Test
PPL
Este test tiene tiempo límite, así que se abre en el reproductor de siempre.
Preguntas del test (100)
1The color of AIP supplement paper is................
- ABlue
- BPink
- CRed
- DYellow
2In which chart you can find transition altitude?
- AInstrument approach
- BSID
- CSTAR
- DAll answers are correct
3If the pilot is not able to make start up by first clearance:
- AMay request another one during the validity of the flight plan.
- BCan make two more requests.
- CIs not allowing to request startup.
- DShall cancel the flight plan.
4Which statement is correct about Vx?
- AMax altitude gains at short distance.
- BIncrease by altitude increase for piston engine aircraft.
- CBest angle of climb speed.
- DAll answers are correct.
5What is the takeoff distance for piston engine aircraft? Distance between starting point and LOF point = 2000’ Distance between LOF point and 50’ height = 500’
- A2000’
- B3000'
- C500'
- D2500'
6To maintain climb airspeed following an increase in temperature the rate of climb is:
- AReduced
- BIncrease
- CRemain unchanged.
- DUnaffected
7Compared to (Vx and Vy) at lower mass, (Vx and Vy) at higher mass will be:
- ALower
- BSame
- CHigher
- DVx higher and Vy lower.
8f the ground visibility is reported 1000 m, can a special VFR flight take off from an aerodrome in a control zone?
- ANo
- BYes, provided the cloud ceiling is higher than 500 ft.
- CYes
- DYes, provided the pilot remains in visual contact with the ground.
9Approach control service is provided for:
- AAll arriving and departing controlled flights.
- BAll arriving IFR traffic.
- CTraffic within the CTA.
- DAll VFR traffic.
10What is the purpose of ACAS?
- AProvide traffic and resolution advisory to pilot
- BProvide advice to ATC
- CProvide weather information
- DReceive information by ADS
11Movement of helicopter/VTOL above the surface of an aerodrome is normally at a ground speed .................. .
- AMore than 20Kt
- B20Kt
- CLess than 20Kt
- D37Km
12An aircraft taxiing on the maneuvering area of an aerodrome shall stop and hold at:
- AAll runway holding positions.
- BAt lighted stop bars.
- CAll marking areas.
- DA and B are correct.
13When operating under visual flight rules in class D airspace at altitudes above 10000 feet AMSL, you must maintain a vertical distance of at least ………. from clouds.
- A1500 feet
- B300 feet
- C1000 feet
- D1000 meters
14What is the minimum clearance of Iranian ATS routes above the highest obstacle within the area concerned?
- A2000 ft.
- B1500 ft.
- C1500 M
- D2500 ft.
15The lowest flight level for VFR is:
- A200
- B35
- C45
- D50
16IMC is a meteorological condition....................
- AEqual to VMC
- BLess than minima for VMC
- CMore than minima for VMC
- DB and C are correct
17Steady red signal to an aircraft on the ground means:
- ACleared to taxi.
- BCleared for take-off.
- CSTOP
- DReturn for landing.
18Which of the following weather reports could be, in accordance with the regulations, abbreviated to CAVOK?
- A29010KT 9999 SCT045TCU 16/12 Q1015 RESHRA NOSIG=
- B24009KT 6000 RA SCT010 OVC030 12/11 Q1007 TEMPO 4000 BR =
- C15003KT 9999 BKN100 17/11 Q1024 NOSIG =
- D04012G26KT 9999 BKN030 11/07 Q1024 NOSIG =
19What does the METAR code "R24R/P1500" mean?
- ASnow clearance in progress on RUNWAY 24-Right, use runway length 1500 meters.
- BRVR RUNWAY 24-Right is below 1500 meters.
- CRVR RUNWAY 24-Right is above 1500 meters.
- DRVR RUNWAY 24-Right is 1500 meters.
20The variable wind for wind direction is express when wind direction change …….... within last 10 min before observing weather.
- A30° or more
- B45° or more
- C60° or more
- D50° or more
21Refer to METAR "OIII 151500Z 26010KT 0800 SN SCT035CB BKN100 00/M02 Q1015 A2988" what is the height of ceiling?
- A1,000 ft.
- B100 ft.
- C3,500 ft.
- D10,000 ft.
22The acronym of an automatically activated ELT which is rigidly attached to an aircraft but readily removable from the aircraft is called:
- AELT (AP)
- BELT (AF)
- CELT (AD)
- DELT (S)
23The amount of fuel required for VFR at day to the aerodrome of intended landing is:
- ADeparture to Destination + at least 30 minutes at normal cruising altitude
- BDeparture to Destination + at least 45 minutes at normal cruising altitude
- CDeparture to Destination + 45 minutes
- DDeparture to Destination + 30 minutes
24If a flight crew member capacity is reduced due to lack of oxygen, what is the responsibility of pilot in command?
- AContinue to destination
- BNot continue beyond nearest suitable aerodrome
- CContinue to en-route alternate
- DBack to departure
25A Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum (RVSM) of 300 m (1,000 ft) is applied:
- ABetween FL290 and FL410
- BBetween FL290 and FL410 inclusive
- CBetween FL290 and FL410 exclusive
- DAbove FL290
26Who is authorized to change the aircraft radiotelephony call sign temporarily?
- APilot-in-Command
- BOperator
- CATC unit
- DDispatcher
27Which phrase shall be used if you want to say "I WOULD LIKE TO KNOW "or "I WISH TO OBTAIN"?
- AConfirm
- BReport
- CAcknowledge
- DRequest
28Which of the following abbreviated call signs of Cherokee EP-ABC is correct?
- ACherokee E-BC
- BCherokee EP-BC
- CCherokee BC
- DCherokee E-ABC
29What is the transponder code for radio communication failure?
- A7200
- B7600
- C7500
- D7700
30What does H24 mean?
- AContinuously operation
- BSunrise to Sunset.
- CAvailable 24 hours a day by prior notice only.
- DAircraft handling available 24 hours a day.
31What is the correct way of transmitting the number 3500 ft when indicating an altitude?
- AThree five double zero.
- BThree five zero zero.
- CThree five hundred.
- DThree thousand five hundred.
32The numbers 08 and 26 on the approach ends of the runway indicate that the runway is oriented approximately:
- A008° and 026° magnetic.
- B080° and 260° true.
- C080° and 260° magnetic.
- D008° and 026° true.
33An airport‘s rotating beacon operated during daylight hours indicates:
- AThere are obstructions on the airport.
- BThat weather at the airport located in class D airspace is below basic VFR weather minimums.
- CThe Air Traffic Control tower is not in operation.
- DThe approach and landing operation can be made in VMC.
34What is the purpose of the taxiway/runway hold position sign?
- ADenotes entrance to runway from a taxiway.
- BDenotes area protected for an aircraft approaching or departing a runway.
- CDenotes intersecting runways.
- DDenotes intersecting taxiways.
35The ATC transponder system, excluding Mode S, contains:
- AFour modes, each 1024 codes.
- BTwo modes, each of 4096 codes.
- CFour modes, each 4096 codes.
- DThree modes, each 4096 codes.
36When a mode C interrogation is responded to, vertical position of the aircraft is coded and transmitted. This vertical position is referred to:
- AThe sub-scale of the altimeter.
- BArea QNH
- C1013.2 hPa.
- DArea QFE.
37The most effective method of scanning for other aircraft for collision avoidance during daylight hours is to use.
- ARegularly spaced concentration on the 3-, 9-, and 12 o’clock positions.
- BA series of short, regularly spaced eye movements to search each 10-degree sector off center viewing.
- CPeripheral vision by scanning small sectors and utilizing off center viewing.
- DA series of short, regularly spaced eye movements not exceed 10-degree sector that bring successive areas of the sky into the central visual field.
38You are required to uplift 40 US Gallons of AVGAS with specific gravity of 0.72. How many liters and kilograms is this?
- A109 liters, 151 kg.
- B182 liters, 131 kg.
- C182 liters, 289 kg.
- D151 liters, 109 kg.
39A descent is planned from FL340 so as to arrive at FL100 at a distance 6 NM from a VORTAC. With a G/S of 280 kts and a rate of descent of 1200 ft/min. The distance from the VORTAC when descent is started is:
- A65 NM
- B99 NM
- C27 NM
- D93 NM
40Given: P.A: 10,000 ft / OAT: -20 °C / Calibrated Altitude: 12,000 ft / Altitude of ground station: 5,400 ft , Find True Altitude:
- A9,000 ft
- B10,000 ft
- C11,300 ft
- D12,500 ft
41Given: P.A: 40,000 ft / Indicated Air Temperature: -10°C / Calibrated Air Speed: 350 kts , Find True Air Speed:
- A624
- B525
- C425
- D725
42- If the maximum allowable crosswind component for a given aeroplane is 20 Kts and the reported surface wind is 210°/30 Kts . Is it possible to land on RWY 16L?
- AVerdadero
- BFalso
43Given True course: 327° TAS: 520kts / W/V: 250° (T)/90 kts / Calculate the true heading and ground speed.
- A317°,492 kts
- B186°,444 kts
- C123°,420 kts
- D325°,370 kts
44Given: P.A & Calibrated Alt.: 10,000 ft / OAT: +15° C , What is true altitude?
- A9,260 ft
- B10,750 ft
- C8,480 ft
- D11,830 ft
45What is the pressure altitude, if outside air temperature is – 36 °C and density altitude equals 31,000 ft?
- A32,000 ft
- B33,000 ft
- C30,000 ft
- D29,000 ft
46Adverse effects of carbon monoxide increase as:
- AAir pressure increases.
- BAltitude decreases.
- CAltitude increases.
- DRelative humidity decreases.
47The effect of hypoxia to vision:
- ACan only be detected when smoking tobacco.
- BIs usual stronger on the cones
- CIs stronger on the rods.
- DDoes not depend on the level of illumination.
48A condition where there is insufficient oxygen in your body because there is not enough oxygen in the air is referred to as:
- AAnemic hypoxia.
- BHypoxic hypoxia.
- CHyperventilation
- DCarbon monoxide poisoning.
49Signs of stress include:
- APerspiration, dry mouth, dilated pupils, fast breathing.
- BLowering of the blood pressure.
- CFaster, deep inhalation, stabbing pain around the heart.
- DRising of the blood pressure, pupils narrowing, stabbing pain around the heart.
50Rising of the blood pressure, pupils narrowing, stabbing pain around the heart.
- AHigh
- BLow
- CShallow
- DNone of above.
51If you look directly at an object at night, you will see it?
- ALess clearly because there are no as many cones as rods.
- BLess clearly because the fovea is a night blind spot.
- CMore clearly because it is focused in the fovea.
- DMore clearly because rods see better in the dark.
52After consuming alcohol heart rate and blood pressure may …………….. while ……………… your central nervous system.
- ADecrease - depressing
- BDecrease - stimulating
- CIncrease – depressing
- DIncrease - stimulating
53When the pressure altitude is lower than true altitude:
- AAltimeter setting and temperature above than standard
- BAltimeter setting or temperature below than standard
- CAltimeter setting or temperature above than standard
- DAltimeter setting and temperature below than standard
54Which instrument show how fast the ambient pressure increase or decrease?
- AAltimeter
- BAirspeed indicator
- CVVI
- DA & B & C are correct
55What is the change in airspeed indicator when static port be clogged but Pitot tube be open?
- AIncrease during descend
- BIncrease during ascend
- CDecrease during descend
- DDrop to zero
56What information sense by turn coordinator?
- Aroll-yaw
- Byaw-bank
- CBank & roll
- Droll & pitch
57Which of the following airspeeds is identified by color coding on an airspeed indicator?
- AThe maximum gear operating or extended speed.
- BThe maximum structural cruising speed.
- CThe maximum maneuvering cruising speed.
- DThe stalling speed for all altitudes and configurations.
58When an altimeter setting is not available at a departure airport, the sensitive altimeter should be set to indicate:
- AThe elevation of the departure airport corrected to mean sea level.
- BPressure altitude corrected nonstandard temperature.
- CThe elevation of the departure airport.
- D29.92" hg.
59Due to its conception, the altimeter measures a:
- ATemperature altitude.
- BDensity altitude.
- CPressure altitude.
- DTrue altitude in flight.
60 If an aircraft maintaining a constant CAS and flight level is flying from a warm air mass into colder air:
- AIAS increases.
- BTAS increases.
- CTAS decreases
- DIAS decreases.
61A turn indicator is an instrument which indicates rate of turn. Rate of turn depends upon: 1) Bank angle 2) Airplane speed 3) Airplane weight The combination regrouping the correct statements is:
- A2,3
- B1,2,3
- C1,2
- D1,3
62What is the value of magnetic dip at the south magnetic pole?
- A360°
- B180°
- C90°
- D0°
63The "Useful Load" is:
- ATOW - fuel mass.
- BBEW plus fuel load.
- CBasic empty weight plus Usable Fuel Load.
- DRamp weight minus Dry Operating Mass.
64By adding the payload to the Dry operating weight, we get:
- ARamp weight.
- BTakeoff weight.
- CZero fuel weight.
- DLanding weight.
65What can be said about the temperature in the lower stratosphere?
- AThe temperature is constant.
- BThe temperature is increasing.
- CThe temperature is decreasing.
- DThe temperature is first increasing and then decreasing.
66A vertical separation of 1000 ft, is the standard required separation between two flight level Under conditions of cold air advection (ISA -15°C), what would the true vertical separation be?
- AMore than 1000 ft.
- BIt remains 1000 ft.
- CLess than 1000 ft.
- DWithout QNH information, it cannot be determined.
67Which statement is correct concerning wind direction in the northern hemisphere?
- AFriction deflects the wind toward areas of higher pressure.
- BWind always flows directly from areas of high to areas of low pressure.
- CWind flows clockwise around high pressure areas and counterclockwise around low pressure areas.
- DWind flows clockwise around low pressure areas and counterclockwise around high pressure areas.
68What types of clouds precipitation and visibility are usually associated with unstable air?
- ALayered clouds shower and poor visibility
- BCumuliform clouds, rain showers and poor visibility
- CContinuous precipitation and poor visibility
- DCumuliform clouds rain showers and good visibility outside of shower areas
69Steady rain preceding a front is an indication of:
- AA broad area of frontal discontinuity
- BCumuliform clouds with little or no turbulence
- CA rapidly approaching cold front with cumuliform type clouds
- DAn approaching warm front with associated stratus and little or no turbulence
70Nimbostratus a gray or dark massive cloud layer, belongs to which family of clouds?
- AHigh clouds
- BMiddle clouds
- CLow clouds
- DClouds with extensive vertical development
71What is the embedded thunderstorms?
- AThunderstorms have been visually sighted
- BSevere thunderstorms are embedded within a squall line
- CThunderstorms are predicated to develop in stable air mass
- DThunderstorms are obscured by massive cloud layers and cannot be seen
72What feature is normally associated with the cumulus stage of a thunderstorm?
- ARoll cloud
- BContinuous updraft
- CFrequent lightning
- DBeginning of rain at the surface
73Which of the following would decrease the stability of an air mass?
- AWarming from below
- BCooling from below
- CDecrease in water vapor
- DSinking of the air mass
74A wing is said to be tapered if:
- AIt is inclined upwards from root to tip.
- BThe chord at the wingtip is less than the chord at the root.
- CThe incidence at the tip is less than at the root.
- DThe camber is increased at the wingtip.
75As air flows into the converging section of a venturi:
- AStatic pressure decreases, velocity increases, mass flow decreases.
- BStatic pressure increases, velocity decreases, mass flow is constant.
- CStatic pressure decreases, velocity increases, mass flow is constant
- DStatic pressure decreases, velocity decreases, mass flow decreases.
76The aeroplane drag in straight and level flight is lowest when the:
- AParasite drag equals twice the induced drag.
- BParasite drag is equal to the induced drag.
- CInduced drag is equal to zero.
- DInduced drag is lowest.
77What effect on induced drag does entering ground effect have?
- AIncrease
- BDecrease
- CRemain the same.
- DInduced drag will increase, but profile drag will decrease.
78Indicated stalling speed ……………. with varying temperature.
- AVaries
- BRemains constant
- CDecreases
- DIncrease
79The effects of CG position on longitudinal static stability and control response will be:
- AForward movement of the CG will reduce stability and increase control response.
- BForward movement of the CG will reduce control response and increase stability.
- CRearward movement of the CG will increase stability and reduce control response.
- DRearward movement of the CG will reduce stability and control response.
80Lift on a wing is most properly defined as the:
- ADifferential pressure acting perpendicular to the chord of the wing.
- BForce produced perpendicular to the relative wind.
- CReduced pressure resulting from a smooth flow of air over a curved surface and acting perpendicular to the mean surface.
- DPartial vacuum produced on top of the wing.
81For a certain amount of lift to be created:
- AThere are only one certain airspeed and one certain angle of attack.
- BThere are different combination of airspeed and angle of attack.
- CThere is one certain airspeed.
- DThere is one certain angle of attack.
82The most efficient type of flap is the:
- AFowler flap.
- BSlotted flap.
- CSplit flap.
- DPlain flap.
83What should the pilot do to increase rate of turn and at the same time decrease the radius of turn?
- AShallow the bank and decrease airspeed.
- BShallow the bank and increase airspeed.
- CSteepen the bank and increase airspeed.
- DSteepen the bank and decrease airspeed.
84If an increase in power tends to make the nose of the aircraft rise, this is the result of the:
- AThrust line being below the center of gravity.
- BCenter of lift being ahead of the center of gravity.
- CCenter of lift and center of gravity being collocated.
- DCenter of gravity being ahead of the center of lift.
85Which of the following is considered as primary flight control?
- AElevator
- BDorsal fin.
- CSlats
- DSpoilers
86During skidding turn to the right what is relationship between the component of lift, centrifugal force and load factor?
- ACentrifugal force is less than horizontal lift and the load factor is increased.
- BCentrifugal force is greater than horizontal lift and the load factor is increased.
- CCentrifugal force and the horizontal lift are equal and the load factor is increased.
- DCentrifugal force is greater than horizontal lift and the load factor is decreased.
87VOR operates in................... and on Frequency between...................
- AUHF - 108.00 through 117.95 MHz
- BUHF - 108.00 through 117.95 kHz
- CVHF - 108.00 through 117.95 MHz
- DVHF - 108.00 through 117.95 kHz
88Civil aircraft can use TACAN facility, just by using it's:
- ADistance
- BDirection
- CA+B
- DHeading
89If the magnetic bearing changes from 090° to 100° in 2.5 minutes elapsed time, the time to the station would be:
- A12 minutes.
- B15 minutes.
- C18minutes.
- D22 minutes
90When flying on a radial to the station the positive identification of station passage is by:
- AFluctuating of CDI.
- BChanging TO/FROM flag.
- COFF flag indication.
- DAll answers are correct.
91Flying in the vicinity of CB clouds and using ADF:
- AThe ANT position of the function switch should be used when listening for NDB identification.
- BStrong static emitted from the CB may cause the ADF needle to deflect towards the CB.
- CThe static emitted from the CB will fade soon after you have passed it.
- DAll answers are correct.
92What is the minimum lateral distance to intercept R-060° when an aircraft flying on R-052° and DME indicator shows 60NM to station?
- A6 NM
- B7 NM
- C8 NM
- D9 NM
93Specific fuel consumption for piston engine aircraft is defined as the:
- ADesigned fuel consumption for a given RPM.
- BMass of fuel required to produce unit power for unit time.
- CQuantity of fuel required to run the engine for one minute at maximum operating conditions.
- DMaximum fuel consumption of the aircraft.
94In an engine equipped with a float-type carburetor, the low temperature that causes carburetor ice is normally the result of:
- ACompression of air at the carburetor venture.
- BLow volatility of aviation fuel.
- CVaporization of fuel and expansion of the air in the carburetor.
- DFreezing temperature of the air entering the carburetor.
95In a piston engine, the purpose of an altitude mixture control is:
- AEnrich the mixture strength due to decreased air density at altitude.
- BWeaken the mixture strength because of reduced exhaust back pressure at altitude.
- CPrevent a weak cut when the throttle is opened rapidly at altitude.
- DCorrect for variations in the fuel air ratio due to decreased air density at altitude.
96Why is it considered good practice to fill the fuel tanks after the last flight of the day?
- ATo force any existing water to the top of the tank away from the fuel lines.
- BTo prevent moisture from condensing by eliminating air from the tanks.
- CTo prevent expansion of fuel by eliminating air from the tanks.
- DA & C are correct.
97The use of carburetor heat:
- AEnriches the Fuel/air mixture because the heated air is denser than the outside air that had been entering the cylinder.
- BEnriches the Fuel/air mixture because the heated air is less dense than the outside air that had been entering the cylinder.
- CWill not enrich the fuel/air mixture.
- DThe fuel/air mixture to become leaner.
98An EGT (Exhaust Gas Temperature) indicator for a piston engine is used to:
- AControl the carburetor inlet air flow.
- BControl the cylinder head temperature.
- CAssist the pilot to set the correct mixture.
- DControl the fuel temperature.
99Vortices from large aircraft in flight sink at a rate of about:
- A200 to 300 feet per minute.
- B300 to 400 feet per minute.
- C400 to 500 feet per minute.
- D900 to 1000 feet per minute.
100What is the characteristic of flight at maximum L/D in a propeller-driven airplane?
- ABest angle of climb.
- BMaximum range and maximum glide distance.
- CMaximum endurance.
Información
- Descripción
- Quiz on PPL, created by mehdi mohaqeq on 07/05/2017.
- Autor
- mehdi mohaqeq
- Idioma
- English
- Visitas
- 79
- Valoración
- Aún sin valoraciones Valora este test