Test
AE MQF 10 Jan 2015
Crea una cuenta gratis para terminar este test
Guarda tu progreso y consulta tu resultado final.
¿Ya tienes cuenta? Inicia sesión
Preguntas del test (100)
1OG/CC shall define local operating procedures to AFI11-2AEV3 in a unit supplement?
- AVerdadero
- BFalso
2Operating procedures, techniques, etc., which could result in personal injury or loss of life define a ______________
- AWarning
- BCaution
- CNote
- DSuggestion
3Waiver authority for contents of AFI 11-2AE V3 is the ______
- AHQ AMC Stan/Eval
- BTACC
- CAir and Space Operations Center
- DMAJCOM/A3/DO with mission execution authority
4During operational aeromedical evacuation missions no later than ___ hour prior to landing a crew member will make the following call to update arrival time and provide _____
- A2 / DD Form 2852, Aeromedical Evacuation Event/Near Miss Report
- B2 / request for fleet service
- C1 / AF IMT 3858, Aeromedical Evacuation Mission Offload Message information
- DNone fo the above
5The MCD will coordinate with PIC to establish immediate communication with TACC/AOC and PMRC anytime:
- AA patient is removed from flight
- BA change is patient status
- CMission irregularities or equipment/transportation requirements
- DAll the above
6A basic AE crew consists of ___/____ for AE missions IAW AFI 11-2AE V3 (EXCEPTION for C-21 missions)
- A3 Flight Nurses and 2 Technicians
- B5 total AECs
- C1 FN/ 4 AETs
- D2 FN/ 3 AET
7Once an aircrew begins a basic FDP, only MAJCOM/A3/DO may extend to augment day regardless of aircrew composition
- AVerdadero
- BFalso
8The PIC with an augmented crew may accept an augmented FDP as long as:
- AThe C2 agent or PIC discovers the extenuating circumstances before the first takeoff of the day
- BPIC verifies all augmenting aircrew members can get adequate rest en route
- Cthe PIC with a basic crew may seek MAJCOM/A3/DO (w/mission execution authority) approval to extend the FDP as much as 2 hours to complete a scheduled mission
- DAll the above
9Which of the following does not describe a MCD
- AAdvised pilot in command on patients' conditions and use of medical equipment that may affect aircraft operations
- BDirectly responsible for the safety and medical well-being of patients on the aircraft
- CFinal mission authority and will make decisions not assigned to higher authority
- DQualified flight nurse
10The Squadron's CN after reviewing the ORM worksheet, may change the crew compliment to consist of no less than 1 FN and 2 AETs, and will notify the controlling c2 agency of changes if different from the mission directive
- AThis is not permissible, the CN can only increase the number of crew members, not decrease
- BThis is permissible, the CN may increase or reduce the crew complement
- CThis is not permissible, a basic AE crew of 2 FNs and 3 AETs must be taksed
- DOnly if approved by A3VM
11______ or designee will augment an aircrew when FDP exceeds 16 hours and the mission profile will allow augmenting members adequate time to rest en route
- AOG/CC
- BSQ/CC
- CCN
- DMCD
12The _____ must designate who is going to be the MCD on a flight authorization, IAW AFI 11-401 prior to mission execution
- AOG/CC
- BSQ/CC
- CSQ/CNE
- DSARM
13SQ/CC shall not schedule an aircrew member to fly nor will an aircrew member perform aircrew duties
- AWhen the flight time will exceed maximum flying time limitations
- BWithin 24 hours after compressed gas diving (scuba or surface supplied diving), a hyperbaric chamber mission, or aircraft pressurization checks that exceed 10 minutes
- CWithin 12 hours following a hypobaric chamber mission above 25,000 ft
- DAll the above
14What is the primary fatigue counter measure available to aircrew members?
- ASmart scheduling procedures aimed at managing those cycles, strategic inflight and/or ground napping techniques, and proper diet and exercise
- BNo-Go pill
- CAppropriate management of sleep/rest cycles
- DAll the above
15Aircrew members will limit use of Ambien (Zolpidem) and Restoril (Temazepam) to a maximum of seven consecutive days and no more than 20 days in a 60-day period.
- AVerdadero
- BFalso
16C2 agents shall not disturb an aircrew member in crew rest except __________.
- AWhen authorized by MAJCOM/A3/DO
- BDuring emergencies
- CIf the MCD requires room changes to be in close proximity of the crew
- DA&B
17What is the purpose of the assertive statement "Time Out"?
- AProvides a clear warning sign of a deviation or loss of situational awareness.
- BProvides an opportunity to break the error chain before a mishap occurs
- CNotifies all crewmembers that someone sees the aircraft or crew departing from established guidelines, the briefed scenario, or that someone is simply uncomfortable with the developing conditions.
- DAll the above
18What is the goal of the Aviation Safety Action Program (ASAP)?
- ATo prevent mishaps by addressing unintentional errors, hazardous situations and events, or high-risk activities, not identified and/or correctable by other methods or through traditional safety reporting sources
- BTo provide an anonymous means to complain about your commander
- CTo ensure AECMs are punished for potentially unsafe behavior
- Dthe ASAP program is not intended for AECMs since we currently use a DD Form 2852 to report actual and near miss medical events
19All AECMs will wear Nomex gloves during taxi, take-off, and landing
- AVerdadero
- BFalso
20What will be accomplished prior to concurrent servicing (CS) on the C-17 or C-130?
- APrior to starting concurrent servicing, the total number of patients, attendants, passengers, and crew on board the aircraft will be given to the fire department
- BThe Passenger Compartment Monitor (PCM) will brief patients on emergency egress, exit prohibitions, and hazards. Ambulatory patients will remain seated but will not wear seatbelts during CS
- CLoading ramps/stairs are in place for immediate use and exits (excluding the overhead escape hatches) are opened for egress.
- DAll the above
21At what point during the PRICE check of the MA-1 portable walk-around bottle do you fit and adjust your harness?
- AP-Pressure
- BR-Regulator
- CI-Inspection
- DC-Connections
22Demonstration of onboard life sustaining equipment is required for all missions carrying passengers/patients.
- AVerdadero
- BFalso
23When AE crews are augmented for time, how is flight time documented on the AFTO Form 781?
- AAll AECMs on the aircraft log primary time for the entire mission
- BThe CN determines work/rest cycles
- C5 crewmembers log primary time; 2 crewmembers are "resting" and log other time
- DAll crewmembers will log primary and secondary time
24If a Medical Emergency/Change in Patient Status in flight occurs, the MCD/AECMs will immediately notify the PIC regarding the gravity and nature of the situation and will also:
- ACoordinate to establish immediate radio communication with the Tactical Airlift Control Center/Air Mobility Operations Control Center/Air Operations Center/Patient Movement Requirements Center (TACC/AMOC/AOC/PMRC) for a physician and guidance for landing at an airfield capable of handling the situation, when indicated.
- BNotify the supporting TACC/AOC and PMRC regarding changes in patient status, mission irregularities, coordination of mission needs, and equipment/transportation requirements ASAP.
- CBe ready to communicate age, gender, diagnosis, subjective and objective data, including vital signs and pulse oximetry, known allergies, and for women of childbearing years, date of last menstrual cycle, if indicated. Also report treatment/interventions, date and time (if indicated) and the outcome
- DAll the above
25Which of the following are effective CBRN Passive defense measures?
- AUp-to-date immunizations
- BStandard personal hygiene practices
- CThe use of chemoprophylaxis
- DAll the above
26If the aircraft is configured with airline seats, the ______ will check the security of all patient/passenger seats by lifting upward on the front of the seat frame and gently pushing and pulling on the seat backs. Minimal movement is acceptable.
- AMCD
- BLM/BO
- CCMT
- DPIC
27In the AE system, transfer of physical care is complete once:
- AThe patient enters or exits the ground vehicle of transportation
- BThe patient meets the representatives of the MTF
- CPatient report is completed
- DPatient records and medications are handed off
28All of the following statements are correct except?
- AOn missions with ventilator patients, AECM's will calculate pre-mission oxygen requirements using 14 LPM for all ventilators
- BPiror to enplaning ventilated CCATT patients, AEC and CCATT personnel will verify patient oxygen requirements
- CFor C-17 mission, use the therapeutic oxygen as the primary source for ventilated patients
- DFor KC-135 and C-130 missions, ventilated patients will have a dedicated PTLOX/NPTLOX
29During Preflight Inspection, the interior inspection will be accomplished by using the abbreviated flight crew checklist; the _____________ is responsible for ensuring emergency passageways are clear.
- ABoom
- BMCD
- CCMT
- DNone
30When considering placement of an "H" sized compressed gas cylinder to a PSP for an AE mission, it should be secured:
- ATo the floor, under the NTS with 2 cargo tie-down straps
- BOn a litter and secured with 2 litter straps
- CAgainst the inner aspect of the stanchion with two cargo tie-down straps placed on the upper and lower portions of the H-tank.
- DAt AECM duty station as a secondary emergency oxygen source
31Operating procedures, techniques, etc., which could result in damage to equipment if not carefully followed define a____________________.
- AWarning
- BCaution
- CNote
- DSuggestions
32The Emergency Passenger Oxygen System (EPOS) is the preferred _________________ oxygen, smoke, and fume protection.
- AAECM
- BPassenger
- CCrew member
- DCMT
33Who is responsible for ensuring there are enough EPOS units for each AECM, patient, and attendants?
- A3AET
- BCMT
- CAE Crew
- DMCD
34The EPOS will not function without the removal of the________. If the red knob separates, grasp the lanyard to pull the __________ off the cylinder and then proceed to use the EPOS as directed.
- APin
- BOxygen activator
- Cmetal tab
- DNone
35The PBE/EEBD is a _____minute self-contained, completely disposable breathing unit, with a solid state oxygen supply source.
- A60
- B30
- C17
- D15
36AECMs are responsible for refilling and discharging the MA-1 oxygen issued by Aircrew Flight Equipment (AFE). Prior to turn in the cylinder, the cylinder pressure will be reduced to between___ and ____ PSIG gage pressure.
- A5/10
- B8/30
- C5/38
- D5/28
37The adult/child (A/C) LPU is the preferred LPU for AECMs and patient/passengers during ditching situations. The LPU can be used on children greater than _________ old.
- A18 months
- B14 years
- C36 months
- D7 years
38PSP-S: Six PSP seats supporting up to six ambulatory patients, medical attendants or crewmembers. Each seat is rated to hold _______ LBS.
- A320
- B220
- C160
- D260
39When three patients are transported on a PSP litter tower, each litter position is rated to hold____ LBS.
- A350
- B320
- C300
- D220
40On the C-130 J aircraft, six 3-pin "household type" service outlets can be used with AE equipment that operates on 115 Volt/400 Hz. Each outlet will provide ___ amps for a total of ___ amps.
- A20/60
- B15/60
- C30/90
- D15/90
41A primary 115V/60 Hz converter is installed on-board the C-17 which provides 60 Hz electrical power to the ____ aeromedical electrical outlet panels. There are two 115 VAC/60Hz outlets on each panel.
- A12
- B9
- C6
- D3
42A minimum quantity of ____ liters of LOX is required for scheduled aeromedical evacuation missions on a C-17 originating from staged/home station.
- A30
- B45
- C75
- D100
43To increase C-17 electrical amp capability, a Avionics/Unitron Frequency converter may be plugged directly into one of the 115-200V/400 Hz AC outlets located on the six aeromedical electrical outlet panels. Do not exceed 20 amps per aircraft left side and 20 amps per aircraft right side to the ______Hz system for a total of _____amps when using the Avionics/Unitron Frequency converter.
- A200/20
- B400/20
- C400/40
- D200/40
44For the KC-135 the two primary egress points are the aft emergency escape hatch and the crew entry chute. The aft escape hatch is equipped with a slide; the crew entry chute is equipped with a ladder typically stored in the cargo compartment.
- AVerdadero
- BFalso
45The release of TCTO 1C-135-1806 provides three additional electrical outlets on the KC-135 R/T block, 40 aircraft. The three new outlets and the galley plug provide a total of ____ amps.
- A180
- B45
- C135
- D60
46When connecting the pigtail adaptor to the galley plugs on the KC-135, ensure both circuit breakers marked ____________ and __________ are pulled.
- AGalley PWR/Station 445
- Bcircuit breaker/station 225
- CFrequency PWR/Galley PWR
- DStation 225/445
47The KC-135 air conditioning system is not operated on the ground. AE crews will request ground air conditioning units when ambient air temperature is ___ degrees or greater.
- A74
- B84
- C94
- D104
48Latrine capacity in the KC-135 is limited. If not equipped with the Improved Toilet Assembly (TCTO 1C-135-1596), the aircraft will depart home station with an operable latrine and a minimum of ___________________ and _________________.
- ATwo rolls of toilet paper; two hand sanitizer dispensers
- BTwo urine tubes; two latrine cartridges
- CTwo extra flight suits; two sets of undergarments
- DTwo urinals; two bed pans
49A total of ___ litter patients can be floor-loaded on the C-130. An additional two pallet positions are available on the C-130J-30 model that can accommodate an additional___ litter patients.
- A8, 6
- B8, 3
- C15, 6
- D15, 3
50On the C-17, a total of ____ litters patients can be floor-loaded. An additional ____ litters patients can be placed on the ramp for a maximum utilization of the aircraft.
- A30/15
- B48/12
- C48/15
- D30/12
51On the KC-135 the maximum floor-loaded litter capacity is _____ patients. Maximum altitude for floor-loaded patients is flight level ______.
- A10, 300
- B8, 300
- C8, 350
- D15, 350
52If a waiver request for a piece of non-certified/non-standard medical equipment is approved, there is no need to complete a DD Form 2852.
- AVerdadero
- BFalso
53It is the responsibility of the ___________ to ensure each aeromedical evacuation crewmember (AECM) and/or other medical personnel supporting AE elements assigned to their unit receives training on the applicable equipment contained within this publication.
- AAES CN
- BUnit property custodian
- CAES Commander
- DChief of Aircrew Training
54If equipment malfunction/failure occurs during an AE mission the MCD will ensure the following paperwork/actions are accomplished:
- AComplete AFTO 350
- BUpon arrival to home station, immediately send tagged equipment and all accessories to host medical equipment maintenance activity/MTF
- CComplete DD Form 2852
- DAll
- AComplete AFTO 350
55After delivery of all medical equipment from HQ AMC/SGXM, receipt of the Initial Capabilities Document, and AMC/A3TM generated training plan, the implementation phase will be as follows?
- A90 days for Active Component and Deployed units and 180 days for Air Reserve Component units (AFRC/ANG).
- B90 days for Active Component and Deployed units and 90 days for Air Reserve Component units (AFRC/ANG).
- C45 days for Active Component and Deployed units and 90 days for Air Reserve Component units (AFRC/ANG).
- D120 days for Active Component and Deployed units and 180 days for Air Reserve Component units (AFRC/ANG).
56The following statements about the Minilator are correct, except:
- AThe oxygen flow control valve, from the PTLOX/MOST system accessory kit, may be used with the Minilator.
- BConnect standard low-pressure oxygen hose to the connector, and the connector to the minilator inlet valve
- Cthe minilator was not designed for and will not be used to support ventilatory devices
- Dprior to connecting to an oxygen source, a flow meter with index set at zero must be attached to any oxygen hose connected to the minilator
- AThe oxygen flow control valve, from the PTLOX/MOST system accessory kit, may be used with the Minilator.
57The Next-Generation Portable Therapeutic Liquid Oxygen (NPTLOX) System when filled with liquid oxygen (LOX) will provide for an uninterrupted supply of therapeutic oxygen. The system has the capacity to store _____ of liquid oxygen (LOX) and convert the LOX to a gaseous state.
- A15 L
- B20 L
- C30 L
- D10 L
58The NONIN 9550 Onyx II has a tricolor LED display provides a visual indication of the pulse signal quality. Which of the following is not true?
- AGreen indicates a good pulse signal
- BYellow indicates a marginal pulse sigmal
- CRed indicates an inadequate pulse signal
- DRed indicates no pulse
59During all operational and Aeromedical Readiness Missions, the MCD will document on the AF Form 3829, or on the computer generated TRAC2ES cover sheet the following?
- Atotal patient oxygen requirement
- Btotal pre-mission, mi-mission, and post-mission PTLOX/therapeutic oxygen level
- Cmax cabin altitude
- DAll
60Synchronized cardioversion is permitted by ACLS flight nurses without physician supervision utilizing which piece of equipment?
- Azoll
- Bphilips
- Ca and b
- Dnone
61_______ and __________ indicate a mandatory requirement.
- AShould/may
- Bwill/shall
- Cwill/may
- Dshould/shall
62The Propaq Encore monitor is not interchangeable with other monitors. Use of the Propaq SpO2 with other monitors will cause inaccurate readings.
- AVerdadero
- BFalso
63The Turbo cuff function on the Propaq Encore monitor will automatically measure NIBP at what intervals?
- Aevery 5 minutes
- Bat an interval initiated by the user
- CAutomatically and continues to take as many measurements as possible within five minutes
- Dturbo cuff is not used in flight
64When utilizing the Unitron Portable Power System do not exceed 45 amps for the unit or 15 amps for any one duplex receptacle.
- AVerdadero
- BFalso
65When utilizing the Unitron Portable Power System and connecting to aircraft power:
- AAlways check the aircraft outlet with the ECAS tester
- BCheck Ecas cords with ecas tester if connected to 60 Hz outlets on the C-17
- CTurn off the unit when connecting to aircraft power
- DAll
66If the ______ lamp is illuminated (steady light) on the Unitron Portable Power System, move the unit control on/off switch breaker to the off position, voltage being applied to the input of the portable power system is improper for unit operation.
- AGreen
- BYellow
- CRed
- DNone
67Which of the following is true regarding the IMPACT 326M Portable Suction Unit?
- AThe unit simultaneously operates and recharges the battery when plugged into either 115/230 VAC, 50-400 Hz or 28 VDC power source
- BThe internal battery operates for a minimum of two hours and takes a maximum of 16 hours to recharge
- CThe charge light will not illuminate if the battery is fully charged
- DAll
68When inserting tubing into the IVAC Medsystem III infusion pump; with tubing ______, use a 45 degree _______, motion to insert cassette into channel.
- Aup/upward
- Bdown/upward
- Cup/downward
- Ddown/downward
69The Atrium Express 4050 Dry Seal Chest Drain is a disposable, waterless operating system with 2100 ml collection volume, dry suction regulator, and dry one-say valve for seal protection. Since this medical piece of equipment is approved for flight, ensure a Heimlich valve is in place
- AVerdadero
- BFalso
70Placement of the Atrium Express Dry Seal Chest Drain include:
- AAlways place the chest drain below the patient's chest in an upright position
- BTo avoid knocking over the chest drain, you may hang the system from the litter
- CThe system is sealed and can be placed on its side
- Dboth a and b
- AAlways place the chest drain below the patient's chest in an upright position
71When transporting an infant in the ALSS, take the temperature of the infant every ________unless directed otherwise by the medical attendant. Document temperature on Patient Evacuation Record (IMT 3899, Patient Movement Record).
- A15 minutes
- B30 minutes
- Chour
- D2 hours
72The NATO Litter Backrest is used to provide elevation for patient's head. The 90 degree position on the NATO litter backrest will not be used during __________.
- ATake off
- BLanding
- CEnplaning/Deplaning
- DAll of the above
- ATake off
73Use a minimum of ______ litter bearers to enplane The North American Rescue Over Sized Litter (OSL). However, there are four attached carrying straps on each side of the litter to accommodate up to ____ personnel.
- A4/8
- B6/8
- C4/6
- Dnone
74Ensure there are compatible/operable restraint keys available and caregivers know placement for leather restraints prior to flight.
- AVerdadero
- BFalso
75It is acceptable to use K-Y jelly or EKG gel with the Ultrasound Stethoscope Fetal Monitor-Medasonics Model FP3A if Ultrasound Coupling Agent is not available.
- AVerdadero
- BFalso
76The Aircraft Wireless Intercom System (AWIS) is approved for use on the following:
- Ac-17 and c-130
- Bc-21
- Ckc-135
- Da and c
77The primary goal of AE medical transport is to meet the perceived, actual, or potential health needs of the patient, while maintaining the continuum of care. _______________ are responsible for assuring the clinical currency of assigned personnel.
- AMAJCOM Functionals
- BCN
- CSuperintendents
- DCommanders
78Matching an individual's ongoing needs with the appropriate level and type of medical, psychological, health, or social service within an organization and across multiple organizations is ________________.
- AStandards of Practice
- BContinuum of Care
- CStandards of Care
- DStandards of Performance
79The MCD may assign a lower classification if the patient's condition warrants a downgrade.
- AVerdadero
- BFalso
80DNR orders will not be more than _______ hours before the originating flight.
- A36
- B24
- C72
- D96
81Documentation of double-checks will be reflected by two signatures on required forms/flow sheets or on the AF Form 3899A. This is applicable to___________________.
- AASFs/CASFs, CCATTs and AECMs
- BAECM
- CASF and CASF only
- DCCATT and AECM
- AASFs/CASFs, CCATTs and AECMs
82_____________are required and recorded on patients with elevated temperatures, suspected or known infections, or abnormal pulse rates.
- ATemperature, respiration, and blood pressure
- BRespiration, pulse, blood pressure
- CTemperature, pulse, and respiration
- DTemperature pulse, blood pressure
83At altitude, the treatment for hyperventilation and hypoxia of the AE patient is identical. Administer high flow O2 and encourage slow deep breathing.
- AVerdadero
- BFalso
84Pulse oximetry reading may not be accurate in carbon monoxide poisoning.
- AVerdadero
- BFalso
85__________________ and ______________ are signs and symptoms of tension pneumothorax.
- ATracheal shift to affected side of hypertension
- BAbsent breath sounds on unaffected side and hypertension
- CDistended neck veins and hypotension
- DHypertension and diminished breath sounds on affected side
86In normal situations, patients with recently removed chest tubes will not be airlifted until the following conditions are met, which of the following is not correct:
- AA minimum of 24 hours post chest tube removal
- BExpiratory and lordotic chest x-ray at least 24 hours post chest tube removal with the interpretation documented in the patients medical records
- COcclusive dressing is applied to the site where the chest tube was removed
- DA backup chest tube is inserted.
87What conditions require immediate transport and contact with the burn team, if the situation allows.
- A-Burns involving >10% total body surface (TBS) in children and adults over 50 years old.
- B-3rd degree burns >5% TBS.
- C-Significant electrical injury (including lighting).
- D(All of the above)
- A-Burns involving >10% total body surface (TBS) in children and adults over 50 years old.
88For burn patients, fluid resuscitation calls for one-half of the total amount to be infused over the first ____ hours from the time of injury, and the second half infused over the following ____ hours.
- A16 / 8
- B8 / 16
- C4 / 20
- D20 / 4
89Accurate administration of IV therapy poses one of the greatest concerns in-flight. IV drip rates will be reevaluated____________.
- A-After descent
- B-After a rapid decompression
- C-Once cruise altitude is reached
- D(All of the above)
- A-After descent
90____________ in head injured patients can be catastrophic because cerebral blood vessels cannot auto regulate and therefore cannot constrict to preserve cerebral blood flow during hypotension. When auto regulation is lost, massive cerebral vasodilation occurs, and secondarily _______ ICP.
- AHypotension / Increase
- BHypertension / Decrease
- CHypotension / Decrease
- DHypertension / Increase
- AHypotension / Increase
91Prior to initiating transcutaneous pacing (TCP) with an approved AE cardiac monitor/defibrillator, the flight nurse will contact Command and Control (C2) for_______________
- A- Pain medication
- B- Sedation orders
- C- Mission diversion
- D(All of the above)
- A- Pain medication
92Casualties displaying any of the Military Acute Concussion Evaluation (MACE) "red flags" which include ______________ should be referred for additional medical evaluation as soon as operationally possible.
- ADiarrhea
- BSeizures
- CDouble vision
- Db and c
93When caring for a Patient with a Negative-Pressure Wound Therapy (NPWT) system complete the following:
- AAssess patient comfort and system function every 2 hours inflight.
- BShould not interrupt therapy for greater than two hours within a twenty-four hour period due to the potential for infection.
- C-For non-correctable system failures inflight, if the patient's destination is > than 2 hours away, the overlying occlusive film should be opened by making 2-3 slits into the film to allow for wound drainage. DO NOT remove the occlusive film or the sponge inside the wound for risk of bleeding or wound contamination. A dry dressing should then be applied over the site and reinforced as needed. Report system failure and actions taken to receiving facility during handoff for follow-on care.
- DAll
- AAssess patient comfort and system function every 2 hours inflight.
94Ideally, plaster casts should be at least ______ hours old to allow for possible soft tissue expansion after an acute injury.
- A12
- B24
- C48
- D36
95Patients who are beyond the 20th week of pregnancy are not routinely accepted for AE, but will be moved if determined necessary by a physician.
- AVerdadero
- BFalso
96______________ is the single most important method for preventing the spread of infection.
- APPE
- BStandard Precaution
- CHand Washing
- DIsolation
97If a patient is exhibiting aggressive and uncontrollable behavior, is extremely agitated and violent, and/or is determined to be a danger to flight safety, self or others on the aircraft, give PRN medication as ordered. If no PRN medication is ordered, give __________________ IAW established guidance.
- AHaldol and valium
- BValium or versed
- CHaldol or valium
- DHaldol and versed
98When utilizing leather restraints, perform observation/documentation every ____ minutes. Use AF IMT 3899G, Patient Movement Restraint Observation Flowsheet.
- A5
- B15
- C30
- D60
99Hand off of epidural analgesia/peripheral nerve block infusions include:
- A-An independent double-check is two medical persons familiar with the process/equipment/medication (at least one being a registered nurse), independently verifying the practitioner's/provider's orders, medication hanging, and the correct set up of PCA or IV pump in use (rate, dose, volume to infuse, medication concentration, basal rate, bolus lockout, etc.).
- B- A patient hand-off will be completed and documented each time a different clinician accepts care of the patient.
- C- Documentation of double-checks will be reflected by two signatures on required forms/flow sheets or on the AF Form 3899A.
- D(All the above)
100When treating a patient for known or suspected narcotic overdose, if the patient is unresponsive to Narcan, what should be administered next?
- ADextrose 50% IVP, repeat as needed
- BDextrose 50% IVP one time only
- CEpinephrine 1mg IVP one time only
- DEpinephrine, 1mg
Información
- Descripción
- mqf
- Autor
- Melissa Minei
- Idioma
- English
- Visitas
- 45
- Etiquetas
- Valoración
- Aún sin valoraciones Valora este test