF:Rco
  • vWF:Ag
  • vWF:VIII
  • A and B
  • B and C

Pregunta 38

Pregunta
A decreased concentration of fibrinogen leads to bleeding disorders.
Respuesta
  • True
  • False

Pregunta 39

Pregunta
A congenital deficiency in fibrinogen will result in:
Respuesta
  • Prolonged PT
  • Normal aPTT
  • Normal TT
  • Prolonged aPTT
  • Prolonged TT

Pregunta 40

Pregunta
Which of the Hemophilia conditions is most rare?
Respuesta
  • Hemophilia A (FVIII Deficiency)
  • Hemophilia B (FIX Deficiency)
  • Hemophilia C (FXI Deficiency)

Pregunta 41

Pregunta
Which of the following is not a coagulation regulator?
Respuesta
  • Protein C
  • Thrombin
  • TFPI
  • Plasmin

Pregunta 42

Pregunta
Which of the following regarding Protein C and Protein S is incorrect?
Respuesta
  • activated by thrombin generation by binging to thrombomodulin on endothelial cells
  • inactivates activated V and VIII
  • main regulatory system
  • plasminogen converted Protein C to APC

Pregunta 43

Pregunta
Tissue factor pathway inhibitor only affects the extrinsic pathway.
Respuesta
  • True
  • False

Pregunta 44

Pregunta
What cofactor does Antithrombin III (AT) need to effectively inhibit IXa, Xa, IIa, and XIa?
Respuesta
  • Warfarin
  • Ca2+
  • Heparin
  • Plasmin
  • vWF

Pregunta 45

Pregunta
Why is fibrinogen important?
Respuesta
  • Prevent thrombi from getting too large
  • Aids in wound healing
  • Prevents thrombosis in undesirable places
  • All of the above
  • None of the above

Pregunta 46

Pregunta
Which of the following are components of the fibrinolytic system?
Respuesta
  • alpha-2 antiplasmin
  • Plasminogen activator inhibitor-1 (PAI-1)
  • Tissue Plasminogen Activator
  • Thrombomodulin
  • Plasmin

Pregunta 47

Pregunta
Thrombocytopenia can be a result of:
Respuesta
  • Hypersplenism
  • Post-splenectomy
  • Acute Blood Loss
  • Proliferation of stem cells

Pregunta 48

Pregunta
Thrombosis refers to:
Respuesta
  • Formation of a blood clot following an injury to a blood vessel
  • Formation of a blood clot inside an intact blood vessel, obstructing the flow of blood
  • Formation of a blood clot that is easily solubilized
  • A portion of a larger clot that breaks free

Pregunta 49

Pregunta
Which of the following would cause a clotting disorder?
Respuesta
  • Protein C deficiency
  • vWD
  • Factor Deficiency
  • Hemophilia A or B

Pregunta 50

Pregunta
Where do the majority of pulmonary emboli originate from?
Respuesta
  • thrombi in arm
  • thrombi in abdomen
  • thrombi in deep leg
  • thrombi in kidney

Pregunta 51

Pregunta
Strokes results from the acute blockage of arterial blood flow in which artery?
Respuesta
  • Pulmonary artery
  • Coronary artery
  • Corotid artery
  • Hepatic artery

Pregunta 52

Pregunta
Which of the following will affect platelet adhesion?
Respuesta
  • Gp IIb receptor on platelet
  • Thromboxane A2
  • Fibrinogen
  • Gp Ib receptor on platelet

Pregunta 53

Pregunta
Which of the following regarding Lupus Anticoagulant is true?
Respuesta
  • causes neutralization of phospholipid reagent in vitro
  • miscarriages are common in SLE
  • LA acts as an antibody to platelet
  • women are more commonly affected
  • followup tests include DRVVT

Pregunta 54

Pregunta
Which of the following regarding DIC is false?
Respuesta
  • begins with excessive clotting stimulated by a substance that enters the blood
  • results in both excessive clotting and excessive bleeding
  • fibrin degradation products are generated
  • DIC is not a systemic problem, localized to specific area
  • plasminogen is consumed as it is converted into plasmin

Pregunta 55

Pregunta
Identify the correct lab results for DIC:
Respuesta
  • increased platelets
  • schistocytes
  • PT and aPTT prolonged
  • D-dimer increased
  • Bleeding Time prolonged
  • Fibrinogen increased

Pregunta 56

Pregunta
D-dimer has a negative predicative value for DIC because:
Respuesta
  • D-dimer measures split products formed after formation of fibrin clot, but is not specific for DIC
  • Usually present in chronic conditions
  • high levels of FDPs are specific for DIC
  • none of the above

Pregunta 57

Pregunta
Which of the following tests is normal in a patient with vWD?
Respuesta
  • Bleeding Time
  • aPTT
  • Platelet count
  • PT

Pregunta 58

Pregunta
Congenital deficiencies of which proteins will cause thrombosis?
Respuesta
  • Deficiency of Thrombin
  • Deficiency of factors
  • Deficiency of Coagulation and Fibrinolytic Regulators
  • Deficiency of Vitamin K

Pregunta 59

Pregunta
How is antithrombin deficiency acquired?
Respuesta
  • Liver disease
  • Nephrotic Syndrome
  • DIC
  • Prolonged heparin therapy
  • all of the above

Pregunta 60

Pregunta
Protein C and Protein S are Vitamin K independent.
Respuesta
  • True
  • False

Pregunta 61

Pregunta
If APC is added, aPTT is prolonged due to inhibition of coagulation.
Respuesta
  • True
  • False

Pregunta 62

Pregunta
Which is the most common inherited cause of thrombosis?
Respuesta
  • Protein C or Protein S deficiency
  • Factor V Leiden
  • Plasminogen deficiency
  • Antithrombin deficiency

Pregunta 63

Pregunta
Prothrombin nucleotide 20210 is:
Respuesta
  • A deletion in the gene sequence
  • A single adenine to guanine mutation at position 20210
  • A single guanine to adenine mutation at position 20210
  • A nonsense codon in the sequence

Pregunta 64

Pregunta
FXII deficiency can lead to a bleeding disorder.
Respuesta
  • True
  • False

Pregunta 65

Pregunta
An increase in plasminogen activator inhibitor 1 will result in
Respuesta
  • a bleeding disorder
  • an increase in fibrinolysis
  • a clotting tendency
  • decrease inhibition of tPA

Pregunta 66

Pregunta
In a mixing study, a prolonged aPTT is corrected with FVIII deficient plasma, but not with FIX deficient plasma. What is the deficiency due to?
Respuesta
  • FVIII
  • FIX
  • Heparin therapy
  • Coumadin therapy

Pregunta 67

Pregunta
A short-filled sodium citrate tube will have what effect on coagulation results?
Respuesta
  • Normal
  • Prolonged for both
  • Only affects PT
  • Only affects aPTT

Pregunta 68

Pregunta
Platelet poor plasma is required for which studies?
Respuesta
  • Coagulation studies
  • Aggregation studies
  • Adhesion studies
  • Fibrinogen studies

Pregunta 69

Pregunta
Which factors would be used up in a clotted specimen?
Respuesta
  • FI
  • FII
  • FV
  • FVII
  • FVIII
  • FXI
  • FXIII

Pregunta 70

Pregunta
Plasma adsorbed with barium sulphate will remove which group of factors?
Respuesta
  • Fibrinogen group factors (I, V, VIII, XIII)
  • Vitamin K dependent factors (II, VII, IX, X)
  • Contact Group Factor (XII, Pre-K, HMWK)
  • TF complex (VII, TF)

Pregunta 71

Pregunta
What is needed to initiate the intrinsic pathway in vitro?
Respuesta
  • Kaolin
  • Tissue factor
  • Phospholipid
  • Calcium
  • Thromboplastin

Pregunta 72

Pregunta
INR is used to monitor heparin therapy.
Respuesta
  • True
  • False

Pregunta 73

Pregunta
Select all that are true for aPTT:
Respuesta
  • monitors Coumadin therapy
  • screens for defects in the intrinsic and common pathways
  • requires a source of phospholipid
  • required to calculate INR
  • Kaolin is an example of a negatively charged surface needed to activate cascade

Pregunta 74

Pregunta
A mixing studies was performed on a sample and was corrected. To determine if the correction was a result of a factor deficiency or factor antibody, another mixing studies was performed and incubated. The mixing studies results were corrected. This suggests the presence of a factor antibody. Is this interpretation correct?
Respuesta
  • True
  • False

Pregunta 75

Pregunta
The euglobulin lysis time tests how long it takes for the sample to clot.
Respuesta
  • True
  • False

Pregunta 76

Pregunta
Which of the following can prolong thrombin time, which looks at how long it takes a sample to clot.
Respuesta
  • Warfarin
  • Heparin
  • FDPs
  • Tissue factor

Pregunta 77

Pregunta
Clot formation time is proportional to the concentration of fibrinogen in the sample plasma.
Respuesta
  • True
  • False

Pregunta 78

Pregunta
The Clauss method of fibrinogen assay involves
Respuesta
  • extended incubation time
  • using an undiluted plasma sample
  • excess thrombin
  • fibrinogen neutralized by protamine sulphate

Pregunta 79

Pregunta
5M Urea Test involves removing a clot and placing it in 5M urea and incubating it. Which of the following result interpretations are valid?
Respuesta
  • If FII levels are normal, the clot will not dissolve in 24 hours
  • If FXIII is deficient, the clot will not dissolves in 24 hours.
  • If FXIII is normal, the clot will dissolve in 24 hours.
  • If FXIII is deficient, the clot will dissolve in 24 hours.

Pregunta 80

Pregunta
Low Molecular Weight Heparin (LMWH) monitors
Respuesta
  • FVa
  • FVIIa
  • FXa
  • FXIa

Pregunta 81

Pregunta
In a plasma sample with APCr, we expect that
Respuesta
  • Protein C is able to inactive FVa and FVIIIa
  • AT is able to inactivate FVa and FVIIIa
  • Protein C is unable to inactive FVa and FVIIIa
  • AT is unable to inactive FVa and FVIIIa

Pregunta 82

Pregunta
Reptilase time
Respuesta
  • tests for FXIII deficiency
  • compares fibrinogen deficiency and heparin contamination
  • tests for factor antibody (eg. LA)
  • is inhibited by antithrombin

Pregunta 83

Pregunta
Select all that apply to the DRVVT for LA:
Respuesta
  • venom is a potent activator for FX
  • LA binds to phospholipid, inhibiting RVV
  • RVV is affected by deficiency in factors XII, XI, IX, or VIII
  • LA confirmed if DRVVT is corrected in excess phospholipid

Pregunta 84

Pregunta
PT 20s, aPTT 50s, TT 25s What is the most probably diagnosis?
Respuesta
  • FVII Deficiency
  • FVIII Deficiency
  • FX Deficiency
  • Hypofibrinogenemia

Pregunta 85

Pregunta
Which coagulation test(s) would be abnormal in a vitamin K-dependent patient?
Respuesta
  • PT only
  • aPTT only
  • Both PT and aPTT
  • Fibrinogen level
  • Thrombin time

Pregunta 86

Pregunta
Which of the following is an anticoagulant therapy treatment options?
Respuesta
  • Dabigatran
  • Heparin
  • Anti-platelet (ASA)
  • Warfarin
  • All of the above

Pregunta 87

Pregunta
How does Warfarin (Coumadin) act as a Vitamin K antagonist?
Respuesta
  • Inactivates compound
  • Suppresses reductase activity
  • Competitively binds to Vitamin K
  • None of the above

Pregunta 88

Pregunta
Which factor monitored by Warfarin therapy has the shortest half-life?
Respuesta
  • II
  • VII
  • IX
  • X
  • Protein C

Pregunta 89

Pregunta
If INR low, patient is at risk of bleeding.
Respuesta
  • True
  • False

Pregunta 90

Pregunta
Which of the following can reduce the effect of Warfarin therapy?
Respuesta
  • Drugs that interfere with Warfarin
  • Increased Vitamin K in diet
  • Taking Warfarin pill at different times every day (not at the same time each day)
  • All of the above

Pregunta 91

Pregunta
Which of the following anti-clotting substances acts on factors V and VIII?
Respuesta
  • Antithrombin III
  • Protein C
  • TFPI
  • Plasmin
  • tPA

Pregunta 92

Pregunta
Which of the following is a cofactor?
Respuesta
  • XII
  • X
  • VIII
  • VII
  • II

Pregunta 93

Pregunta
Heparin activates antithrombin to neutralize serine proteases activated by thrombin.
Respuesta
  • True
  • False

Pregunta 94

Pregunta
How is Unfractionated Heparin administered?
Respuesta
  • Subcutaneously
  • Intravenously
  • Superficially
  • Orally

Pregunta 95

Pregunta
How is a heparin overdose treated?
Respuesta
  • Warfarin
  • Vitamin K
  • Dialysis
  • Protamine sulfate

Pregunta 96

Pregunta
What side affect may arise as a result of long-term Heparin use?
Respuesta
  • Dyspnea
  • Photophobia
  • Osteoporosis
  • Hypotension

Pregunta 97

Pregunta
Low Molecular Weight Heparin (LMWH) has minimal affect on FIIa activity because it is too short to properly bind IIa.
Respuesta
  • True
  • False

Pregunta 98

Pregunta
Fondaparinux is a
Respuesta
  • natural drug - pentasaccharide
  • inactivates thrombin by combining with antithrombin
  • intravenous administration
  • requires lab monitoring

Pregunta 99

Pregunta
Which of the following are requires for coagulation in aPTT?
Respuesta
  • Plasma + phospholipid + calcium
  • Plasma + thromboplastin + calcium
  • Plasma + phospholipid + thromboplastin
  • Plasma + thrombin + calcium

Pregunta 100

Pregunta
What is the most common inherited bleeding disorder?
Respuesta
  • TTP
  • Hemophilia A
  • vWD
  • Factor V Leiden

Pregunta 101

Pregunta
Heparin Induced Thrombocytopenia:
Respuesta
  • IgG binds to heparin/PF4 complex
  • leads to coagulation of platelets
  • increases platelet count
  • associated with LMWH

Pregunta 102

Pregunta
Which of the following should be avoided when treating HIT?
Respuesta
  • Streptokinase
  • Urokinase
  • LMWH
  • Hirudin

Pregunta 103

Pregunta
Patients with which of the following diseases may have a normal PTT?
Respuesta
  • vWD
  • Hemophilia A
  • HIT
  • Factor V Leiden

Pregunta 104

Pregunta
Which of the following does not directly inhibit FXa?
Respuesta
  • Apixaban
  • Dabigatran
  • Riveroxaban
  • Edoxaban

Pregunta 105

Pregunta
Which direct thrombin inhibitor is not primarily used to treat HIT?
Respuesta
  • Dabigatran
  • Argatroban
  • Bivalirudin
  • Lepirudin

Pregunta 106

Pregunta
Which of the following are advantages of using Dabigatran?
Respuesta
  • no food interactions (eg. with Vitamin K)
  • no need for routine monitoring
  • reversal of bleeding with charcoal
  • none of the above
  • all of the above

Pregunta 107

Pregunta
Which of the following is false regarding direct FXa inhibitors?
Respuesta
  • requires routine monitoring
  • does not need antithrombin
  • used for the prevention of thrombosis and venous thromboembolism
  • all of the above are true

Pregunta 108

Pregunta
How does Aspirin inhibit platelets from aggregating?
Respuesta
  • Inhibits thrombin
  • Inhibits fibrinogen
  • Inhibits alpha granules
  • Inhibits Thromboxane A2

Pregunta 109

Pregunta
Which condition may thrombolytic therapy be used for?
Respuesta
  • venous thrombosis
  • myocardial infarction
  • Hemophilia A
  • can be administered to any inpatient

Pregunta 110

Pregunta
Which of the following is a "clot buster drug"?
Respuesta
  • Streptokinase
  • tPA
  • Urokinase
  • Thrombin Inhibitors

Pregunta 111

Pregunta
Which of the following is not a thrombolytic therapy?
Respuesta
  • tPA
  • Streptokinase
  • Urokinase
  • Hirudin
  • All of the above are used for thrombolytic therapy
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