Quiz
EASA ATP Qatar yellow 4
Perguntas do quiz (200)
150.4.2.1 (3636)
Freezing fog consists of- Afrozen water droplets
- Bsupercooled water droplets
- Cfrozen minute snow flakes
- Dice crystals
250.4.2.1 (3637)
The range of wind speed in which radiation fog is most likely to form is :- Abelow 5 kt
- Bbetween 5 and 10 kt
- Cbetween 10 and 15 kt
- Dabove 15 kt
350.4.2.2 (3639)
Which type of fog is likely to form when air having temperature of 15°C and dew
point of 12°C blows at 10 knots over a sea surface having temperatures of 5°C ?- AAdvection fog
- BSteam fog
- CRadiation fog
- DFrontal fog
450.4.2.2 (3640)
Advection fog can be formed when
- Awarm moist air flows over a colder surface
- Bcold moist air flows over a warmer surface
- Cwarm moist air flows over a warmer surface
- Dcold moist air flows over warmer water
550.4.2.3 (3642)
Which of the following conditions is most likely to lead to the formation of steam
fog (arctic smoke)?- AWarm air moving over cold water
- BThe sea is warmed by strong radiation from the sun
- CCold air moving over warm water
- Dhe coastal region of the sea cools at nigh
650.5.1.1 (3647)
Which form of precipitation from clouds containing only water is most likely to fall
in mid-latitudes?- AModerate rain with large drops.
- BHeavy rain with large drops.
- CDrizzle.
- DHail.
750.5.2.1 (3649)
With what type of clouds are showers most likely associated?
a)
b)
c
d) Stratus.- ACumulonimbus.
- BStratocumulus.
- CNimbostratus.
- DStratus.
850.5.2.1 (3650)
Which one of the following types of cloud is most likely to produce heavy
precipitation ?- ACS.
- BNS
- CSC.
- DST
950.5.2.1 (3653)
The presence of ice pellets at the surface is evidence that
- Aa cold front has passed
- Bthere are thunderstorms in the area
- Cfreezing rain occurs at a higher altitude
- Da warm front has passed
10With what type of cloud is ""DZ"" precipitation most commonly associated?
- AST
- BCC
- CCB
- DCU
1150.5.2.1 (3664)
Large hail stones- Aonly occur in thunderstorms of mid-latitudes
- Bare entirely composed of clear ice
- Care typically associated with severe thunderstorms
- Donly occur in frontal thunderstorms
1250.5.2.1 (3666)
From what type of cloud does drizzle fall ?- AStratus.
- BCumulus
- CAltostratus
- DCirrostratus.
1350.5.2.1 (3667)
What type of clouds are associated with rain showers ?- ATowering cumulus and altostratus.
- BTowering cumulus and cumulonimbus.
- CNimbostratus.
- DAltostratus and stratus.
1450.6.1.1 (3669)
An airmass is unstable when- Atemperature and humidity are not constant
- Bpressure shows a marked variation over a given horizontal area
- Can ascending parcel of air continues to rise to a considerable height.
- Dtemperature increases with height
1550.6.2.2 (3685)
The approximate inclined plane of a warm front is:- A1/50
- B1/300
- C1/150
- D1/500
1650.6.2.2 (3686)
In which of the following situations can freezing rain be encountered ?- AAhead of a cold front in the winter
- BAhead of a warm front in the winter
- CAhead of a cold front in the summer
- DBehind a warm front in the summer
1750.6.2.2 (3687)
How do air masses move at a warm front ?- AWarm air overrides a cold air mass
- BCold air undercuts a warm air mass
- CCold air overrides a warm air mass
- DWarm air undercuts a cold air mass
1850.6.2.2 (3691)
Thunderstorms in exceptional circumstances can occur in a warm front if- Athe cold air is convectively unstable.
- Bthe warm air is convectively unstable.
- Cthe warm air is convectively stable.
- Dthe cold air is convectively stable.
1950.6.2.2 (3692)
On an aerodrome, when a warm front is approaching- AQFE and QNH increase.
- BQFE and QNH decrease.
- CQFE increases and QNH decreases.
- DQFE decreases and QNH increases.
2050.6.2.3 (3694)
After passing at right angles through a very active cold front in the direction of the
cold air, what will you encounter, in the northern hemisphere immediately after a
marked change in temperature?- AA backing in the wind direction.
- BAn increase in tailwind.
- CA veering in the wind direction.
- DA decrease in headwind.
2150.6.2.3 (3698)
Which of the following is typical for the passage of a cold front in the summer ?- AMainly towering clouds
- BRapid drop in pressure once the front has passed
- CRapid increase in temperature once the front has passed
- DMainly layered clouds
2250.6.2.7 (3714)
What characterizes a stationary front ?- AThe surface wind usually has its direction perpendicular to the front
- BThe surface wind usually has its direction parallel to the front
- CThe warm air moves at approximately half the speed of the cold air
- DThe weather conditions that it originates is a combination between those of an intense cold
front and those of a warm and very active front
2350.7.2.1 (3730)
What surface weather is associated with a stationary high pressure region over
land in the winter?- AThunderstorms.
- BA tendency for fog and low ST.
- CThe possibility of snow showers.
- DNS with continuous rain.
2450.7.2.1 (3736)
A blocking anticyclone on the northern hemisphere is- Aa warm anticyclone/quasi stationary/situated between 50°N and 70°N
- Bsituated between 50° and 70°N/a cold anticyclone/steering depressions
- Cquasi stationary/situated between 50°N and 70°N/a cold anticyclone
- Da cold anticyclone/steering depressions/situated over Scandinavia
2550.7.2.1 (3737)
The most effective way to dissipate cloud is by- Aconvection
- Bsubsidence
- Ca decrease in temperature
- Da decrease in pressure
2650.7.3.1 (3740)
How do you recognize a cold air pool?- AAs a high pressure area aloft (e.g. on the 500 hPa chart).
- BAs a low pressure area aloft (e.g. on the 500 hPa chart).
- CA cold air pool may only be recognized on the surface chart as a low pressure area.
- DA cold air pool may only be recognized on the surface chart as a high pressure area.
2750.7.3.1 (3743)
Extensive cloud and precipitation is often associated with a non frontal thermal
depression because of :- Asurface convergence and upper level divergence causing widespread ascent of air in the depression
- Bsurface divergence and upper level convergence causing widespread ascent of air in the
depression2 - Csurface convergence and upper level divergence causing widespread descent of air in the
depression - Dsurface divergence and upper level convergence causing widespread descent of air in the
depression
2850.7.3.1 (3745)
Which is true of a typical non frontal thermal depression?- AIt forms over the ocean in winter
- BIt forms over land in summer
- CIt forms over the ocean in summer
- DIt forms over land in winter
2950.7.3.1 (3746)
Which is true of a secondary depression in the northern hemisphere?- AIt tends to move round the primary in an anticyclonic sense
- BIt rapidly closes on, and merges with the primary
- CIt tends to maintain its position relative to the primary
- DIt tends to move round the primary in a cyclonic sense
3050.7.4.2 (3754)
At what time of the year are typhoons most likely to occur over the southern
islands of Japan?- ASeptember to January.
- BJuly to November.
- CJanuary to May.
- DMay to July.
3150.7.4.2 (3755)
On which coast of North America, is the danger of tropical revolving storms the
greatest?- ASE coast
- BN coast
- CNE coast
- DW coast
3250.7.4.2 (3756)
What is the likely track for a hurricane in the Carribean area?- AEast then south.
- BWest deep into the USA.
- CWest in the earlier stages and later turning north east.
- DWest in the earlier stages and later turning south east
3350.7.4.2 (3757)
During which seasons are hurricanes most likely to appear in the northern
hemisphere?- AWinter.
- BSummer and autumn
- CWinter and spring.
- DAll seasons.
3450.7.4.2 (3758)
During which months is the Hurricane season in the Caribbean?- AJanuary until April.
- BJuly until November
- COctober until January.
- DApril until July.
3550.7.4.2 (3759)
The region of the globe where the greatest number of tropical revolving storms
occur is- Athe carribean sea, affecting the West Indies, Mexico and the south-east coastline of the
USA. - Bthe south-western Indian ocean, affecting Madagascar, Mauritius and the island of Réunion.
- Cthe north-west Pacific, affecting Japan, Formosa, Korea and the Chinese
coastline. - Dthe northern Indian ocean, affecting India, Sri Lanka and Bangladesh.
- Athe carribean sea, affecting the West Indies, Mexico and the south-east coastline of the
3650.7.4.2 (3764)
When, if at all, is a tropical revolving storm most likely to affect Darwin, on the
central north coast of Australia?- AMay to July
- BDecember to April
- CNot experienced at Darwin
- DAugust to October
3750.8.1.1 (3765)
At about what geographical latitude as average is assumed for the zone of
prevailing westerlies?- A30°N.
- B10°N.
- C50°N.
- D80°N
3850.8.1.1 (3766)
The reason for the fact, that the Icelandic low is normally deeper in winter than in
summer is that- Athe low pressure activity of the sea east of Canada is higher in winter.
- Bthe temperature contrasts between arctic and equatorial areas are much greater
in winter - Cconverging air currents are of greater intensity in winter
- Dthe strong winds of the north Atlantic in winter are favourable for the development of lows
3950.8.1.2 (3768)
What is the type, intensity and seasonal variation of precipitation in the equatorial
region ?- ARainshowers, hail showers and thunderstorms occur the whole year, but
frequency is highest during two periods: April-May and October-November. - BWarm fronts are common with continuous rain. The frequency is the same throughout the
year - CPrecipitation is generally in the form of showers but continuous rain occurs also. The
greatest intensity is in July. - DShowers of rain or hail occur throughout the year, the frequency is highest in January
- ARainshowers, hail showers and thunderstorms occur the whole year, but
4050.8.2.2 (3769)
When are the rainy seasons in equatorial Africa?- ADecember to February and July to October.
- BApril to July and December to February.
- CMarch to May and October to November.
- DMarch to May and August to October.
4150.8.2.3 (3773)
In which of the following bands of latitude is the intertropical convergence zone
most likely to be encountered in January, between Dakar and Rio de Janeiro?- A0° - 7°N.
- B3° - 8°S.
- C8° - 12°S.
- D7° - 12°N.
4250.8.2.4 (3785)
From which direction do the trade winds blow, in the southern hemisphere?- ASE
- BNE
- CN
- DSW
4350.8.2.4 (3786)
What name is given to the low level wind system between the subtropical high
pressure belt and the equatorial trough of low pressure (ITCZ) ?- ADoldrums.
- BTrade winds.
- CMonsoon.
- DWesterly winds.
4450.8.2.4 (3787)
In which month does the humid monsoon in India start?- AIn December.
- BIn October.
- CIn March.
- DIn June.
4550.8.2.4 (3788)
What is the name of the wind or airmass which gives to the main part of India its
greatest proportion of precipitation?- AIndian, maritime tropical air mass.
- BSouth-west monsoon.
- CSouth-east trade wind.
- DWinter monsoon
4650.8.2.4 (3791)
The transition from SW to NE monsoon in India occurs in- ADecember, January, February
- BJuly, August, September
- CSeptember, October, November
- DFebruary, March, April
4750.8.4.1 (3806)
What is the strong relatively cold katabatic wind, blowing down the northern
Adriatic coast, mainly during the winter and spring called?- AGhibli.
- BBora.
- CMistral.
- DScirocco.
4850.8.4.1 (3812)
The Bora is a- Asqually warm catabatic wind which occurs mainly in summer
- Bcold catabatic wind with gusts associated with a maritime air mass
- Ccold catabatic wind with the possibility of violent gusts
- Dcold catabatic wind always associated with clouds and heavy showers
4950.8.4.1 (3813)
The Foehn wind is a- Acold fall wind
- Bwarm anabatic wind
- Cwarm fall wind
- Dcold anabatic wind
5050.8.4.1 (3814)
Which one of the following local winds is a Foehn wind?- ABora
- BChinook
- CScirocco
- DHarmattan
5150.8.4.1 (3817)
A strong, dry and warm katabatic wind, produced by prior enforced ascent of air
over hills or mountains is known as a- AFoehn
- BHarmattan
- CBora
- DMistral
5250.9.1.1 (3822)
In which of these cloud types can icing be virtually ruled out?- ACI
- BSC
- CNS
- DCU
5350.9.1.1 (3823)
In which of these cloud types can icing be virtually ruled out?- ACS
- BNS
- CAS
- DSC
5450.9.1.1 (3824)
Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause airframe icing ?- AFZRA
- BGR
- CSHSN
- DPE
5550.9.1.1 (3828)
In which environment is aircraft structural ice most likely to have the highest rate
of accretion ?- ACirrus clouds.
- BFreezing rain
- CStratus clouds
- DSnow
5650.9.1.1 (3829)
In which of these temperature bands is ice most likely to form on the aircraft's
surface?- A+10°C to 0°C
- B0°C to -10°C
- C-20°C to -35°C
- D-35°C to -50°C
5750.9.1.1 (3833)
Freezing fog exists if fog droplets- Aare frozen
- Bare freezing very rapidly
- Care supercooled
- Dfreeze when temperature falls below zero
5850.9.1.2 (3840)
Rime ice forms through the freezing onto aircraft surfaces of- Asmall supercooled water drops.
- Bwater vapour
- Clarge supercooled water drops.
- Dsnow.
5950.9.1.2 (3841)
Under which conditions would you expect the heaviest clear ice accretion to occur
in a CB?- ABetween -20°C and -30°C
- BBetween -30°C and -40°C
- CBetween -2°C and -15°C
- DClose to the freezing level
6050.9.1.2 (3842)
Clear ice forms on an aircraft by the freezing of :- Awater vapour
- Blarge supercooled water drops
- Csnow
- Dsmall supercooled water drops
6150.9.1.2 (3843)
During the formation of rime ice in flight, water droplets freeze
- Aslowly and do not spread out
- Brapidly and do not spread out
- Crapidly and spread
- Dslowly and spread out
6250.9.1.2 (3845)
Clear ice forms as a result of- Awater vapour freezing to the aircraft
- Bice pellets splattering on the aircraft
- Csupercooled water droplets spreading during the freezing process
- Dsupercooled droplets freezing on impact
6350.9.1.2 (3847)
The type of icing that occurs in dense clouds with large supercooled drops that
have a temperature of -5°C is most likely to be- Ahoar frost
- Brime ice
- Cclear ice
- Dcloudy ice
6450.9.1.2 (3848)
Clear ice is dangerous because it- Ais translucent and only forms at the leading edges
- Bis heavy and is difficult to remove from the aircraft surfaces
- Cspreads out and contains many air particles
- Dis not translucent and forms at the leading edges
6550.9.1.3 (3853)
How does a pilot react to heavy freezing rain at 2000 FT/AGL, when he is unable to
deice, nor land?- AHe descends to the warm air layer below.
- BHe ascends to the cold air layer above.
- CHe turns back before the aircraft loses manoeuvrability.
- DHe continues to fly at the same altitude.
6650.9.1.3 (3854)
At what degree of icing should ICAO's ""Change of course and/or altitude
desirable"" recommendation be followed?- AModerate
- BSevere
- CLight
- DExtreme
6750.9.1.3 (3855)
At what degree of icing should ICAO's ""Change course and/or altitude
immediately"" instruction be followed?- ASevere
- BExtreme
- CLight
- DModerate
6850.9.1.3 (3856)
At what degree of icing can ICAO's ""No change of course and altitude necessary""
recommendation be followed?- ALight
- BSevere
- CModerate
- DExtreme
6950.9.1.3 (3857)
The most dangerous form of airframe icing is- Arime ice
- Bclear ice.
- Choar frost.
- Ddry ice.
7050.9.2.1 (3859)
How does moderate turbulence affect an aircraft?- ARapid and somewhat rhythmic bumpiness is experienced without appreciable changes in
altitude or attitude. - BLarge, abrupt changes in altitude or attitude occur but the aircraft may only be out of
control momentarily. - CChanges in altitude or attitude occur but the aircraft remains in positive control
at all times. - DContinued flight in this environment will result in structural damage.
- ARapid and somewhat rhythmic bumpiness is experienced without appreciable changes in
7150.9.2.1 (3861)
What is normally the most effective measure to reduce or avoid CAT effects?- AChange of flight level.
- BChange of course.
- CDecrease of speed.
- DIncrease of speed.
7250.9.2.2 (3864)
The degree of clear air turbulence experiencied by an aircraft is proportional to the- Aintensity of vertical and horizontal windshear
- Bheight of the aircraft
- Cintensity of the solar radiation
- Dstability of the air
7350.9.3.2 (3869)
Low level vertical wind shear can be expected during the night- Aand early morning only in winter
- Bin association with radiation inversions
- Cin unstable atmospheres
- Dand early morning only in summer
7450.9.3.2 (3870)
The most dangerous low level wind shears are encountered- Awhen strong ground inversions are present and near thunderstorms
- Bduring any period when wind speed is greater than 35 kt and near valleys
- Cin areas with layered clouds and wind speeds higher than 35 kt
- Dnear valleys and at the windward side of mountains..
7550.9.4.1 (3872)
Where is a squall line to be expected?- AIn front of a cold front occlusion at higher levels.
- BBehind a cold front.
- CAt the surface position of a warm front
- DIn front of an active cold front.
7650.9.4.1 (3873)
What are squall lines?- AThe surface weather associated with upper air troughs.
- BBands of intensive thunderstorms.
- CThe paths of tropical revolving storms.
- DUnusual intensive cold fronts.
7750.9.4.1 (3874)
What weather condition would you expect at a squall line?- AStrong steady rain
- BThunderstorms
- CFog
- DStrong whirlwinds reaching up to higher levels
7850.9.4.1 (3875)
At which altitude, at temperate latitudes, may hail be expected in connection with
a CB?- AFrom the ground up to a maximum of FL 450.
- BFrom the ground up to about FL 200.
- CFrom the ground up to about FL 100.
- DFrom the base of the clouds up to FL 200.
7950.9.4.1 (3876)
A squall line usually is most likely to be encountered- Aat an occluded front
- Bin an airmass with cold mass properties
- Cahead of a cold front
- Dbehind of a stationary front
8050.9.4.1 (3877)
In which stage of the life cycle of a single thunderstorm cell occur both up- and
downdrafts simultaneously?
- ACumulus stage
- BMature stage
- CDissipating stage
- DIn all stages
8150.9.4.2 (3882)
During which stage of thunderstorm development are rotor winds characterized by
roll clouds most likely to occur ?- AMature stage.
- BCumulus stage.
- CDissipating stage.
- DCumulus stage and mature stage.
8250.9.4.2 (3884)
Which of the following meteorological phenomenon indicates upper level
instability which may lead to thunderstorm development ?- AAC lenticularis.
- BAC castellanus.
- CHalo.
- DRed cirrus
8350.9.4.2 (3890)
Thunderstorms reach their greatest intensity during the- Adissipating stage.
- Bmature stage.
- Ccumulus stage.
- Dperiod in which precipitation is not falling.
8450.9.4.2 (3891)
What are the requirements for the formation of a thunderstorm?- AA stratocumulus cloud with sufficient moisture
- BWater vapour and high pressure
- CA cumulus cloud with sufficient moisture associated with an inversion
- DAn adequate supply of moisture, conditional instability and a lifting action
8550.9.4.2 (3893)
In which of the following areas is the highest frequency of thunderstorms
encountered ?- APolar
- BTropical
- CSubtropical
- DTemperate
8650.9.4.4 (3897)
What is a microburst?- AAn extremely strong wind gust in a tropical revolving storm.
- BA concentrated downdraft with high speeds and a higher temperature than the surrounding
air. - CA concentrated downdraft with high speeds and a lower temperature than the
surrounding air. - DA small low pressure system where the wind circulates with very high speeds.
8750.9.4.5 (3903)
Aircraft struck by lightning may sometimes get considerable damage and at least
temporarily the manoeuvring of the aircraft will be made more difficult. Which one
of the following statements is correct?- AAn aircraft has in the atmosphere the same qualities as a ""Faradays cage"", which means
that struck of lightning seldom occurs. But if it happens, the result will be an occasional engine
failure. The crew may get a shock - BAircraft made by composite material may get severe damage, the crew may be
blinded and temporarily lose the hearing. - CAircraft made by composite material can´t conduct a lightning and will therefore very
seldom be struck. - DAn aircraft made by metal has a certain capacity to attract a lightning, but the lightning will
follow the surface and therefore no damage will be caused.
- AAn aircraft has in the atmosphere the same qualities as a ""Faradays cage"", which means
8850.9.5.1 (3906)
The diameter of a typical tornado is- Aonly a few metres
- B100 to 150 metres
- Cabout 2 to 6 km
- Din the order of 10 km
8950.10.1.1 (3918)
The wind indicator for a weather observation receives the measured value from an
anemometer. Where is this instrument placed?- AOn a mast 8-10 m above the ground.
- BClose to the station about 2 m above the ground.
- C1 m above the runway.
- DOn the roof of the weather station.
9050.10.1.1 (3919)
What is the meaning of the abbreviation ""BKN""?- A5 - 7 oktas.
- B3 - 4 oktas.
- C6 - 8 oktas.
- D8 oktas.
9150.10.1.1 (3920)
When is the RVR reported at most airports?- AWhen the meteorological visibility decreases below 800 m.
- BWhen the meteorological visibility decreases below 1500 m.
- CWhen the RVR decreases below 800 m.
- DWhen the RVR decreases below 2000 m
9250.10.1.1 (3921)
When will the surface wind in a METAR record a gust factor ?- AWhen gusts are at least 15 knots above the mean wind speed
- BWhen gusts are at least 10 knots above the mean wind speed
- CWith gusts of at least 25 knots
- DWith gusts of at least 35 knots
9350.10.1.1 (3922)
While approaching your target aerodrome you receive the following message:RVR
runway 23: 400mThis information indicates the- Ameteorological visibility on runway 23.
- Bportion of runway which a pilot on the threshold of any of the runways would see, with
runway 23 in service. - Clength of runway which a pilot in an aircraft on the ground would see, on the
threshold of runway 23. - Dminimum visibility at this aerodrome, with runway 23 being the one in service.
9450.10.1.1 (3925)
The cloud base, reported in the METAR, is the height above- Athe pressure altitude of the observation station at the time of observation
- Bairfield level
- Cmean sea level
- Dthe highest terrain within a radius of 8 km from the observation station
9550.10.1.4 (3929)
Which of the following causes echoes on meteorological radar screens?- AHail
- BWater vapour
- CFog
- DAny cloud
9650.10.2.1 (3931)
In which meteorological forecast chart is information about CAT regions found?- A500 hPa chart.
- BSignificant Weather Chart.
- C24 hour surface forecast.
- D300 hPa chart
9750.10.2.1 (3932)
On which of the following aviation weather charts can a pilot most easily find a
jetstream?- AWind / temperature chart.
- BSignificant weather chart.
- CSurface chart.
- DUpper air chart.
9850.10.2.1 (3933)
Which weather chart gives information about icing and the height of the freezing
level ?- A500 hPa chart
- B700 hPa chart
- CSignificant weather chart
- DSurface chart
9950.10.2.1 (3934)
What information is given on a Significant Weather Chart?- AThe significant weather that is observed at the time given on the chart
- BThe significant weather in a period 3 hours before and 3 hours after the time given on the
chart - CThe significant weather forecast for the time given on the chart
- DThe significant weather forecast for a period 6 hours after the time given on the chart
10050.10.2.4 (3950)
How are well separated CB clouds described on the Significant Weather Chart?- AEMBD CB
- BOCNL CB.
- CSOL CB
- DFREQ CB.
10150.10.3.1 (3966)
What does the abbreviation ""nosig"" mean?- ANo report received
- BNo significant changes
- CNo weather related problems
- DNot signed by the meteorologistu
10250.10.3.1 (3967)
In which weather report would you expect to find information about icing
conditions on the runway?- ASIGMET
- BMETAR
- CGAFOR
- DTAF
10350.10.3.1 (3968)
In which of the following 1850 UTC METAR reports, is the probability of fog
formation, in the coming night, the highest?- AVRB02KT 2500 SCT120 14/M08 Q1035 NOSIG =
- BVRB01KT 8000 SCT250 11/10 Q1028 BECMG 3000 =
- C22004KT 6000 -RA SCT012 OVC030 17/14 Q1009 NOSIG =
- D00000KT 9999 SCT300 21/01 Q1032 NOSIG =
10450.10.3.1 (3969)
Which of the following weather reports could be, in accordance with the
regulations, abbreviated to ""CAVOK""? (MSA above ground: LSZB 10000 FT, LSZH
8000 FT, LSGG 12000 FT, LFSB 6000 FT)- ALSZH 26024G52KT 9999 BKN060 17/14 Q1012 RETS TEMPO 5000 TSRA =
- BLSZB 30004KT 9999 SCT090 10/09 Q1006 NOSIG =
- CLSGG 22003KT 9999 SCT120 BKN280 09/08 Q1026 BECMG 5000 =
- DLFSB 00000KT 9000 SCT080 22/15 Q1022 NOSIG =
10550.10.3.1 (3970)
Which of the following weather reports could be, in accordance with the
regulations, abbreviated to ""CAVOK""? (MSA above ground : LSZB 10000 FT, LSZH
8000 FT, LSGG 12000 FT, LFSB 6000 FT)- ALFSB 24008KT 9999 SCT050 18/11 Q1017 RERA NOSIG =
- BLSZH VRB02KT 9000 BKN080 21/14 Q1022 NOSIG =
- CLSZB 28012KT 9999 OVC100 16/12 Q1012 BECMG 5000 =
- DLSGG 22006KT 9999 BKN090 17/15 Q1008 RERA NOSIG =
10650.10.3.1 (3972)
Refer to the TAF for Bordeaux airport.FCFR31 281400LFBD 1524 26015KT 9999
SHRA BKN020 TEMPO 1620 26020G30KT 8000 +SHRA BKN015CB PROB30 TSRA
=Flight Lisbon to Bordeaux, ETA 1800 UTC. What type of precipitation is forecast
on the approach to Bordeaux ?- AContinuous moderate rain
- BLight drizzle and fog
- CHeavy rain showers
- DModerate snow showers
10750.10.3.1 (3980)
Refer to the TAF for Amsterdam airport.FCNL31 281500EHAM 281601 14010KT
6000 -RA SCT025 BECMG 1618 12015G25KT SCT008 BKN013 TEMPO 1823 3000
RA BKN005 OVC010 BECMG 2301 25020KT 8000 NSW BKN020 =Flight from
Bordeaux to Amsterdam, ETA 2100 UTC. What lowest cloud base is forecast for
arrival at Amsterdam?- A250 FT
- B500 FT
- C500 m
- D800 FTD
10850.10.3.1 (3981)
In the weather briefing room during the pre-flight phase of a passenger flight from
Zurich to Rome, you examine the following weather reports of pressing importance
at the time:EINN SHANNON 2808 sigmet 2 valid 0800/1100 loc sev turb fcst einn
fir blw fl 050 south of 53n wkn =LIMM MILANO 2809 sigmet 2 valid 0900/1500
mod sev cat btn fl 250 and fl 430 fcst limm fir stnr nc =EGLL LONDON 2808 sigmet
nr01 valid 0800/1200 for london fir isol cb embd in lyr cloud fcst tops fl 300 btn
52n and 54n east of 002e sev ice sev turb ts also fcst mov e wkn =Which decision
is correct?- AOwing to these reports and taking into account the presence of heavy thunderstorms at
planned FL 310 you select a higher flight level (FL 370). - BBecause of the expected turbulence you select a flight level below FL 250.
- CYou show no further interest in these reports, since they do not concern the route to be
flown. - DYou cancel the flight since the expected dangerous weather conditions along the route
would demand too much of the passengers
- AOwing to these reports and taking into account the presence of heavy thunderstorms at
10950.10.3.1 (3984)
What does the term METAR signify?- AA METAR is a landing forecast added to the actual weather report as a brief prognostic
report.i - BA METAR signifies the actual weather report at an aerodrome and is generally
issued in half-hourly intervals. - CA METAR is a warning of dangerous meteorological conditions within a FIR.
- DA METAR is a flight forecast, issued by the meteorological station several times daily.
- AA METAR is a landing forecast added to the actual weather report as a brief prognostic
11050.10.3.1 (3986)
What is a SPECI?- AA routine aerodrome weather report issued every 3 hours.
- BA warning of meteorological dangers at an aerodrome, issued only when required.
- CA selected special aerodrome weather report, issued when a significant change
of the weather conditions have been observed. - DAn aerodrome forecast issued every 9 hours
11150.10.3.1 (3987)
Appended to a METAR you get the following runway report: 01650428What must
you consider when making performance calculations?- AThe runway will be wet.
- BThe friction coefficient is 0.28
- CThe braking action will be medium to good
- DAquaplaning conditions
11250.10.3.1 (3988)
Refer to the following TAF extract:BECMG 1821 2000 BKN004 PROB30 BECMG
2124 0500 FG VV001What does the ""BECMG"" data indicate for the 18 to 21 hour
time frame?- AA quick change to new conditions between 1800 UTC and 1900 UTC.
- BMany short term changes in the original weather.
- CThe new conditions are achieved between 1800 and 2100 UTC
- DMany long term changes in the original weather.
11350.10.3.1 (3990)
Refer to the following TAF extract,BECMG 1821 2000 BKN004 PROB30 BECMG
2124 0500 FG VV001What does the abbreviation ""PROB30"" mean?- AConditions will last for at least 30 minutes.
- BProbability of 30%
- CChange expected in less than 30 minutes
- DThe cloud ceiling should lift to 3000 FT
11450.10.3.1 (3991)
What is the wind speed given in a METAR report based on?- AThe average speed of the previous 10 minutes
- BThe strongest gust in the previous hour
- CThe average speed of the previous 30 minutes
- DThe actual speed at the time of recording
11550.10.3.1 (3993)
What does the term TREND signify?- AIt is the actual weather report at an aerodrome and is generally issued at half-hourly
intervals - BIt is a warning of dangerous meteorological conditions
- CIt is a brief landing forecast added to the actual weather report
- DIt is a flight forecast, issued by the meteorological station several times daily
- AIt is the actual weather report at an aerodrome and is generally issued at half-hourly
11650.10.3.1 (3994)
Which of the following phenomena should be described as precipitation at the time
they are observed?- ASN
- BFZFG
- CBCFG
- DHZ
11750.10.3.1 (3996)
Which of the following phenomena should be described as precipitation at the time
they are observed?- ADZ
- BTS
- CSA
- DSQ
11850.10.3.1 (3997)
Which of the following statements is an interpretation of the SIGMET ?LSAW
SWITZERLAND 0307 SIGMET 2 VALID 030700/031100 LSSW mod to sev cat fcst
north of alps btn fl 260 and fl 380 / stnr / intsf =- AModerate to strong clear air turbulence of constant intensity to be expected north of the
Alps - BModerate to severe clear air turbulence to be expected north of the Alps.
Intensity increasing. Danger zone between FL 260 and FL 380 - CZone of moderate to severe turbulence moving towards the area north of the Alps.
Intensity increasing. Pilots advised to cross this area above FL 260 - DSevere turbulence observed below FL 260 north of the Alps. Pilots advised to cross this area
above FL 380
- AModerate to strong clear air turbulence of constant intensity to be expected north of the
11950.10.3.1 (3998)
Which of the following statements is an interpretation of the SIGMET ?SIGMET
VALID 121420/121820 embd ts obs and fcst in w part of athinai fir / mov e / intst
nc =- AThunderstorms have formed in the eastern part of the Athens FIR and are slowly moving
west - BThunderstorms must be expected in the western part of the Athens FIR. The
thunderstorm zone is moving east. Intensity is constant - CThe thunderstorms in the Athens FIR are increasing in intensity, but are stationary above
the western part of the Athens FIR - DAthens Airport is closed due to thunderstorms. The thunderstorm zone should be east of
Athens by 1820 UTC
- AThunderstorms have formed in the eastern part of the Athens FIR and are slowly moving
12050.10.3.1 (4000)
Refer to the following TAF for Zurich.LSZH 061019 20018G30KT 9999 -RA SCT050
BKN080 TEMPO 23012KT 6000 -DZ BKN015 BKN030 BECMG 1518 23020G35KT
4000 RA OVC010=The lowest cloud base forecast at ETA Zurich (1200 UTC) is:- A1000 FT.
- B1500 FT.
- C1500 m.
- D5000 FT.
12150.10.3.1 (4001)
The following weather reportEDDM 241322 VRB03KT 1500 HZ OVC004 BECMG
1517 00000KT 0500 FG VV002 TEMPO 2022 0400 FG VV001is a :- A9 hour TAF
- B24 hour TAF.
- CMETAR
- DSPECI.
12250.10.3.1 (4002)
In METAR messages, the pressure group represents the
- AQFE rounded to the nearest hPa.
- BQNH rounded down to the nearest hPa
- CQNH rounded up to the nearest hPa.
- DQFE rounded down to the nearest hPa
12350.10.3.1 (4003)
What is the meaning of the abbreviation ""SCT"" ?- A3 - 4 oktas
- B1 - 2 oktas
- C5 - 7 oktas
- D1 - 4 oktas
12450.10.3.1 (4007)
Which of these four METAR reports suggests that rain is most likely in the next few
hours?- A34004KT 9999 SCT040 SCT100 m05/m08 Q1014 NOSIG =
- B23015KT 8000 BKN030 OVC070 17/14 Q1009 BECMG 4000 =
- C05016G33KT 8000 OVC015 08/06 Q1028 NOSIG =
- D16002KT 0100 FG SCT300 06/06 Q1022 BECMG 1000 =
12550.10.3.1 (4008)
Which of these four METAR reports suggests that a thunderstorm is likely in the
next few hours?- A1350Z 16004KT 8000 SCT110 OVC220 02/m02 Q1008 NOSIG =
- B1350Z 21005KT 9999 SCT040CB SCT100 26/18 Q1016 TEMPO 24018G30 TS =
- C1350Z 34003KT 0800 SN VV002 m02/m04 Q1014 NOSIG =
- D1350Z 04012KT 3000 OVC012 04/03 Q1022 BECMG 5000 =
12650.10.3.1 (4009)
In which of the following METAR reports, is the probability of fog formation in the
coming night the highest?- A1850Z 21003KT 8000 SCT250 12/m08 Q1028 NOSIG =
- B1850Z 15003KT 6000 SCT120 05/04 Q1032 BECMG 1600 =
- C1850Z 25010KT 4000 RA BKN012 OVC030 12/10 Q1006 TEMPO 1500 =
- D1850Z 06018G30KT 5000 OVC010 04/01 Q1024 NOSIG =
12750.10.3.1 (4010)
Look at this TAF for Zurich AirportTAF LSZH 211322 22018G35KT 9999 SCT012
BKN030 BECMG 1315 25025G45KT TEMPO 1720 4000 +SHRA BKN025TCU BECMG
2022 25015KT T1815Z T1618Z =Which of these statements best describes the
weather most likely to be experienced at 1500 UTC?- AMeteorological visibility 4000 metres, gusts up to 25 knots, temperature 18°C.
- BMeteorological visibility 10 kilometres or more, main cloudbase 1200 feet, gusts up to 45
knots. - CMeteorological visibility 10 kilometres or more, main cloudbase 3000 feet, wind
250°, temperature 18°C. - DSevere rainshowers, meteorological visibility 4000 metres, temperature 15°C, gusts up to
35 knots.
12850.10.3.1 (4011)
Refer to the TAF for Zurich AirportTAF LSZH 250716 00000KT 0100 FG VV001
BECMG 0810 0800 VV002 BECMG 1012 23005KT 2500 BKN005 TEMPO 1316 6000
SCT007 =Which of these statements best describes the weather that can be
expected at 1200 UTC?- AMeteorological visibility 800 metres, wind from 230°, cloudbase 500 feet
- BMeteorological visibility 800 metres, vertical visibility 200 feet, calm
- CMeteorological visibility 2,5 kilometres, cloudbase 500 feet, windspeed 5 knots
- DMeteorological visibility 6 kilometres, cloudbase 500 feet, windspeed 5 knots
12950.10.3.1 (4013)
Which of the following weather reports could be, in accordance with the
regulations, abbreviated to ""CAVOK""?- A34004KT 7000 MIFG SCT260 09/08 Q1029 BECMG 1600 =
- B00000KT 0100 FG VV001 11/11 Q1025 BECMG 0500 =
- C27019G37KT 9999 BKN050 18/14 Q1016 NOSIG =
- D26012KT 8000 SHRA BKN025 16/12 Q1018 NOSIG =
13050.10.3.1 (4015)
Which of the following statements is an interpretation of the METAR ?00000KT
0200 R14/0800U R16/P1500U FZFG VV001 m03/m03 Q1022 BECMG 0800 =- AMeteorological visibility 200 metres, RVR for runway 16 1500 metres, temperature -3°C,
vertical visibility 100 metres - BRVR for runway 14 800 metres, vertical visibility 100 feet, calm, meteorological
visibility improving to 800 metres in the next 2 hours - CMeteorological visibility 200 feet, RVR for runway 16 more than 1500 metres, vertical
visibility 100 feet, fog with hoar frost - DMeteorological visibility for runway 14 800 metres, fog with hoar frost, RVR for runway 16
more than 1500 metres
- AMeteorological visibility 200 metres, RVR for runway 16 1500 metres, temperature -3°C,
13150.10.3.1 (4018)
The validity of a TAF is- Abetween 6 and 9 hours
- B2 hours
- Cstated in the TAF
- D9 hours from the time of issue
13250.10.3.1 (4020)
Runway visual range can be reported in- Aa METAR
- Ba SIGMET
- Ca TAF
- Dboth a TAF and a METAR
13350.10.3.1 (4021)
SIGMET information is issued as a warning for significant weather to- Aall aircraft
- BVFR operations only
- Clight aircraft only
- Dheavy aircraft only
13450.10.3.1 (4022)
A SPECI is- Aa warning for special weather phenomena
- Ban aviation routine weather report
- Can aviation selected special weather report
- Da forecast for special weather phenomena
13550.10.3.1 (4024)
The RVR, as reported in a METAR, is always the- Aaverage value of the A-, B- and C-position
- Bvalue representative of the touchdown zone
- Clowest value of the A-, B- and C-position
- Dhighest value of the A-, B- and C-position
13650.10.3.1 (4025)
At a weather station, at 0600 UTC, the air temperature and dew point are
respectively: T = - 0,5°C,Td = -1,5°C.In the METAR message transmitted by this
station, the ""temperature group"" will be:- A00/M01
- BM00/M01
- CM01/M01
- DM01/M02
13750.10.3.2 (4028)
ATIS information contains- Aoperational information and if necessary meteorological information
- Bmeteorological and operational information
- Conly meteorological information
- Donly operational information
13850.10.3.3 (4086)
A pilot is warned of severe icing at certain flight levels by information supplied in- AMETAR and SIGMET
- BSWC and SIGMET
- CTAF and SIGMET
- DTAF and METAR
13950.10.3.5 (4087)
What units are used to report vertical wind shear?- Akt
- Bkt/100 FT.
- Cm/100 FT
- Dm/sec.
14061.1.2.0 (4109)
The diameter of the Earth is approximately:- A6 350 km
- B12 700 km
- C40 000 km
- D18 500 km
14161.1.2.0 (4116)
The circumference of the earth is approximately:- A5400 NM
- B10800 NM
- C21600 NM
- D43200 NM
14261.1.3.0 (4124)
The duration of civil twilight is the time:- Abetween sunset and when the centre of the sun is 6° below the true horizon
- Bneeded by the sun to move from the apparent height of 0° to the apparent height of 6°
- Cagreed by the international aeronautical authorities which is 12 minutes
- Dbetween sunset and when the centre of the sun is 12° below the true horizondified: Tue, 0
14361.1.3.0 (4133)
The main reason that day and night, throughout the year, have different duration,
is due to the:- Aearth's rotation
- Binclination of the ecliptic to the equator
- Cgravitational effect of the sun and moon on the speed of rotation of the earth
- Drelative speed of the sun along the ecliptic
14461.1.4.0 (4138)
Isogonic lines connect positions that have:- A0° variation
- Bthe same elevation
- Cthe same variation
- Dthe same angle of magnetic dip
14561.1.4.0 (4139)
Compass deviation is defined as the angle between:- AMagnetic North and Compass North
- BTrue North and Magnetic North
- Cthe horizontal and the total intensity of the earth's magnetic field
- DTrue North and Compass North
14661.1.4.0 (4140)
The angle between True North and Magnetic North is called :- Avariation
- Bdeviation
- Ccompass error
- Ddrift
14761.1.5.0 (4147)
The rhumb-line distance between points A (60°00'N 002°30'E) and B (60°00'N
007°30'W) is:- A300 NM
- B450 NM
- C600 NM
- D150 NM
14861.4.1.0 (4359)
Given the following:True track: 192°Magnetic variation: 7°EDrift angle: 5°
leftWhat is the magnetic heading required to maintain the given track?- A190°
- B194°
- C180°
- D204°
14961.4.4.0 (4463)
A useful method of a pilot resolving, during a visual flight, any uncertainty in the
aircraft's position is to maintain visual contact with the ground and:- Afly the reverse of the heading being flown prior to becoming uncertain until a pinpoint is
obtained - Bset heading towards a line feature such as a coastline, motorway, river or
railway - Cfly expanding circles until a pinpoint is obtained
- Dfly reverse headings and associated timings until the point of departure is regained
- Afly the reverse of the heading being flown prior to becoming uncertain until a pinpoint is
15061.4.5.0 (4465)
Given:FL 350,Mach 0.80,OAT -55°C. Calculate the values for TAS and local speed of
sound (LSS)?- A237 kt, LSS 296 kt
- B461 kt , LSS 576 kt
- C461 kt , LSS 296 kt
- D490 kt, LSS 461 kt
15161.4.5.0 (4468)
What is the ISA temperature value at FL 330?- A-50°C
- B-56°C
- C-66°C
- D-81°C
15261.4.5.0 (4471)
Given:Airport elevation is 1000 ft. QNH is 988 hPa.What is the approximate airport
pressure altitude?(Assume 1 hPa = 27 FT)- A680 FT
- B1680 FT
- C320 FT
- D- 320 FT
15361.4.5.0 (4473)
Given:Aircraft at FL 150 overhead an airportElevation of airport 720 FT.QNH is
1003 hPa.OAT at FL150 -5°C.What is the true altitude of the aircraft?(Assume 1
hPa = 27 FT)- A15 280 FT
- B15 840 FT
- C14 160 FT
- D14 720 FT
15461.4.5.0 (4474)
An aircraft takes off from the aerodrome of BRIOUDE (altitude 1 483 FT, QFE = 963
hPa, temperature = 32°C).Five minutes later, passing 5 000 FT on QFE, the second
altimeter set on 1 013 hPa will indicate approximately :- A4 000 FT
- B6 000 FT
- C6 400 FT
- D6 800 FT
15561.4.7.0 (4481)
Given:AD = Air distance GD = Ground distanceTAS = True AirspeedGS =
GroundspeedWhich of the following is the correct formula to calculate ground
distance (GD) gone?- AGD = (AD - TAS)/TAS
- BGD = (AD X GS)/TAS
- CGD = AD X (GS -TAS)/GS
- DGD = TAS/(GS X AD)
15661.5.2.0 (4510)
Assuming zero wind, what distance will be covered by an aircraft descending
15000 FT with a TAS of 320 kt and maintaining a rate of descent of 3000 FT/MIN?- A16.0 NM
- B19.2 NM
- C26.7 NM
- D38.4 NM
15761.5.2.0 (4512)
An aircraft at FL350 is required to descend to cross a DME facility at FL80.
Maximum rate of descent is 1800 FT/MIN and mean GS for descent is 276 kt. The
minimum range from the DME at which descent should start is:- A49 NM
- B59 NM
- C69 NM
- D79 NM
15861.5.2.0 (4520)
What is the effect on the Mach number and TAS in an aircraft that is climbing with
constant CAS?- AMach number remains constant, TAS increases
- BMach number increases, TAS increases
- CMach number increases, TAS remains constant
- DMach number decreases, TAS decreases
15961.6.4.0 (4587)
Which of the following correctly lists the order of available selections of the Mode
Selector switches of an inertial reference system (IRS) mode panel?- AOFF - ALIGN - NAV - ATT
- BOFF - ON - ALIGN - NAV
- COFF - STBY - ALIGN - NAV
- DOFF - ALIGN - ATT - NAV
16061.6.4.0 (4588)
ATT Mode of the Inertial Reference System (IRS) is a back-up mode providing:- Aonly attitude information
- Bonly attitude and heading information
- Caltitude, heading and position information
- Dnavigation information
16161.6.5.0 (4602)
Where and when are the IRS positions updated?- AIRS positions are updated by pressing the 'Take-off/ Go-around' button at the start of the
take-off rol - BOnly on the ground during the alignment procedure
- CUpdating is normally carried out by the crew when over-flying a known position (VOR
station or NDB) - DDuring flight IRS positions are automatically updated by the FMC
- AIRS positions are updated by pressing the 'Take-off/ Go-around' button at the start of the
16261.6.5.0 (4603)
The sensors of an INS measure:- Aacceleration
- Bthe horizontal component of the earth's rotation
- Cvelocity
- Dprecession
16362.1.2.0 (4610)
An aircraft is ""homing"" to a radio beacon whilst maintaining a relative bearing of
zero. If the magnetic heading decreases, the aircraft is experiencing :- Aleft drift
- Bzero drift
- Cright drift
- Da wind from the west
16462.1.2.0 (4614)
'Night Effect' which causes loss of signal and fading, resulting in bearing errors
from NDB transmissions, is due to:- Astatic activity increasing at night particularly in the lower frequency band
- Bskywave distortion of the null position and is maximum at dawn and dusk
- Cthe effect of the Aurora Borealis
- Dinterference from other transmissions and is maximum at dusk when east of the NDB
16562.1.2.0 (4615)
Quadrantal errors associated with aircraft Automatic Direction Finding (ADF)
equipment are caused by:- Asignal bending caused by electrical interference from aircraft wiring
- Bsignal bending by the aircraft metallic surfaces
- Cskywave/groundwave contamination
- Dmisalignment of the loop aerial
16662.1.2.0 (4616)
Errors caused by the effect of coastal refraction on bearings at lower altitudes are
maximum when the NDB is:- Ainland and the bearing crosses the coast at right angles
- Binland and the bearing crosses the coast at an acute angle
- Cnear the coast and the bearing crosses the coast at right angles
- Dnear the coast and the bearing crosses the coast at an acute angle
16762.1.2.0 (4619)
Which of the following is likely to have the greatest effect on ADF accuracy?- AFrequency drift at the ground station
- BInterference from other NDBs, particularly during the day
- CInterference from other NDBs, particularly at night
- DMutual interference between aircraft aerials
16862.1.2.0 (4621)
Which of the following is the ICAO allocated frequency band for ADF receivers?- A200 - 1750 kHz
- B200 - 2000 kHz(Aÿÿ ¾ Æ< M
- C255 - 455 kHz
- D300 - 3000 kHz
16962.1.2.0 (4623)
Factors liable to affect most NDB/ADF system performance and reliability include:- Aheight error - station interference - mountain effect
- Bstatic interference - station interference - latitude error
- Cstatic interference - night effect - absence of failure warning system
- Dcoastal refraction - lane slip - mountain effect
17062.1.2.0 (4624)
Which one of the following disturbances is most likely to cause the greatest
inaccuracy in ADF bearings?- AQuadrantal error
- BCoastal effect
- CLocal thunderstorm activity
- DPrecipitation interference
17162.1.3.0 (4627)
Transmissions from VOR facilities may be adversely affected by:- Anight effect
- Buneven propagation over irregular ground surfaces
- Cquadrantal error
- Dstatic interference
17262.1.3.0 (4628)
If VOR bearing information is used beyond the published protection range, errors
could be caused by:- Ainterference from other transmitters
- Bsky wave interference from the same transmitter
- Cnoise from precipitation static exceeding the signal strength of the transmitter
- Dsky wave interference from distant transmitters on the same frequency
17362.1.3.0 (4635)
An aircraft is flying on the true track 090° towards a VOR station located near the
equator where the magnetic variation is 15°E. The variation at the aircraft position
is 8°E.The aircraft is on VOR radial:- A255°
- B262°
- C278°
- D285°
17462.1.3.0 (4639)
Which frequency band is used by VOR transmissions?- AVHF
- BUHF
- CHF
- DSHF
17562.1.3.0 (4641)
An aircraft is required to approach a VOR station via the 244° radial. In order to
obtain correct sense indications the deviation indicator should be set to:- A064° with the TO flag showing
- B064° with the FROM flag showing
- C244° with the FROM flag showing
- D244° with the TO flag showing
17662.1.3.0 (4642)
What is the maximum theoretical range that an aircraft at FL150 can receive
signals from a VOR situated 609 feet above MSL?- A147 NM
- B156 NM
- C184 NM
- D220 NM
17762.1.3.0 (4645)
The maximum theoretical range at which an aircraft at FL230 may receive signals
from a VOR facility sited at mean sea level is:- A151 NM
- B170 NM
- C190 NM
- D230 NM
17862.1.3.0 (4646)
If an aircraft flies along a VOR radial it will follow a:- Aconstant magnetic track
- Brhumbline track
- Cgreat circle track
- Dline of constant bearing
17962.1.3.0 (4647)
An aircraft at 6400 FT will be able to receive a VOR groundstation at 100 FT above
MSL at an approximate maximum range of :- A90 NM
- B100 NM
- C110 NM
- D120 NM
18062.1.3.0 (4648)
An aircraft at FL 100 should be able to receive a VOR groundstation at 100 FT
above MSL at an approximate maximum range of :- A123 NM
- B130 NM
- C135 NM
- D142 NM
18162.1.3.0 (4649)
The maximum theoretical range at which an aircraft at FL210 may receive signals
from a VOR facility sited 340 feet above mean sea level is approximately:- A163 NM
- B183 NM
- C204 NM
- D245 NM
18262.1.3.0 (4652)
An aircraft is flying on a heading of 270°(M). The VOR OBS is also set to 270° with
the full left deflection and FROM flag displayed. In which sector is the aircraft from
the VOR ground station?- ANW
- BSW
- CSE
- DNE
18362.1.3.0 (4656)
The frequency range of a VOR receiver is :- A108 to 117.95 MHz
- B108 to 111.95 MHz
- C118 to 135.95 MHz
- D108 to 135.95 MHz
18462.1.3.0 (4657)
If the reference phase differs 30° with the variable phase the radial from the VOR
station will be :- A030°
- B210°
- C330°
- D150°
18562.1.3.0 (4659)
The captain of an aircraft flying at FL100 wishes to obtain weather information at
the destination airfield from the airfield's VOR. At what maximum theoretical range
will it be possible to obtain this information?- A123 NM
- B1230 km
- C12.3 NM
- D123 km
18662.1.3.0 (4660)
Given:Aircraft heading 160°(M),Aircraft is on radial 240° from a VOR,Selected
course on HSI is 250°.The HSI indications are deviation bar:- Abehind the aeroplane symbol with the TO flag showing
- Bahead of the aeroplane symbol with the FROM flag showing
- Cbehind the aeroplane symbol with the FROM flag showing
- Dahead of the aeroplane symbol with the TO flag showing
18762.1.4.0 (4661)
A DME station is located 1000 feet above MSL. An aircraft flying at FL 370, 15 NM
away from the DME station, will have a DME reading of:- A14 NM
- B16 NM
- C15 NM
- D17 NM
18862.1.4.0 (4666)
The DME (Distance Measuring Equipment) operates within the following
frequencies:- A108 to 118 MHz
- B329 to 335 MHz
- C962 to 1213 MHz
- D962 to 1213 kHz.
18962.1.4.0 (4669)
A typical frequency employed in Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) is:- A10 MHz
- B100 MHz
- C100 GHz
- D1000 MHz
19062.1.4.0 (4670)
Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) operates in the:- AVHF band and uses the principle of phase comparison
- BSHF band and uses frequency modulation techniquess
- CUHF band and is a secondary radar system
- DUHF band and is a primary radar system
19162.1.4.0 (4672)
On a DME, display counters rotating throughout their range indicates:- Aairborne equipment failure
- Bthe airborne receiver is conducting a range search
- Cthe airborne equipment is conducting a frequency search
- Dground equipment failure
19262.1.4.0 (4674)
The aircraft DME receiver cannot lock on to interrogation signals reflected from the
ground because:- Areflections are subject to doppler frequency shift
- BDME pulse recurrence rates are varied
- Caircraft transmitter and DME ground station are transmitting on different
frequencies - DDME transmits twin pulses
19362.1.5.0 (4684)
A Category 1 Instrument Landing System (ILS) ground installation provides
accurate guidance from coverage limit down to:- A50 feet above ILS reference point
- B200 feet above the runway threshold
- Crunway surface
- D200 feet above the inner marker
19462.1.5.0 (4692)
ILS is subject to false glide paths resulting from:- Aback-scattering of antennas
- Bmultiple lobes of radiation patterns in the vertical plane
- Cground returns ahead of the antennas
- Dspurious signals reflected by nearby obstacles
19562.1.5.0 (4693)
What is the colour sequence when passing over an Outer, Middle and Inner Marker
beacon?- Awhite - amber - blue
- Bblue - amber - white
- Camber - white - green
- Dblue - green - white
19662.1.5.0 (4695)
An aircraft carrying out a 3° glidepath ILS approach experiences a reduction in
groundspeed from 150 kt at the outer marker to 120 kt over the threshold. The
effect of this change in groundspeed on the aircraft's rate of descent will be a
decrease of approximately:- A50 FT/MIN
- B150 FT/MIN
- C250 FT/MIN
- D100 FT/MIN
19762.1.5.0 (4697)
In which frequency band does an ILS glide slope transmit?- AVHF
- BSHF
- CUHF
- DEHF
19862.1.5.0 (4698)
Assuming a five dot display, what does each of the dots on either side of the ILS
localizer cockpit display represent :- A0.5 degrees
- B1.5 degrees
- C2.0 degrees
- D2.5 degrees
19962.1.5.0 (4702)
The rate of descent required to maintain a 3.25° glide slope at a groundspeed of
140 kt is approximately:- A800 FT/MIN
- B850 FT/MIN
- C700 FT/MIN
- D670 FT/MIN
20062.1.5.0 (4703)
Where, in relation to the runway, is the ILS localiser transmitting aerial normally
situated?- AAt the approach end of the runway about 300 m from touchdown on the centreline
- BAt the non-approach end about 150 m to one side of the runway and 300 m along the
extended centreline - COn the non-approach end of the runway about 300 m from the runway on the
extended centreline - DAt the approach end about 150 m to one side of the runway and 300 m from touchdowng
Informações
- Descrição
- Aviacion (Examen ) Quiz sobre EASA ATP Qatar yellow 4, criado por Alejandro Castillo em 23-05-2018.
- Autor
- Alejandro Castillo
- Idioma
- Español
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