Test
Vaccines, Preventative Care and Neonatology
Este test tiene tipos de pregunta que se abren en el reproductor de siempre.
Preguntas del test (75)
1When is a glucose tolerance test conducted during pregnancy?
- AAs soon as the pregnancy is discovered
- BAt 36 weeks when the pregnancy is at term
- C24-28 weeks
- D35-37 weeks
2When should a group B strep culture be conducted during a pregnancy?
- AAt the end of the 1st trimester
- B35-37 weeks
- C24-28 weeks
- D27-36 weeks
3During what time period should a pregnant mother receive a Tdap?
- A27-36 weeks
- BPrior to conception
- CAt birth/delivery
- D35-37 weeks
4What are the ABC's of initial pediatric assessment? (Check all that apply)
- ABreathing
- BActivity
- CAppearance
- DBlinking
- EConciousness
- FCirculation
5Newborn screening test newborns for conditions that are not detected by physical examination.
- AVerdadero
- BFalso
6What diseases can be detected by newborn screening? (Check all that apply)
- ANon-Hodgkin's Lymphoma
- BSickle Cell Disease
- CCystic Fibrosis
- DEndometriosis
- ERheumatoid Arthritis
- FHomocystinuria
- GPKU
- HPrimary Congenital Hypothyroidism
7Breastfeeding should be started within the first [blank_start]hour[blank_end] of life and continued for at [blank_start]least[blank_end] [blank_start]six[blank_end] months.
- Aday
- Bhour
- Cminute
- Dweek
- Eleast
- Fmost
- Gtwelve
- Hfive
- Inine
- Jsix
8Babies being placed on their back to sleep came from the 1994 "Back to Sleep" campaign to reduce what?
- ANeonatal Abstinence Syndrome
- BInfant Suffication
- CAsthma
- DSudden Infant Death Syndrome
9At what age should children play peek-a-boo, say mama or dada and stand alone or take steps?
- A12 months
- B18 months
- C24 months
- D9 months
10Children should display what developmental milestones at 2 years? (Select all that apply)
- AName items in a picture book
- BComplete potty-training
- CShow defiant behavior
- DConstruct short sentences
11An oral syringe should always be used to dose liquids for children.
- AVerdadero
- BFalso
12[blank_start]1-800-222-1222[blank_end] is the phone number to poison control.
- A1-800-222-1222
13Things that can fit through a toilet paper roll can kill a child under 5.
- AVerdadero
- BFalso
14Which of the following are reasons that pediatric pharmacokinetics are different than adult pharmacokinetics?
- ACYP450 enzymes are still developing
- BInfants lack significant stomach acid
- CAll of these are reasons
- DInfants have more body water
15Which of the following is not a reason for increased percutaneous drug absorption in pediatrics?
- AChildren have larger surface area to mass ratio
- BChildren have greater skin hydration
- CChildren have greater muscle mass
- DChildren have thinner skin
16A higher percentage of body water in infants leads to a larger volume of distribution
- AVerdadero
- BFalso
17Why do infants and neonates have higher free fraction of drugs?
- AHigher body water percentage
- BLower protein stores
- CLower muscle mass
- DHigher surface area to body mass ratio
18What dose should be the absolute maximum dose for an obese child?
- AThe extrapolated dose based on the child's weight
- BThe dose at which results are seen
- CThe adult maximum dose
- DThe dose at which providers are comfortable with based on individual factors
19What is meconium?
- AA term used for the first cry
- BA term used for the first bowel movement
- CA term used to describe the birth crawl
- DAn element on the periodic table that only infants possess
20Why is the APGAR scoring system used?
- ATo determine if an infant is normal at birth
- BTo determine if the infant will experience genetic abnormalities through out life
- CTo assess for disease at birth
- DTo put parents at ease
21The first A in APGAR stands for [blank_start]appearance[blank_end] and is used to determine if a neonate's [blank_start]color[blank_end] is normal.
- Aappearance
- Bactivity
- Cangiogenesis
- Dcolor
- Emuscle tone
- Fvisible blood vessels
22The P in APGAR stands for [blank_start]pulse[blank_end]
- Apulse
23The GAR in APGAR stands for which of the following
- AGrimace, Activity, Respiration
- BGrin, Action, Respiration
- CGrimace, Action, Reflex
- DGrim, Activity, Reflex
24Which of the following prophylaxis treatments and disorders are correctly matched
- AGonococcal ophthalmia-erythromycin ointment or silver nitrate solution
- BChlamydia- Oral amoxicillin
- CVitamin K deficiency- IM phytonadione
- DPlatelet aggregation-enoxaparin
25What is respiratory distress syndrome?
- AThe name given to a condition in which infants are born with only one lung
- BA developmental disorder in which lungs are immature at birth
- CCystic Fibrosis when diagnosed in utero
- DLack of airway operation due to asthma or COPD at birth
26[blank_start]Surfactant[blank_end] deficiency, poor [blank_start]muscle[blank_end] development and incomplete development in the lungs are common causes of respiratory distress syndrome and typically seen in neonates less than [blank_start]28[blank_end] weeks.
- A28
- BSurfactant
- Cmuscle
27Which of the following is a common sign that an infant is struggling to breath?
- ANasal flaring
- BNasal salute
- CExcessive sleeping
- DHyperactivity
28Why is surfactant given to neonates experiencing respiratory distress syndrome? (Select all that apply)
- AIt is the most simple and quickest treatment
- BTo cause an increase in alveolar surface tension
- CIt has been proven to reduce mortality and morbidity
- DNone of these
- EAll of these
- FTo replace deficient amounts
29What are tocolytics?
- ADrugs used to induce labor or contractions
- BDrugs used to stop labor or contractions
- CDrugs used during a cesarean section
- DDrugs used to increase fetal lung development
30[blank_start]Indomethacin[blank_end] is given at 24-32 weeks to halt labor while [blank_start]calcium channel blockers[blank_end] are given at 32-34 weeks. [blank_start]magnesium sulfate[blank_end] is used for neuroprotective effects.
- AIndomethacin
- BCalcium Channel Blockers
- CMagnesium sulfate
- Dcalcium channel blockers
- Emagnesium sulfate
- Findomethacin
- Gmagnesium sulfate
- Hindomethacin
- Icalcium channel blockers
31Antenatal steroids are given to treat respiratory distress syndrome. Why?
- AThey are thought to decrease overall morbidity and mortality
- BThey decrease the incidence of intraventricular hemorrhage
- CThey decrease the incidence of patent ductus arteriosus
- DAll of these are reasons to give antenatal steriods
32Which of the following drugs and drug classes is correctly matched as first line therapy for bronchopulmonary dysplasia?
- AHCTZ (Diuretic)
- BTheophylline (Bronchodialator)
- CInhaled Prednisone (Corticosteroid)
- DFurosemide (Potassium supplement)
33Hypoxemia, reflex bradycardia, resuscitation and organ damage are concerns of what condition associated with prematurity?
- ALow birth weight
- BRespiratory distress syndrome
- CApnea
- DBronchopulmonary Dysplasia
34There is a positive correlation between the incidence of neonatal apnea and [blank_start]low birth weight[blank_end]
- Alow birth weight
- Bfetal lung development
- Ccystic fibrosis
- Dasthma
35Prevention of apnea is thought to occur by competitively inhibiting adenosine. Which of the following drugs is thought to do this and thus is used to treat apnea?
- ACarbon dioxide
- BTheophylline
- CCaffeine
- DAzothioprine
36In utero the blood flow from the placenta goes through the [blank_start]right[blank_end] side of the heart and bypasses the lungs via the [blank_start]ductus arteriosus[blank_end]
- Aductus arteriosus
- Bright
37What is the name of the condition when the ductus does not normally close on its own?
- AOpen ductus
- BPatent ductus arteriosus
- CInfantile coronary artery syndrome
- DEarly onset atrial fibrilation
38What pharmacologic therapy is used to treat patent ductus arteriosus?
- AACE inhibitors
- BCalcium Channel Blockers
- CBeta Blockers
- DProstaglandin inhibitors
39Ductal dependent [blank_start]congenital heart disease[blank_end] is the only reason to keep the patent ductus arteriosus open.
- Acongenital heart disease
- Bcongenital heart defect
- Carteriole bypass
- Darteriole stenosis
40This drug causes vasodilation by direct effect on vascular and ductus arteriosus smooth muscle to keep the patent ductus arteriosus open.
- AIbuprofen
- BIndomethacin
- CPseudophedrine
- DAlprostail
41Match each of the congenital heart defects with their descriptions
[blank_start]Atrial Septal Defect[blank_end] -Opening between atria
[blank_start]Ventricular Septal Defect[blank_end] -Opening between ventricles
[blank_start]Coarctation of Aorta[blank_end] -Narrowing of the aorta
[blank_start]Transposition of Great Arteries[blank_end] -Vessel connection of aorta and pulmonary artery
[blank_start]Tetralogy of Fallot[blank_end] -Opening between ventricles, right ventricular outflow obstruction and right aorta shift
[blank_start]Hypoplastic Left Heart Syndrome[blank_end] -Underdeveloped left ventricle, opening between atria, small aorta, vessel connecting aorta and pulmonary artery- ATransposition of Great Arteries
- BAtrial Septal Defect
- CVentricular Septal Defect
- DCoarctation of Aorta
- ETetralogy of Fallot
- FHypoplastic Left Heart Syndrome
- GHypoplastic Left Heart Syndrome
- HTetralogy of Fallot
- IAtrial Sepatal Defect
- JVentricular Septal Defect
- KCoarctation of Aorta
- LTransposition of Great Arteries
- MAtrial Septal Defect
- NVentricular Septal Defect
- OCoarctation of Aorta
- PTransposition of Great Arteries
- QTetralogy of Fallot
- RHypoplastic Left Heart Syndrome
- SVentricular Septal Defect
- TAtrial Septal Defect
- UCoarctation of Aorta
- VTransposition of Great Arteries
- WTetralogy of Fallot
- XHypoplastic Left Heart Syndrome
- YCoarctation of Aorta
- ZTransposition of Great Arteries
- AATetralogy of Fallot
- ABHypoplastic Left Heart Syndrome
- ACAtrial Septal Defect
- ADVentricular Septal Defect
- AETetralogy of Fallot
- AFTransposition of Great Arteries
- AGHypoplastic Left Heart Syndrome
- AHAtrial Septal Defect
- AIVentricular Septal Defect
- AJCoarctation of Aorta
42Early onset sepsis occurs in the first [blank_start]7 days[blank_end], typically manifests as [blank_start]pneumonia[blank_end] and is caused by bacteria from [blank_start]the mother[blank_end]. Late onset sepsis occurs afters the first [blank_start]7 days[blank_end], typically manifests as [blank_start]meningitis and sepsis[blank_end] and is caused by bacteria from [blank_start]the environment[blank_end].
- A7 days
- B14 days
- C30 days
- D90 days
- Epneumonia
- Fear infection
- Gdifficulty breathing
- Hheart problems
- Ithe mother
- Jthe environment
- Kformula
- Lneonatal cleaning
- M7 days
- N14 days
- O30 days
- P90 days
- Qmeningitis and sepsis
- Rcold
- Spneumonia
- Tcystic fibrosis
- Uthe environment
- Vformula feedings
- Wthe mother
- Xnosicomial setting
43Listeria monocytogenes, E. Coli, Group B strep and H. influemzae are the common bacteria causing what?
- AThe common cold
- BHospital Acquired Pneumonia in infants
- CEarly Onset Sepsis
- DLate Onset Sepsis
44Which of the the following are typically used to treat early onset sepsis? (Select all that apply)
- AAmoxicillin +/- Clavulanate
- BAmpicillin
- CLevofloxacin
- DZosyn
- EAminoglycosides
- FCefotaxime
- GCeftriaxone
- HCeftaroline
45Late onset sepsis is usually treated with what?
- ARest and BRAT diet
- BBroad spectrum antibiotics
- CAnti-viral or anti-retroviral therapy
- DAmoxicillin
46TORCH is an acronym for a group of diseases that cause what due to in utero exposure?
- Acongenital conditions
- Bchronic conditions
- Cneurodegenerative conditions
- Dgenetic conditions
47The acronym TORCH stands for [blank_start]taxoplasmosis[blank_end], [blank_start]other[blank_end], [blank_start]rubella[blank_end], [blank_start]cytomegalovirus[blank_end], [blank_start]herpes infection[blank_end].
- Ataxoplasmosis
- Btrichomoniasis
- Cother
- Doligobacteria
- Erubella
- Frabies
- Gcytomegalovirus
- HChlamydia
- Iherpes infection
- JH. influenzae
48Toxoplasmosis is caused by [blank_start]Toxoplasma gondii[blank_end] which is a [blank_start]protozoan parasite[blank_end] found in the feces of [blank_start]cats[blank_end] and contaminated [blank_start]meat or vegetables[blank_end].
- AToxoplasma gondii
- BTreponema pallidum
- CToxoplasma denticola
- Dbacteria
- Eprotozoan parasite
- Fvirus
- Gcats
- Hdogs
- Ifish
- Jhamsters/rodents
- Kmeat or vegetables
- Lfruit or vegetables
- Mbeans or poultry
49Select all correctly matched congenitally acquired infectious diseases and their treatments
- AVibrio cholerae- Amoxicillin
- BTrepodema pallidum -Penicillin G for 10 days
- CE. coli -Vancomycin
- DStreptococcus faecalis - Ceftriaxone
- EKlebsiella pneumoniae -Metronidazole
- FCytomegalovirus -Ganciclovir
50Match the congenitally acquired infectious diseases with their treatment.
Chlamydia trachomatis -[blank_start]systemic erythromycin or azithromycin[blank_end]
[blank_start]Hepatitis B[blank_end] - Vaccine and HBIG within 12 hours of birth
Herpes Simplex - [blank_start]High dose acyclovir[blank_end]- Asystemic erythromycin or azithromycin
- Boral vancomycin
- CIM cefazolin
- DHepatitis A
- EHepatitis B
- FHepatitis C
- GHIV
- HHigh dose acyclovir
- ILow dose valacyclovir
- JGancyclovir
- KValgancyclovir
51Finnergan Score is used to assess [blank_start]neonatal abstinence syndrome[blank_end].
- Aneonatal abstinence syndrome
52Which of the following are first line treatments for neonatal abstinence syndrome? (Select all that apply)
- Adiazepam
- Bmorphine
- Chydromorphone
- Doxycodone
- Ephenobarbital
- Fmethadone
- Gclonidine
- Hpseudoephedrine
53[blank_start]TDAP[blank_end] vaccine is recommended more for the protection of children and infants and should be given every 10 years.
- ATDAP
54What recombinant vaccine is recommended for immunocompromised individuals aged 50 and older?
- ATdap
- BShingrix
- CHiB
- DPrevnar 13
55[blank_start]High dose[blank_end] or [blank_start]adjuvanted IIV[blank_end] are formulation of influenza vaccines recommended for people aged 65 and older.
- AHigh dose
- BIM
- CIntranasal
- Dlow dose
- Eadjuvanted IIV
- Frecombinant
56Prevnar (PCV 13) and Pneumovax (PPSV23) are pneumococcal vaccinces recommended for whom?
- AAdults 65 and older
- BAdults 55 and older with a comorbidity
- CImmunocompetent individuals
- DA and C
- EAll of the above
- FNone of the above
57The maximum number of doses of Pneumovax (PPSV23) that any person should receive is [blank_start]three[blank_end] with each dose being a minimum of [blank_start]five[blank_end] [blank_start]years[blank_end] apart.
- Athree
- Btwo
- Cfour
- Dfive
- Efive
- Fthree
- Gtwo
- Hfour
- Iyears
- Jmonths
- Kdays
- Lweeks
58When is the first dose of hepatitis B vaccine given?
- AAt the first well baby check up
- BAt birth
- CAt 3 months
- DAt hospital discharge
59The minimum age for HPV vaccination is what?
- Athirteen in boys and nine in girls
- Bnine
- Cthirteen
- Dnine in boys and thirteen in girls
- Epuberty in box sexes
60The [blank_start]second[blank_end] dose of the meningococcal vaccine is given at [blank_start]sixteen[blank_end].
- Asecond
- Bfirst
- Cthird
- Dthirteen
- Esixteen
- Feighteen
61IIV formulation of the influenza vaccine can be given at what age minimum?
- ANo age minimum
- B5 years
- C12 months
- D6 months
62What vaccines are recommended for all pregnant women? (Select all that apply)
- ATdap
- BInfluenza
- CDTap
- DHiB
- EHerpes Zoster
63Adults younger than 60 years old with [blank_start]diabetes[blank_end] are a high risk indication for the [blank_start]Hepatitis B[blank_end] vaccine
- AHepatitis B
- Bdiabetes
64Patients who smoke cigarettes should receive what vaccine if they are older than 18 and younger than 65?
- AInfluenza
- BHepatitis B
- CPneumovax (PPSV23)
- DTdap
65Which of the following should be given to an AIDs patient (CD4 less than 200)?
- AShingles
- BVaricella
- CMMR
- DAll of these
- ENone of these
66An aspleenic person should be given which of the following vaccines to protect against encapsulated organisms? (Select all that apply)
- AHiB
- BPneumococcal
- CMeningococcal
- DInfluenza
- EVaricella
- FMMR
67Proper hydration and arm movement do what post-immunization?
- ANothing
- BReduce soreness
- CProvide synergistic effects for the vaccine
- DPrevent post-vaccine illness
68What year was mercury removed from vaccines except multidose flu vials?
- A1995
- B2000
- C2005
- D2010
69Acetaminophen and Ibuprofen have been shown to reduce what?
- AInflammation after vaccination
- BImmune response after vaccination
- CVaccine associated fever
- DAll of these
70Undervaccinated or unvaccincated people exposed to diseases in other countries are typically patient 0 during outbreaks.
- AVerdadero
- BFalso
71What vaccines are contraindicated during pregnancy
- AAll vaccines
- BLive vaccines
- CConjugate vaccines
- DToxoid vaccines
72What is the Advisory Committee on Immunization Practices?
- AThe group who approves vaccine schedules
- BA division of the CDC
- CA division of the FDA
- DA division of the Department of Health and Human Services
73The first dose followed by a second dose in 1 to 2 months and a third dose in 6 months is the dosing schedule for what vaccine?
- AHPV
- BHiB
- CInfluenza
- DVaricella
74A patient should first be given [blank_start]PCV13[blank_end] followed by [blank_start]PPSV23[blank_end] [blank_start]one year[blank_end] later.
- APCV13
- BPPSV23
- CMenactra
- DInfluenza vaccine
- EPPSV23
- FPCV13
- GHiB
- HYellow fever vaccine
- Isix months
- Jone year
- Ktwo years
- Lfive years
75Andrew Wakefield is the British physician who fabricated data in a publication that lead to the belief that vaccines cause autism. What was the name of the publication?
- AThe Needle Stick
- BAutism Errupts
- CAutism Conspiracy
- DThe Lancet
Información
- Descripción
- Pediatric pharmacy questions from BGCOP Spring 2018
- Autor
- Cara Carter
- Idioma
- English
- Visitas
- 34
- Etiquetas
- Valoración
- Aún sin valoraciones Valora este test