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SFPC (Possible Test Questions)
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Preguntas del test (55)
1Two security professionals – Jo and Chris – are discussing the contracting process.
Jo says that the Federal Acquisition Regulation governs the process the federal government uses to acquire or purchase goods and services.
Chris says that although the Federal Acquisition Regulation’s intent is to provide uniform and government-wide policies and procedures for acquisition, the Department of Defense has issued a supplemental acquisition regulation called the DFAR.
Who is correct?- AJo is correct.
- BChris is correct.
- CJo and Chris are both correct.
- DJo and Chris are both incorrect.
2Two security professionals – Jo and Chris – are discussing the Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR).
Jo says that, to be awarded a contract, a bidder needs to show that his or her organization it meets the FAR provisions of that contract.
Chris says that a bidder can be awarded a contract with FAR provisions if his or her organization can demonstrate that it will be able to comply with those provisions at the time of the contract award.
Who is correct?- AJo is correct.
- BChris is correct.
- CJo and Chris are both correct.
- DJo and Chris are both incorrect.
3Working papers need to be finalized or destroyed after how many days?
- A180 Days
- B90 Days
- C30 Days
- D7 Days
4FOUO becomes legacy it turns into?
- ACUI
- BUNCLASSIFIED
- CCIA
- DFBI
5Banner Line Markings start with what first?
- ACLASSIFICATION
- BDATE
- CORIGINATORS NAME
- DORGANIZATIONS NAME
6Definition of BIOMETRIC:
"Measurable Physical characteristics or personal behavior traits used to recognize the identity, or verify the claimed identity. Fingerprints, Iris, handwriting, voice recognition."- ATrue
- BFalse
7Contractors are automatically authorized to do work at the level of the DD254.
- ATrue
- BFalse
8What are the 3 SAP categories?
- AAquisition
- BIntelligence
- COperations and Support
- DAcknowledged
9Couring information within a hotel room is allowed as long as it’s locked in a safe and the courier is in the room.
- ATrue
- BFalse
10CNWDI, RD and FRD are categories which fall under which department?
- ADept. Of Energy (DOE)
- BDept. Of Defense (DoD)
- CCIA
- DFBI
11What is a Security Violation?
- AAn event that results in or could be expected to result in the loss or compromise of classified information
- BThis event cannot reasonably be expected to and does not result in the loss, compromise, or suspected compromise of classified information.
12What is a Security Infraction?
- AThis event cannot reasonably be expected to and does not result in the loss, compromise, or suspected compromise of classified information.
- BAn event that results in or could be expected to result in the loss or compromise of classified information
13What is the form number for a Top Secret coversheet?
- A703
- B704
- C705
- D702
14What is the form number for a Secret coversheet?
- A703
- B704
- C705
- D701
15What is the form number for a Confidential coversheet?
- A703
- B704
- C705
- D706
16If someone accidentally gave a foreign entity access to classified information, which guideline would it fall under?
- AUse of Information Technology Systems
- BUse of Information DoD Systems
- CUse of Classified Systems
- DUse of Unclassified Systems
17SCATTERED CASTLES:
"Intelligence Community (IC) Personnel Security Database that verifies personnel security access and visit certifications."- ATrue
- BFalse
18What is the RMF six-step process?
- ACategorize Information Systems
- BSelect Security Controls
- CImplement Security Controls
- DAssess Security Controls
- EAuthorize Information System
- FMonitor Security Controls
- GAccountability Measures
- HImplement Cyber Controls
- IRisk Assessment
19Vault doors have non-removable hinge pins.
- ATrue
- BFalse
20What is the highest classification a contractor can courier overseas?
- AUnclassified
- BSecret
- CConfidential
- DTop Secret
21Access for a retired flag/general officer?
- A3 Months
- B3 Years
- C6 Months
- D6 Years
22Industrial is NOT SAP is not a category
- ATrue
- BFalse
23Who controls the list of approved shredders?
- ANSA
- BGSA
- CBSA
- DAA
24What are the threat levels?
- ALow
- BModerate
- CSignificant
- DHigh
- E(D) Delta
- F(C) Charlie
- G(B) Bravo
- H(A) Alpha
- I(N) Normal
25What are the levels for FPCON?
- ALow
- BModerate
- CSignificant
- DHigh
- E(N) Normal
- F(A) Alpha
- G(B) Bravo
- H(C) Charlie
- I(D) Delta
26Key word for (N) Normal FPCON?
- AGENERAL THREAT
- BINCREASED GENERAL THREAT
- CMORE PREDICTABLE
- DLIKELY
- EIMMINENT
27Key word for (A) FPCON?
- AGENERAL THREAT
- BINCREASED GENERAL THREAT
- CMORE PREDICTABLE THREAT
- DLIKELY
- EIMMINENT
28Key word for (B) Normal FPCON?
- AGENERAL THREAT
- BINCREASED GENERAL THREAT
- CMORE PREDICTABLE THREAT
- DLIKELY
- EIMMINENT
29Key word for (C) Normal FPCON?
- AGENERAL THREAT
- BINCREASED GENERAL THREAT
- CMORE PREDICTABLE THREAT
- DLIKELY
- EIMMINENT
30Key word for (D) Normal FPCON?
- AGENERAL THREAT
- BINCREASED GENERAL THREAT
- CMORE PREDICTABLE THREAT
- DLIKELY
- EIMMINENT
31What are the 5 OPSEC steps?
- AIdentify Critical Information
- BAnalyze Threats
- CAnalyze Vulnerabilities
- DAssess Risks
- EApply Countermeasures
- FAssess Vulnerabilities
- GCounter Risks
32What is the purpose of marking classified materials?
- ATo alert holders to the presence of classified information, how to properly protect it, and for how long.
- BTo deter foreign adversaries from committing actions aimed at accessing such information.
- CTo provide guidance for interpretation and analysis of classified information.
- DTo alert holders to the methods used to collect classified information.
33What is included in the markings of classified information?
- ADerivative classifier as the authority to make declassification determinations.
- BAgencies and authorities that have previously accessed the classified information.
- CDocument holder as the sole authority to make transfer and dissemination determinations.
- DSources and reasons for the classification.
34When a classified data spill occurs, who is responsible for ensuring that policy requirements for addressing an unauthorized disclosure are met?
- AActivity Security Manager
- BInformation Assurance Staff
- CInformation Assurance Manager
- DInformation Assurance Officer
35The inability to deny you are the sender of an email would be an indication of a lapse in:
- ANon-Repudiation
- BConfidentiality
- CIntegrity
- DAvailability
36Which of the following is the first action done to downgrade, declassify or remove classification markings?
- AThrough the appropriate chain of command, contact the original classification authority (OCA) to confirm that information does not have an extended classification period.
- BChange the classification authority block to indicate “Declassify ON:” to show the new declassification instructions.
- CTake all classification markings off the document and redistribute.
- DRequest a waiver from the Information Security Oversight. Office (ISOO) to remove the declassification markings.
37What is the purpose of the Personnel Security Program (PSP)?
- ATo define original classification for DoD assets and information.
- BTo designate individuals for positions requiring access to classified information.
- CTo ensure that only loyal, trustworthy, and reliable individuals may access classified information or perform sensitive duties.
- DTo describe the safeguarding requirements personnel must employ when handling classified materials at a cleared contractor facility.
38Which of the following is considered an element of the Personnel Security Program (PSP)?
- ARisk Assessment and Analysis
- BImplementation
- CClassification
- DContinuous Evaluation
39Which of the following is not qualifying criteria for personnel assigned to nuclear weapons personnel reliability assurance positions?
- AIndividual must be a U.S. Citizen
- BIndividual has a security clearance eligibility in accordance with the position
- CIndividual is subject to a periodic reinvestigation every three years
- DIndividual must be continuous evaluated
40Copies of personnel security investigative reports must be destroyed by DoD recipient organizations, within how many days following completion of the necessary personnel security determination?
- A30 Days
- B45 Days
- C60 Days
- D90 Days
41Which of the following limitations is true regarding Limited Access Authorization (LAA) to non-U.S. citizens?
- ALAAs shall only be granted access at the Secret and Confidential levels.
- BA favorably completed and adjudicated Tier 3 or National Agency Check with Local Agency Check (NACLC).
- CAn LAA is the same as a security clearance eligibility.
- DAccess to classified information Is not limited to a specific program or project.
42___________ is the security system performance goal of immediate indication of deliberate attempts, security probing and warning for inadvertent or mistaken intention is an example of which system security capability?
- ADeterrence
- BDetect
- CDelay
- DDistract
43Which of the following would be considered a public safety crime?
- ATheft of ammunition shipment for the purpose of criminal or gang related activity.
- BTheft of sensitive, proprietary information relating to US aerospace and defense technologies.
- CDeliberate destruction of DoD assets or interruption of normal operations.
- DTheft of an item and use of it outside of its intended purpose or without permission.
44Two security professionals – Paul and Ashley – are discussing the security procedures for visits and meetings.
Paul says visits must serve a specific U.S. Government purpose.
Ashley says DoD Components should, as a minimum, establish procedures that include verification of the identity, personnel security clearance, access (if appropriate), and need-to-know for all visitors.
Who is correct?- APaul is correct.
- BAshley is correct.
- CPaul and Ashley are both correct.
- DPaul and Ashley are both incorrect.
45Executive Order 12829, signed in January 1993, mandated that which of the following entities be responsible for implementing and monitoring the National industrial Security Program (NISP)?
- ADirector of the Information Security Oversight Office (ISOO)
- BSecretary of Defense
- CNational Security Council (NSC)
- DDirector, Defense Security Services (DSS)
46Which of the following describes a Special Access Program (SAP) that is established to protect sensitive research, development, testing and evaluation, modification, and procurement activities?
- AResearch and Technology SAP
- BOperations and Support SAP
- CAcquisition SAP
- DIntelligence SAP
47Which type of briefing is used to identify security responsibilities, provide a basic understanding of DoD security policies, and explain the importance of protecting government assets?
- AIndoctrination Briefing
- BOriginal Classification Authority (OCA) Briefing
- CForeign Travel Briefing
- DDebriefing
48Which type of briefing is used to reinforce the information provided during the initial security briefing and to keep cleared employees informed of appropriate changes in security regulations?
- AAnnual Refresher Briefings
- BIndoctrination Briefings
- CAttestation Briefings
- DCourier Briefings
49Which step of the Operations Security (OPSEC) process would be applied when conducting exercises, red teaming and analyzing operations?
- AConduct a Risk Assessment
- BApply OPSEC Countermeasures
- CConduct a Threat Analysis
- DConduct a Vulnerability Analysis
50Which step of the Operations Security (OPSEC) process would be applied when identifying potential adversaries and the associated capabilities and intentions to collect, analyze, and exploit critical information and indicators?
- AConduct a Vulnerability Analysis
- BConduct a Threat Analysis
- CConduct a Risk Assessment
- DApply OPSEC Countermeasures
51Who’s responsibility is it during the categorize steps to identify a potential impact (low, moderate, or high) due to loss of confidentiality, integrity, and availability if a security breach occurs?
- AInformation System Owner (ISO)
- BInformation Owner (IO)
- CInformation System Security Manager (ISSM)
- DAuthorizing Official (AO)
52Which of the following is NOT a category of Information Technology (IT)?
- APlatform Information Technology (PIT)
- BInformation Technology Services
- CInformation Technology Products
- DInformation Technology Applications
53What step within the Risk Management Framework (RMF) does system categorization occur?
- ACategorize Information System
- BSelect Security Controls
- CImplement Security Controls
- DAssess Security Controls
- EAuthorize
- FMonitor Security Controls
54At what step of the Risk Management Framework (RMF) would you develop a system-level continuous monitoring strategy?
- ACategorize Information System
- BSelect Security Controls
- CImplement Security Controls
- DAssess Security Controls
- EAuthorize
- FMonitor Security Controls
55One responsibility of the Information System Security Manager (ISSM) during Step 6 of the Risk Management Framework (RMF) is:
- AReview and approve the security plan and system-level continuous monitoring strategy developed and implemented by the DoD Components.
- BMonitor the system for security relevant events and
configuration changes that affect the security posture
negatively. - CDetermine and documents a risk level in the Security Assessment Report (SAR) for every non-compliant security control in the system baseline.
- DCoordinate the organization of the Information System (IS) and Platform Information Technology (PIT) systems with the Program Manager (PM)/System Manager (SM), Information System Owner (ISO), Information Owner (IO), mission owner(s), Action Officer (AO) or their designated representatives.
Información
- Descripción
- SFPC SPeD Practice Quiz
- Autor
- Casey Neville
- Idioma
- English
- Visitas
- 11.688
- Etiquetas
- Valoración
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