Test
NRS-1 Questions 2
Preguntas del test (170)
1The original network that ultimately became the internet was called
- ANSFNET
- BARPANET
- CDoDnet
- DDARPA
2The primary organisation behind the development of the original internet was
- AIBM
- BDigital Equipment Corporation (DEC)
- CStanford University
- DU.S. Department of Defence
3Which of the following was not a primary design concern during the development of the original internet?
- AReliability
- BBandwidth
- CInteroperability
- DSupport for Diverse network Mediums
4Which of the following was not a reason TCP was a superior transport protocol to NCP?
- ASupport for global addressing
- BSupport for end-to-end checksums
- CSupport for applications such as email
- DSupport for fragmentation and reassembly
5Which of the following OSI layers is not paired with the correct implementation?
- ALayer 7 - Email
- BLayer 3 - TCP
- CLayer 4 - UDP
- DLayer 2 - PPP
6Part of the growth of ARPANET was driven by the ability of anyone to create a disseminate information about potential protocols and the applications in a particular kind of document. These documents are known as______
- ARequests for information
- BProtocol revisions
- CRequests for comments
- DRequests for configurations
7ISPs connect to each other at well-defind network locations to exchange information. These connection points are known as ______.
- AISPs.
- BIXPs.
- CBGPs.
- DPOPs.
8A company that has locations throughout the country can obtain service at each location from a tier 1, tier 2, or tier 3 provider. What is one reason a company might choose to connect all locations to a tier 1 provider despite the higher costs involved?
- Asites at different tiers cannot communicate
- Btier 3 providers don't use TCP/IP
- COnly tier 1 providers provide content
- DA single provider could offer SLAs to each location
9Which of the following services would likely be offered by a content provider but not a service provider?
- Astandard dial-up service
- Blive video streaming from sports events
- CEmail service
- DBasic web service
10which of the following accurately describes the TCP protocol?
- Aconnectionless with no guarantee of delivery
- Bconnectionless with guarantee of delivery
- Cconnection-oriented with guarantee of delivery
- Dnone of the above
11Originally the IP protocol functions were performed by _______
- AEthernet
- BTCP
- CNCP
- DALOHANET
12When a HTTP packets needs to be forwarded over the internet, which of the following accurately describes the order of the headers as they would be placed in front of each other in the packet (assume that the originating device is on an Ethernet network?)
- AHTTP, IP, TCP, Ethernet
- BHTTP, TCP, IP, Ethernet
- CHTTP, UDP, IP, Ethernet
- DHTTP, IP, Ethernet
13A router processing the packet described in question 12 would need to examine and/or manipulate which headers?
- AEthernet only
- BIP only
- CTCP and IP only
- DIP and Ethernet only
14What would a router processing the packed described in question 12 do with the layer 2 header of the incoming header?
- ARemove the source layer 2 address, add its own, and forward the packet
- BRemove the layer 2 addresses and replace them with new addresses
- CRemove the entire layer 2 header and create a new one based on the next-hop interface
- DLeave the original layer 2 header but forward the packet based on the destination address
15Most of the OSI-created protocols are no longer in use, although a few still provide some critically important functions. Which of the following describes an OSI protocol that is still in use?
- AOSPF
- BLDP
- CTP0
- DIS-IS
16Which of the following is not a product in the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR/7450 ESS family?
- ASR-12
- BESS-7
- CSR-6
- DESS-1
17Which of the following statements is false regarding the Alcatel-lucent 7450 ESS series?
- Ait supports multiple chassis types
- Bit support OSPF, IS-IS, RIP and BGP
- CIt is used primarily for Ethernet aggregation
- Dit can be managed via a console port or a dedicated Ethernet port on the SF/CPM
18Which of the following descriptions is correct?
- Abof.cf - 7750/7450 confirmation file
- Bcpm.tim - IOM image file
- Cconfig.cfg - Back-up configuration file
- Dboot.ldr - Bootstrap image file
19Which of the following commands is not correctly described?
- Ashutdown - this command is used to disable an interface or protocol
- Bexit all - logs out of the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR/7450 ESS device
- C? - lists all commands in the current context
- D[TAB] - This command is used for assistance with command completion
20Which of the following is not a log stream type?
- AAudit
- BChange
- CMain
- DSecurity
21Which of the following descriptions of hardware for the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR/7450 ESS is correct?
- AIOMs plug into MDAs.
- BMDAs plug into SFPs.
- CSF/CPMs plug into IOMs.
- DIOMs plug into the chassis.
22What file contains the system bootstrap image?
- Aboot.cfg
- Bimage.ldr
- Cboot.ldr
- Dbof.cfg
23The SF/CPM card has its own Ethernet interface for out-of-band management. This interface has its own IP address and default route. Where is this information stored?
- Aboot.ldf
- Bbof.cfg
- Cconfig.cfg
- Dcpm.tim
24Which of the following correctly lists the order in which files are read by the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR/7450 ESS upon bootup?
- Aboot.ldr, bof.cfg, system image, config.cfg
- Bsystem image, boot.ldr, config.cfg, bof.cfg
- Cboot.ldr, system image, bof.cfg, config.cfg
- Dboot.ldr, bof.cfg, config.cfg, system image
25During the boot process, an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR/7450 ESS checks to see if persistence is enabled. What is the purpose of persistence?
- ATo ensure that the system saves routing table information when it reboots
- BTo ensure that changes to the bof.cfg are saved
- CTo ensure synchronization with the 5620 SAM
- DTo ensure that config changes are stored in the config.cfg
26What command would you use to enable an interface the first time you initialized an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR/7450 ESS?
- Aenable
- Bno shutdown
- Cinterface enable
- Dinterface on
27Which of the following is the correct provisioning order you should follow when configuring an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR/7450 ESS for the first time?
- AIOM, port, MDA
- BPort, MDA, IOM
- CIOM, MDA, port
- DMDA, port, IOM
28Which of the following is false regarding the logging mechanisms in the Alcatel- Lucent 7750 SR/7450 ESS?
- ALog-ids 99 and 100 are reserved for system usage.
- BYou must configure at least one input stream for a log-id.
- CYou must configure a filter for each log-id.
- DYou must configure the destination for the events from the log-id.
29What command would you use to display the configuration of your Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR/7450 ESS?
- Ashow config
- Badmin display-config
- Cdisplay config
- Dshow admin config
30Which of the following values is not stored in the bof.cfg?
- AThe location of the primary boot image
- BThe list of IOM cards in the chassis
- CThe persist value
- DThe location of the primary config file
31Which of the following is not a data link layer (OSI Layer 2) protocol?
- AEthernet
- BATM
- CCell-Relay
- DPPP
32Which of the following is not a function of PPP?
- AProvide support for multiple upper-layer protocols.
- BSupport the connection of multiple devices on a single link.
- CSupport authentication.
- DSupport data integrity via a CRC on frame contents.
33Which of the following ATM AAL types is associated with an incorrect description?
- AAAL3/4—Connection-oriented service
- BAAL5—Connectionless service
- CAAL2—Variable bit rate traffic
- DAAL1—High bit rate traf
34Which of the following technologies ensures that a unicast packet is visible only to the device with the specific destination address?
- AEthernet
- BSwitched Ethernet
- CSatellite
- DWireless LAN
35The advantage of using multicast packets instead of broadcast packets is:
- ABroadcasts are received by every host.
- BMulticast is newer technology.
- CBroadcasts are processed by every host.
- DMulticast provides multiple addresses for flexibility.
36A PPP frame has several fields that are not used, like addressing. Why do these fields exist in the frame?
- AThey are reserved for future use.
- BThey are legacy fields from older versions of PPP headers.
- CPPP is based on the HDLC frame format.
- DPPP can be adapted for use on multi-point networks and might need the fields.
37ATM uses 53-byte cells, which is quite a bit smaller than the maximum Ethernet frame. What is the purpose of having such a small cell size?
- ATo support latency-sensitive applications like voice traffic
- BTo provide less overhead on ATM switches
- CTo support the use of multiple classes of service
- DTo provide the ability to do switching in hardware
38What is the purpose of the ATM Adaptation Layer?
- AIt determines the amount of data in the cell.
- BIt maps data from upper-layer service classes to ATM cells.
- CIt adapts Ethernet frames to ATM cells.
- DIt wraps a header around the ATM cell.
39What are the two main types of Ethernet frames?
- AThinnet and Thicknet
- B10baseT and 100baseT
- CDIX Ethernet and Ethernet II
- D802.3 and Ethernet II
40Which of the following values for the Ethertype/length fields indicates an 802.3 frame (numbers are in decimal)?
- A64
- B1540
- C2048
- D9000
41The original Thicknet standard had a maximum cable length as well as a minimum distance for stations to tap into the cable. Based on the description of CSMA/CD, what is the most likely reason for these distance requirements?
- AA signal might be too weak to travel farther than the maximum distance.
- BEvery station on the wire had to be able to “detect” a collision in order to
function properly. - CToo many taps in the cable would weaken the wire.
- DThicknet cable came in fixed lengths.
42An Ethernet MAC address consists of ______.
- AA 4-byte number in four parts
- BA 4-byte number in two parts
- CA 6-byte number in two parts
- DA 6-byte number in four parts
43When an Ethernet station wants to transmit information, the process it follows
is ______.- AJust start transmitting.
- BListen for other stations transmitting; if none, then begin transmitting.
- CTransmit whenever it receives the token.
- DIssue a transmit request, and transmit when given authorization to do so.
44What happens when two or more Ethernet stations attempt to transmit at the
same time?- AThis is impossible on half-duplex.
- BThe signal results in a collision, the stations stop, and the stations all wait the
same amount of time to retransmit. - CThe signal results in a collision, and the stations retransmit based on a configured
priority. - DThe signal results in a collision, and the stations stop and retransmit after
waiting a random amount of time.
45Which of the following Ethernet standards is not matched correctly?
- A10 Mb Ethernet—Fiber or copper cable
- B100 Mb Ethernet—Fiber or copper cable
- C1 Gig Ethernet—Fiber cable only
- DAll of the above are correct.
46When a frame with an unknown destination MAC address enters a switch, the switch will forward it out which ports?
- ANone
- BAll
- CAll unicast ports
- DAll except the port that received the frame
47The primary difference in the way Ethernet hubs and Ethernet switches handle traffic is ______.
- AHubs forward broadcast traffic out every port, switches do not.
- BSwitches eliminate the need for thicknet cabling.
- CSwitches support multiple physical connections to hosts.
- DSwitches forward unicast traffic only to a specific destination port.
48Which of the following is not true about Link Aggregation Groups?
- AThey protect against single or multiple link failures.
- BThey can contain up to eight physical links.
- CThey can protect against a switch failure by calculating multiple paths to
the root. - DThey can be configured to enter a down state if a certain number of links in
the bundle fail.
49Which of the following is not true of the STP protocol?
- AIt calculates a root bridge.
- BIt uses a cost value on each port to determine the path to the root bridge.
- CIt ensures a loop-free topology.
- DIt provides load-sharing capability.
50The advantage of using VLANs is ______.
- AThey can increase the security of your network.
- BThey can interconnect multiple broadcast domains.
- CThey can limit the amount of broadcast traffic between groups of devices.
- DA and C but not B
51Which of the following statements is false?
- ARouters provide broadcast domain separation.
- BHubs provide collision domain separation.
- CVLANs provide broadcast domain separation.
- DSwitches provide collision domain separation.
52The method that LAGs use to provide load balancing is best described as:
- AAggregates all source/destination conversations into a single conversation equally across all links
- BUses the same physical link for each source/destination conversation
- CStatistically balances conversations based on the source MAC address
- DDistributes egress frames equally across all links in the bundle
53Given the following code:
Config> lag 1
Config>lag# description “LAG from PE1 to PE2”
Config>lag# port 1/1/1 1/1/2 1/1/3 1/1/4 1/1/5 1/1/6
Config>lag# port-threshold 2 action down
Config>lag# dynamic-cost
Config>lag# no shutdown
Which answer correctly describes what happens when Ports 1/1/5 and 1/1/6 fail?- ANothing because the port threshold of 2 active links has not been reached
- BThe LAG begins using equal costing across all links because of the dynamic cost parameter.
- CThe LAG updates its BPDUs and recalculates STP.
- DThe LAG changes its OSPF cost for the bundle but takes no other action.
54What is the primary reason that Ethernet switched networks require STP?
- ASTP provides for link backup between switches.
- BA loop-free topology is more efficient.
- CRedundant paths can lead to broadcast storms and FDB instability
- DSTP updates the OSPF routing protocol cost upon link failure
55The mechanism that STP uses to prevent loops in an Ethernet switched network is ______.
- ASTP elects a root and selectively blocks higher cost paths to the root from each bridge.
- BSTP blocks ports on all bridges that are not the root bridge.
- CSTP proactively changes all paths to the root bridge so that they are equal cost.
- DSTP uses BPDUs to set up a virtual path between each source and destination pair.
56What determines how the root bridge is elected?
- AThe bridge priority
- BThe MAC address of the lowest switch port
- CThe bridge priority unless there is a tie, and then the lowest MAC address
- DThe BID unless there are multiple bridge priorities that are equal
57What distinguishes an alternate port from a back-up port in STP?
- AThe alternate port has a higher path to the root.
- BThe back-up port has a lower priority.
- CThe back-up port is used only when the alternate port fails.
- DThe back-up port is on the same switch as the designated switch.
58Which of the following is false regarding VLANs?
- AThey provide for broadcast domain separation.
- BA single VLAN can exist on multiple switches.
- CThey require a separate physical connection per VLAN for interswitch links.
- DThey use a 12-bit VLAN ID to identify each VLAN.
59Which STP port state is characterized by the port accepting and recording MAC address information, but not forwarding any frames out the port?
- ABlocking
- BForwarding
- CListening
- DLearning
60The technology that allows multiple customers with the same VLANs to use the same provider backbone for their Ethernet traffic is known as ______.
- AVLAN trunking
- BVLAN tunneling
- CVLAN stacking
- DIEEE 802.1p
61Which of the following is not a reason networks built on Ethernet alone cannot scale to a global?
- AExcessive broadcasts would make the network unusable.
- BEthernet lacks hierarchical addressing.
- CEthernet switches cannot build forwarding tables.
- DEthernet cables can only be of a limited length
62Which of the following is true about Layer 3 addressing?
- AIt is embedded in the device’s firmware.
- BIt provides for a logical hierarchy.
- CIt allows for duplicate addresses on the Internet.
- DAddresses are not required to be registered if they are used on the Internet.
63Which of the following is not true about an IP packet?
- AThe TTL field ensures that IP packets have a limited lifetime.
- BThe maximum size is 65,535 octets.
- CThe total length field includes the IP header.
- DThe current version is IPv5.
64Which of the following is a valid host IP address?
- A192.168.300.4
- B255.70.1.1
- C224.0.0.1
- D10.254.1.1
65An IP address has a first octet represented in binary as 11000001; the equivalent in decimal is ______.
- A190
- B193
- C192
- D11,000,001
66The address 224.100.1.1 under traditional classful addressing would be _____
- AClass A
- BClass B
- CClass C
- DNone of the above
67Which of the following is not a private address?
- A172.18.20.4
- B10.0.1.1
- C200.1.1.254
- D192.168.0.1
68Which of the following is not a reason that subnetting is superior to class-based addressing?
- AIt reduces the Internet routing table size.
- BYou can identify the host portion of the address without the need for a mask.
- CIt creates greater internal address flexibility.
- DIt allows for more efficient use of address space.
69Given a network address of 192.168.100.0/24, what is the maximum number of subnets you can create if each subnet must support at least seven hosts?
- A16
- B32
- C4
- D8
70If your network address is 10.1.0.0/16 and you have subnetworks that all support at least 300 hosts, how many subnets do you have?
- A255
- B64
- C100
- D128
71Which of the following is the correct representation of mask 255.192.0.0?
- A/8
- B/11
- C/10
- D/16
72A network with a /30 mask allows you to have how many usable host addresses?
- A4
- B2
- C6
- D0
73Given the address 10.1.1.0/24, the most correct description of 10.1.1.0 is ______.
- AHost 0 on the 10.1.1.0 subnet
- BNetwork 10.1.1.0
- CIllegal because 10.0.0.0 is a Class A
- DSubnet 10.1.1.0
74The concept of allowing a single route entry to represent many network addresses is known as ______.
- ACIDR
- BRoute aggregation
- CVLSM
- DClassless addressing
75How many subnets can be created from network 10.0.0.0/8 if each subnet must support at least 31 hosts?
- A2 to the power of 16
- B2 to the power of 18
- C2 to the power of 19
- D2 to the power of 24
76Given network 175.100.0.0/16, if you create four subnets, how many addresses are available on each subnet?
- A16,384
- B4,096
- C16,382
- D4,094
77What is the correct “all hosts” broadcast address for subnet 10.15.0.0/17?
- A10.15.255.255
- B10.15.0.255
- C10.15.127.255
- D10.15.128.255
78Which of the following is not allowed?
- Asubnet 10.0.0.0/16
- Bsubnet 10.255.0.0/16
- Csubnet 10.10.10.0/16
- Dhost 10.10.10.0/32
79Given network 135.100.0.0/16, you need nine subnets, and of these nine, one subnet needs to be split into 13 additional subnets. Choose the most likely masks you would create for this.
- A/20 for the first eight subnets, /23 for the remaining 13
- B/20 for the first eight subnets, /24 for the remaining 13
- C/24 for all subnets
- D/19 for the first eight subnets, /24 for the remaining 13
80Given network 176.200.0.0/16 and a subnet that supports 4,387 hosts, what is the most likely mask for the subnet?
- A/20
- B/17
- C/21
- D/19
81Which of the following is a function not performed by a router when forwarding an IP packet?
- AVerify the IP header checksum.
- BDecrement the TTL and ensure that it is not zero.
- CSend a “received” message to the originating router.
- DRemove the existing L2 header and creates a new L2 header before forwarding the IP packet to its next destination.
82Which of the following highlights the differences between a traditional home user network and the modern home user network?
- ATraditional home networks did not use routers.
- BModern home networks can use wireless access points.
- CModern home networks make use of a variety of new services such as Video
on Demand and IP telephony. - DTraditional home networks did not rely on the IP protocol.
83In a typical home network, when a PC needs to send an IP packet to a destination on the Internet, it first sends the packet to ______.
- AThe designated router
- BThe cable modem
- CThe router indicated in its BGP table
- DThe default gateway
84Which of the following statements regarding NAT is false?
- ANAT is used for many-to-one translations.
- BNAT is intended to alleviate the need for every home user device to have a public IP address.
- CNAT typically makes use of private IP addressing.
- DA NAT router maintains a translation database to perform the address
conversions.
85The process by which a home user’s router requests and receives a public IP address from its service provider is known as ______.
- AARP
- BDHCP
- CICMP
- DOSPF
86Which of the following is false about the DHCP process?
- AThe client broadcasts a discover message looking for DHCP servers.
- BAll DHCP servers will broadcast an offer message.
- CA client will send a unicast accept message to the first DHCP server it receives a response from.
- DAll of the above statements are true.
87The ping application relies on two common ICMP message types. Which answer is not one of these types?
- AThe echo receive ICMP type.
- BThe echo request ICMP type.
- CThe echo reply ICMP type.
- DNone of the above are ICMP message types used by ping.
88Which of the following is true regarding ICMP destination unreachable messages?
- AThey are sent after failure to receive an Ethernet ACK.
- BThey are created by routers that cannot deliver an IP packet to its destination.
- CThey rely on the use of ICMP echo replies.
- DThey are originated by hosts that are about to reboot.
89Which of the following is not usually involved in the ARP process when a host needs to send an IP packet to another host not on its own IP subnet?
- AThe host needs to determine based on its mask that the destination host is not on its local subnet.
- BThe host will issue an ARP request for the MAC address of its default gateway if it is not in its ARP cache.
- CThe default gateway will determine if it needs to issue an ARP request for the destination host .
- DThe default gateway will issue an ARP request for the MAC address of the originating host .
90Which of the following is false regarding IP filters?
- AIP filters are not required on a router interface.
- BIP filters can filter on both IP addresses and upper-layer protocol port numbers.
- CIP filters will automatically permit IP packets by default unless otherwise configured.
- DOnly one ingress and one egress filter can be applied per interface.
91Which of the following is not a match criteria that can be used with IP filters?
- ASource or destination IP address
- BSource or destination port number
- CICMP message type
- DOriginating host name
92Which of the following is not a valid IP filter command?
- Aip-filter 10 create
- Bdefault-action discard
- Centry 1 create
- Dmatch dst-ip 10.5.1.0/24
93Which of the following IP filter entries would match packets from network 11.1.1.0/24 to host 5.1.1.1?
- Amatch src-ip 11.1.1.0/24
- Bmatch dst-ip 5.1.1.1/32
- CA and B together
- DNone of the above
94You are creating a filter to permit packets to destination IP address 192.168.1.1/32. You want all other packets to be dropped. Which of the following commands is not required to support this policy?
- Aip-filter 1 create
- Bdefault-action drop
- Centry 1 create
- Dmatch dst-ip 192.168.1.1/32
95match dst-ip 192.168.1.1/32
- AThe filter’s default action
- BThe interfaces where the filter is applied
- CThe number of ingress and egress matches
- DThe entries in the filter
96Which of the following is not a transport layer protocol?
- ATP4
- BTCP
- CRTP
- DUDP
97Which of the following statements about transport layer protocols is false?
- AMost Internet applications use a transport layer protocol.
- BB. Transport layer protocols can provide both reliable and unreliable services.
- CTransport layer protocols provide end-to-end services for applications.
- DTransport layer protocols require additional software be added to your operating
system.
98Which of the following is not a characteristic of the TCP protocol?
- AReliable data transfer
- BConnectionless operation
- CFlow control supported
- DFull-duplex operation
99Which of the following is not a characteristic of the UDP protocol?
- AReliable data transfer
- BConnectionless operation
- CNo flow control
- DAppropriate for real-time traffic
100Which of the following TCP flags is not matched with the correct definition?
- ASYN—Indicates the start of a TCP connection.
- BACK—Acknowledges that a TCP segment has been received.
- CFIN—Indicates the closing of a TCP session.
- DRST—Re-sets the sequence numbers for a TCP session.
101A TCP sequence or acknowledgment number consists of ______ bits.
- A30
- B64
- C24
- D32
102After a client initiates a connection request to a server with the SYN bit set, the server usually responds with a packet that has the ______ bit set.
- ASYN
- BACK
- CSYN and ACK
- DSYN, ACK, and URG
103Which of the following TCP bits is set to indicate that an application wishes to close an open connection?
- ARST
- BFIN
- CURG
- DACK
104When operating in slow start mode, which of the following describes the mechanisms to throttle the amount of data sent?
- AThe receiver’s advertised window size
- BThe sender’s congestion window and the sender’s advertised window size
- CThe sender’s congestion window and the receiver’s advertised window size
- DThe maximum segment size and the URG pointer
105Which of the following are possible mechanisms by which a TCP sending process could recognize that packets it sent to a receiver had been dropped by the network?
- AAn RSND bit from the receiving TCP process
- BDuplicate ACK numbers
- CAn advertised window size of 0
- DAn ICMP source quench message
106Given the values MSS=1000 bytes, cwnd value=6, window size=5000, and sender’s SN=5000, what will be the ACK number from the receiving station after the sender sends its next set of segments to the receiving station?
- A6000
- B11001
- C11000
- D10000
107Which of the following types of applications would be least likely to use the UDP protocol?
- AA “request-response” application
- BAn application that is sensitive to packet loss
- CAn application that is sensitive to delay
- DA real-time application
108TCP provides many advanced features missing from UDP. Which of the following is an advantage that UDP has over TCP?
- AIt provides reliable data transfer.
- BIt can recover gracefully from packet loss.
- CIt reacts to network congestion.
- DIt adds little overhead to the data transfer.
109Which of the following is least likely to be used as an ephemeral port?
- A1025
- B53212
- C1487
- D65938
110DNS is a unique protocol in terms of its transport selection because simple name lookups use UDP, while “zone transfers” that transfer a large amount of name resolution information from one DNS server to another use TCP. What is the least likely reason for using this approach?
- AName lookups are simple request-response.
- BTCP is a reliable protocol.
- CAn unreliable zone transfer could result in serious name resolution discrepancies in a network.
- DUDP cannot be used for bulk file transfers.
111An IP router normally uses which of the following pieces of information to forward an IP packet?
- AThe destination IP address only
- BThe source and destination IP address
- CThe destination IP address and the destination TCP port
- DThe destination IP address, the TTL, and the ToS
112The two main categories of routing protocols are IGP and ______.
- AOSPF
- BLink state
- CBGP
- DEGP
113Which of the following is not a characteristic of an IGP?
- AIt is intended for networks under a common administrative control.
- BIt is used between ASes.
- CThere are not as many policy enforcement features as an EGP.
- DIt includes distance vector and link state protocols.
114A router can run multiple routing protocols that each have their own table of routing information. A router selects the best route for each destination from all routing sources and puts them in the ______.
- ARouting Link Database
- BRouting Information Base
- CRouting Table
- DARP Table
115Which of the following pairings is not correct?
- AEGP—BGP4
- BLink state—OSPF
- CIGP—RIP
- DDistance vector—IS-IS
116In which situation would you be most likely to use a static default route?
- AIn small networks
- BOn links with only a single path to other routers
- CWhen you have older routers
- DOn a low-bandwidth link
117It is said that distance vector protocols have a longer convergence time than link state protocols. What is the most likely reason for this?
- ALink state protocols send less information.
- BLink state protocols keep track of neighbors via Hello updates.
- CThe shortest path algorithm is much faster to calculate than the calculation performed by a distance vector protocol.
- DDistance vector protocols rely on updates only from neighbors.
118There are many advantages of link state protocols over distance vector protocols. Which of the following is a potential advantage of distance vector?
- ADistance vector sends its entire routing table in updates.
- BDistance vector does not require extensive processing to build the routing table.
- CDistance vector sends updates at timed intervals.
- DDistance vector relies on neighbors to report routing updates.
119When a link state router receives an LSP update, it uses what algorithm to calculate its routing table?
- AOSPF
- BSpanning tree
- CSPF
- DLeast cost
120Which of the following is most likely to be used for forwarding IP packets from a stub network?
- AA static route
- BA default route
- CA floating static route
- DOSPF with the “stub area” feature
121The forwarding of packets on a router is a function of the data plane. The use of a routing protocol to build routing tables is a function of ______.
- AThe routing plane
- BThe control plane
- CThe OSPF plane
- DThe protocol plane
122Link state protocols flood LSP information throughout the network to each router. These LSPs are stored in ______.
- AThe routing table
- BThe FIB
- CThe routing database
- DThe link state database
123If there are multiple identical network prefixes advertised by different routing protocols, the Routing Table Manager chooses the route to place in the routing table based on ______.
- AIt enters a route based on the lowest metric value.
- BIt enters a route based on the highest preference value.
- CIt enters a route based on the lowest preference value.
- DIt enters a route for each protocol in the routing table.
124Using a link state protocol, which of the following best describes the view each router has of all the links in the network after all LSPs have been flooded?
- AEach router has a common view of the network.
- BEach router has a unique view of the network based on its location.
- CEach router knows about only those LSPs originated from its neighbors.
- DEach router knows about all LSPs but uses only LSPs from its neighbors to construct its view.
125Which of the following is the most accurate explanation of the information a distance vector routing protocol sends to neighboring routers?
- AIt sends Hello updates.
- BIt sends its entire routing table.
- CIt floods LSPs.
- DIt sends its entire routing table and its neighbors’ routing tables.
126OSPF discovers neighbors ______.
- AOnly by manually configuring the router
- BBy flooding updates
- CUsing Hello advertisements
- DUsing a host table
127Which of the following is not a feature of the OSPF protocol?
- AIt supports authentication
- BIt provides a loop-free topology.
- CIt uses the Shortest Path First algorithm.
- DIt uses a hop count–based metric.
128Which logical interface is recommended for defining a router ID?
- AEthernet interface
- BChassis interface
- CMAC address
- DSystem interface
129What is the primary purpose of the OSPF router ID?
- ATo elect a designated router
- BTo uniquely identify an OSPF router
- CTo trace sequence numbers
- DTo support LSA flooding
130LSA updates are sent in response to network changes and ______.
- AEvery 30 minutes
- BAfter the Hello timer expires
- CWhen the DR detects the BDR has failed
- DEvery 30 minutes provided new information needs to be transmitted
131What does it mean to say that two OSPF routers are adjacent?
- AThe routers are physically connected on a point-to-point link.
- BThe routers are on a common network segment and have exchanged database
information. - CThe routers have exchanged Hello packets.
- DThe routers are in a single area.
132What is required for OSPF routers on a point-to-point network to form an adjacency?
- AThe DR must form an adjacency first.
- BThe neighbor IP address must be configured.
- CThey will automatically become adjacent provided certain OSPF configuration values match.
- DNothing. OSPF routers on point-to-point links will always become adjacent.
133Which of the following hello packet values is not involved in the adjacency process on point-to-point links?
- AThe area ID
- BThe priority
- CThe Hello timer
- DThe dead timer
134In addition to having correct OSPF settings in the Hello packets, another value that can prevent routers from forming an adjacency in the event of a mismatch is ______.
- AThe AS number
- BThe OSPF MTU
- CThe OSPF metric
- DThe MPLS TE
135The command to display the Link State Updates that a router has received is ______.
- Ashow router ospf status
- Bshow router ospf links
- Cshow router ospf summary
- Dshow router ospf database
136There are many different types of LSAs in OSPF. The most common LSA type in point-to-point networks is ______.
- AThe area LSA
- BThe router LSA
- CThe network LSA
- DThe summary LSA
137If an OSPF router receives an LSA with a sequence number that is equal to the sequence number it already has for that LSA, it will ______.
- ASilently drop the LSA.
- BSend a rejection notice to the sending router.
- CDrop the LSA and send an acknowledgement.
- DDrop the LSA and forward it to its adjacent routers.
138Which of the following is false regarding the Shortest Path First algorithm that OSPF uses?
- AIt determines the optimal route to each network.
- BIt creates a loop-free path to each network.
- CIt is run only on the router that originates an LSA update.
- DIt runs every time a new LSA is received.
139Which of the following correctly identifies the order of steps for two OSPF routers to become fully adjacent?
- AExchange, Loading, SPF, Adjacent
- BExchange, ExStart, Loading
- CExStart, Exchange, Loading, Full
- DExStart, Exchange, Loading, Adjacent
140Which of the following default metrics is not correct for the given interface speed?
- A1 Gbps link = 100
- B16 Mbps link = 6,250
- C1.544 Mbps link = 64,766
- D622 Mbps link = 16
141The primary purpose of an EGP is to ______.
- AHandle large routing tables.
- BDistribute routing information between ASes.
- CSupport routing inside a large enterprise network.
- DProvide a default route to the Internet.
142Which of the following is false regarding ASes?
- AThe assignment of public AS numbers is controlled by RIRs.
- B65,001 is a private AS number.
- CAn IGP is required for routing within the AS.
- DThe AS usually contain routers under the control of different administrative
groups.
143Which logical interface is preferred for creating internal BGP sessions?
- AEthernet interface
- BChassis interface
- CMAC address
- DSystem interface
144Which of the following is true regarding BGP neighbors?
- AThey can be discovered automatically.
- BThey need to be directly connected.
- CThey can be in the same or different AS.
- DNot all internal BGP speakers need to have the same information about
routes outside the AS.
145Two BGP routers configured as neighbors communicate using ______.
- ATCP on a variable port
- BUDP on a fixed port
- CTCP on a fixed port
- DIP using a fixed protocol
146The primary purpose of iBGP is ______.
- ATo ensure that routers inside an AS have a common view of networks outside the AS
- BTo ensure that the IGP has multiple exit points from an AS
- CTo serve as back-up routers to eBGP
- DTo exchange routes with external ASes
147By default, BGP will choose the best path to a given network destination based on ______.
- AThe sum of the interface speeds to a destination
- BThe shortest AS path
- CThe AS that is configured with special non-discretionary attributes
- DThe AS that re-distributed the route from OSPF into BGP
148Once BGP peers establish a connection, they send routing updates to each other
using ______.- AA keep alive message
- BA next-hop update
- CAn update message
- DA networks message
149By looking only at the BGP configuration statements on two routers, you can tell if they are iBGP peers or eBGP peers because ______.
- AThe statement says iBGP or eBGP.
- BThe statement contains the word internal or external.
- CInternal peering statements are configured separately.
- DThe AS number is associated with each peer statement.
150The command to display the status of your BGP process is ______.
- Ashow router bgp process
- Bshow router bgp summary
- Cshow router bgp info
- Dshow router bgp status
151In the event that a previously advertised network becomes unreachable, BGP will ______.
- AAdvertise the route with a null AS-path.
- BTear down the peer connection.
- CSend a withdraw message.
- DUpdate its route table but take no other action.
152In which of the following situations would you be least likely to use BGP?
- AA service provider with multiple connections to other providers
- BAn enterprise with multiple connections to the same ISP
- CAn enterprise with multiple connections to different ISPs
- DA service provider with a single connection to a higher-level ISP
153The three well-known mandatory attributes in BGP are ______.
- AOrigin, AS-path, and community
- BAS-path, community, and next-hop
- CAS-path, peer, and next-hop
- DAS-path, origin, and next-hop
154A BGP router usually does not need to receive a full Internet routing table if ______.
- AIt is the single exit point for an AS.
- BIt is one of several exit points from an AS.
- CIt is part of a transit AS.
- DIt is providing updates to downstream providers.
155All of the following are reasons that using BGP between ASes is preferable to using IGP route re-distribution except ______.
- ARoute re-distribution loses the metrics of the original IGP.
- BRoute re-distribution can lead to routing loops.
- CBGP provides a consistent interface for route exchange across various ASes.
- DRoute re-distribution provides for greater policy control.
156Which of the following accurately describes a P device?
- AIt is used exclusively by the customer.
- BIt is responsible for adding and removing labels.
- CIt swaps label information and forwards packets.
- DIt creates an LSP in the provider network.
157Which of the following is false regarding an SDP?
- AIt provides transport tunnel encapsulation.
- BIt is specific to a single service.
- CThe SDP ID is locally unique.
- DLDP can be used as the signalling protocol.
158Which of the following is not an accurate description of a VPN?
- AA series of point-to-point tunnels configured on client equipment
- BA tunnel technology created in a provider network
- CA function of MPLS networks to create private communities of users
- DAny network that includes encryption
159Which of the following is false regarding LDP?
- AIt is used to define unidirectional paths through the network.
- BIt is a protocol specifically intended for label distribution.
- CIt is the only method for distributing labels in an MPLS network.
- DIt describes a path through the MPLS network based on the IGP path.
160Which of the following term–definition pairs is incorrect?
- APush—Add a label
- BSwap—Replace a label
- CLabel distribution protocol—Series of labels and next-hop interfaces
- DPop—Remove a label
161The most commonly used label distribution protocol is ______.
- AOSPF
- BBGP
- CLDP
- DRIP
162Which of the following is not a type of VPN?
- AVPWS
- BVPNM
- CVPLS
- DVPRN
163A VPN that provides a simple point-to-point service between two destinations is a ______.
- AVPNM
- BVPLS
- CVPWS
- DNone of the above
164The VPN service that must maintain a table of MAC addresses is ______.
- AVPWS
- BVPLS
- CVPRN
- DBoth A and B
165The VPN service that requires encryption is ______.
- AVPRN
- BVPNM
- CVPLS
- DNone of the above
166The VPN service that appears to the customer as a private routed network is ______.
- AVPNM
- BVPRN
- CVPLS
- DVPWS
167As a packet traverses an MPLS network, it passes through a router that removes one label and replaces it with another. The router it passed through was a ______ router.
- APE
- BCE
- CLER
- DP
168A packet arrives at a router with a label, and the router cannot perform any operations on it. The router is most likely a ______.
- ALSR
- BPE
- CLER
- DNone of the above
169In an MPLS network, the customer routers have no knowledge of how the MPLS features are implemented. The benefits of this include ______.
- AIt makes CE configuration easier.
- BIt allows for very scalable VPN solutions.
- CIt lowers CE management overhead.
- DAll of the above
170The relationship between LDP and an IGP is best described as
- ALDP paths are preferred over IGP routes.
- BLDP uses IGP next-hop information.
- CLDP re-distributes labels into IGP.
- DIGP tags network destinations with LDP information.
Información
- Descripción
- ACCA Digital Technologies Test sobre NRS-1 Questions 2 , creado por ryan abbott el 24/05/2018.
- Autor
- ryan abbott
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- English
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