Quiz
EASA ATP Qatar Yellow 5
Perguntas do quiz (200)
162.1.5.0 (4705)
Which of the following is an ILS localiser frequency?- A108.25 MHz
- B109.15 MHz
- C110.20 MHz
- D112.10 MHz
262.1.5.0 (4706)
What approximate rate of descent is required in order to maintain a 3° glidepath at
a groundspeed of 90 kt?
- A400 FT/MIN
- B450 FT/MIN
- C600 FT/MIN
- D700 FT/MIN
362.2.1.0 (4719)
The maximum range of primary radar depends on :- Awave length
- Bfrequency
- Cpulse recurrence frequency
- Dpulse length
462.2.1.0 (4721)
The prime factor in determining the maximum unambiguous range of a primary
radar is the:- Apower output
- Bpulse recurrence rate
- Csize of parabolic receiver aerial
- Dheight of the transmitter above the ground
562.2.1.0 (4725)
The theoretical maximum range for an Airborne Weather Radar is determined by
the:- Apulse recurrence frequency
- Btransmission frequency
- Ctransmission power
- Dsize of the aerial
662.2.2.0 (4737)
The maximum range obtainable from an ATC Long Range Surveillance Radar is
approximately:- A100 NM
- B200 NM
- C300 NM
- D400 NM
762.2.1.0 (4725)
The theoretical maximum range for an Airborne Weather Radar is determined by
the:- Apulse recurrence frequency
- Btransmission power
- Csize of the aerial
- Dtransmission frequency
862.2.3.0 (4742)
Which of the following cloud types is most readily detected by airborne weather
radar when using the 'weather beam'?- Acumulus
- Bcirrocumulus
- Cstratus
- Daltostratus
962.2.3.0 (4743)
In which mode of operation does the aircraft weather radar use a cosecant
radiation pattern.- AWEATHER
- BMAPPING
- CCONTOUR
- DMANUAL
1062.2.3.0 (4751)
A weather radar, set to the 100 NM scale, shows a squall at 50NM. By changing the
scale to 50 NM, the return on the radar screen should:- Aincrease in area and appear nearer to the bottom of the screen
- Bincrease in area and move to the top of the screen
- Cdecrease in area and move to the top of the screen
- Ddecrease in area but not change in position on the screen
1162.2.3.0 (4754)
In order to ascertain whether a cloud return on an Aircraft Weather Radar (AWR)
is at or above the height of the aircaft, the tilt control should be set to: (Assume a
beam width of 5°)- A0°
- B2.5° up
- C2.5° down
- D5° up
1262.2.4.0 (4761)
Why is a secondary radar display screen free of storm clutter?- AThe principle of 'echo' return is not used in secondary radar
- BThe frequencies employed are too high to give returns from moisture sources
- CThe frequencies employed are too low to give returns from moisture sources
- DA moving target indicator facility suppresses the display of static or near static returns
1362.2.4.0 (4762)
In order to indicate radio failure the aircraft SSR transponder should be selected to
code:
- A7500
- B7600
- C7700
- D7000
1462.2.4.0 (4763)
In order to indicate unlawful interference with the planned operation of the flight,
the aircraft Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) transponder should be selected to:- A7500
- B7600
- C7700
- D7000
1562.2.4.0 (4766)
The two main design functions of Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) Mode S are:- Acollision avoidance using TCAS II and improved long range (HF) communication capability.
- Bcontinuous automatic position reporting using Global Positioning System (GPS) satellites and
collision avoidance using TCAS II - Cthe elimination of ground to air communications and the introduction of automatic
separation between aircraft using TCAS II - Dair to ground and ground to air data link communications and improved ATC
aircraft surveillance capability
1662.2.4.0 (4770)
Which of the following Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) codes is used to
indicate transponder malfunction?- A0
- B4096
- C7600
- D9999
1762.2.4.0 (4774)
In order to indicate an emergency situation, the aircraft Secondary Surveillance
Radar (SSR) transponder should be set to:- A7500
- B7600
- C7700
- D7000
1862.2.4.0 (4779)
The selection of code 7700 on an aircraft SSR transponder indicates:- Atransponder malfunction
- Ban emergency
- Cradio communication failure
- Dunlawful interference with the planned operation of the flight
1962.2.4.0 (4761)
Why is a secondary radar display screen free of storm clutter?- AThe frequencies employed are too high to give returns from moisture sources
- BA moving target indicator facility suppresses the display of static or near static returns
- CThe principle of 'echo' return is not used in secondary radar
- DThe frequencies employed are too low to give returns from moisture sources
2062.2.4.0 (4762)
In order to indicate radio failure the aircraft SSR transponder should be selected to
code:- A7000
- B7500
- C7600
- D7700
2162.2.4.0 (4763)
In order to indicate unlawful interference with the planned operation of the flight,
the aircraft Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) transponder should be selected to:- A7000
- B7500
- C7600
- D7700
2262.2.4.0 (4766)
The two main design functions of Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) Mode S are:- Acollision avoidance using TCAS II and improved long range (HF) communication capability.
- Bair to ground and ground to air data link communications and improved ATC
aircraft surveillance capability - Cthe elimination of ground to air communications and the introduction of automatic
separation between aircraft using TCAS IIP - Dcontinuous automatic position reporting using Global Positioning System (GPS) satellites and
collision avoidance using TCAS II
2362.5.1.0 (4786)
Under JAR-25 colour code rules features displayed in cyan/blue, on an Electronic
Flight Instrument Systems (EFIS), indicate:- Athe sky
- Bengaged modes
- Cthe flight director bar(s)
- Dflight envelope and system limits
2462.5.1.0 (4788)
Under JAR-25 colour code rules for Electronic Flight Instrument Systems (EFIS),
armed modes are coloured:- Agreen
- Bmagenta
- Cwhite
- Damber/yellow
2562.5.1.0 (4789)
Under JAR-25 colour code rules for Electronic Flight Instrument Systems (EFIS),
selected data and values are coloured:- Awhite
- Bgreen
- Cyellow
- Dmagenta
2662.5.1.0 (4791)
Under JAR-25 colour code rules for Electronic Flight Instrument Systems (EFIS),
the active route/flight plan is coloured:- Ayellow
- Bgreen
- Cmagenta
- Dcyan
2762.5.2.0 (4805)
The track-line on the Electronic Horizontal Situation Indicator (EHSI) or Navigation
Display of an Electronic Flight Instrument System:- Acorresponds to the calculated IRS TH and is correct during turns
- Brepresents the track of the aircraft over the ground. When it co-incides with the
desired track, wind influence is compensated for - Cindicates to the pilot that a manually selected heading is being flown
- Dindicates that the pilot has made a manual track selection
2862.5.2.0 (4809)
The database of an FMS (Flight Management System) is organised in such a way
that the pilot can:- Acan modify the database every 28 days
- Binsert navigation data between two updates
- Cread and write at any time in database
- Donly read the database
2962.5.4.0 (4819)
Which of the following combinations is likely to result in the most accurate Area
Navigation (RNAV) fixes?- AVOR/DME
- BDME/DME
- CNDB/VOR
- DVOR/VOR
3062.6.1.0 (4835)
An apparent increase in the transmitted frequency which is proportional to the
transmitter velocity will occur when:- Athe receiver moves towards the transmitter
- Bthe transmitter moves towards the receiver
- Cthe transmitter moves away from the receiver
- Dboth transmitter and receiver move towards each other
3162.6.5.0 (4843)
In a Satellite-Assisted Navigation system (GNSS/GPS) a position line is obtained
by:- Atiming the period that is taken for a transmission from the aircraft's transmitter/receiver to
reach and return from a satellite in a known position - Btiming the period that is taken for a satellite's transmission to reach the
aircraft's receiver - Cthe aircraft's receiver measuring the phase angle of the signal received from a satellite in a
known position - Dthe aircraft's receiver measuring the time difference between signals received from a
minimum number of satellites
- Atiming the period that is taken for a transmission from the aircraft's transmitter/receiver to
3262.6.5.0 (4844)
In which frequency band do Satellite-Assisted Navigation systems (GNSS/GPS)
provide position information that is available to civil aircraft?- ASHF
- BUHF
- CVHF
- DEHF
3362.6.5.0 (4847)
Signal reception is required from a minimum number of satellites that have
adequate elevation and suitable geometry in order for a Satellite-Assisted
Navigation System (GNSS/GPS) to carry out independent three dimensional
operation, Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) and to isolate any
faulty satellite and remove it from contributing to the navigation solution. The
number of satellites is:- A4
- B5
- C6
- D7
3462.6.5.0 (4848)
Signal reception is required from a minimum number of satellites that have
adequate elevation and suitable geometry in order for a Satellite-Assisted
Navigation System (GPS) to carry out independent three dimensional operation
without the Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) function. The
number of satellites is:- A4
- B5
- C6
- D7
3562.6.5.0 (4849)
Which of the following lists are all errors that affect the accuracy and reliability of
the Satellite-Assisted Navigation system (GNSS/GPS)?- ASatellite to ground time lag, atmospheric propagation, satellite clock
- BSatellite clock, satellite ephemeris, atmospheric propagation
- CSatellite mutual interference, satellite ephemeris, atmospheric propagation
- DSatellite mutual interference, frequency drift, satellite to ground time lag
3662.6.5.0 (4853)
Which of the following lists all the parameters that can be determined by a GPS
receiver tracking signals from 4 different satellites?- ALatitude and longitude
- BLatitude, longitude, altitude and time
- CLatitude, longitude and time
- DLatitude, longitude and altitude
3762.6.5.0 (4854)
Which of the following combinations of satellite navigation systems provide the
most accurate position fixes in air navigation?- ANAVSTAR/GPS and NNSS-Transit
- BNNSS-Transit and GLONASS
- CNAVSTAR/GPS and GLONASS
- DGLONASS and COSPAS-SARSAT
3862.6.5.0 (4855)
The required 24 NAVSTAR/GPS operational satellites are located on:- A3 orbital planes with 8 satellites in each plane
- B4 orbital planes with 6 satellites in each plane
- C6 orbital planes with 4 satellites in each plane
- D6 orbital planes with 3 satellites in each plane plus 6 reserve satellites positioned in a
geostationary orbital plane
3962.6.5.0 (4857)
How many operational satellites are required for Full Operational Capability (FOC)
of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS?- A12
- B24
- C18
- D30
4062.6.5.0 (4864)
The geometric shape of the reference system for the satellite navigation system
NAVSTAR/GPS, defined as WGS 84, is:- Aan ellipsoid
- Ba sphere
- Ca mathematical model that describes the exact shape of the earth
- Da geoid
4162.6.5.0 (4876)
In the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, what is the maximum time taken
to receive the complete set of almanac data from all satellites?- A12 hours (= period of the satellites orbit)
- B12.5 minutes (= 30 seconds per data frame)
- C24 seconds (= 1 second per data frame)
- D25 seconds (= 1 second per data frame)
4262.6.5.0 (4885)
What is the minimum number of NAVSTAR/GPS satellites required to produce an
accurate independent 3-D position fix?- A3
- B4
- C24
- D5
4362.6.5.0 (4901)
What datum is used for the Minimum Descent Altitude (MDA) on a non-precision
approach when using the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system?- ABarometric altitude
- BRadar altitude
- CIf using Differential-GPS (D-GPS) the altitude obtained from the D-GPS, otherwise
barometric altitude - DGPS altitude
4471.1.1.0 (4903)
Selecting an alternate aerodrome the runway of this facility must be sufficiently
long to allow a full stop landing from 50 ft above the threshold (jet type aircraft,
dry runway) within:- A50% of the landing distance available.
- B60% of the landing distance available.
- C70% of the landing distance available.
- D80% of the landing distance available.
4571.1.1.0 (4907)
The standby power supply powering the standby artificial horizon must be
operable on board any aircraft of more than 5700 kg or more than 9 passengers
during at least :- A15 minutes.
- B30 minutes.
- C60 minutes.
- D2 hours.
4671.1.1.0 (4908)
A life jacket is mandatory for any passenger on board an aircraft flying away from
the shore by more than :- A50 NM
- B100 NM
- C200 NM
- D400 NM
4771.1.1.0 (4911)
The term decision height (DH) is used for :- Aa conventional approach.
- Ban indirect approach.
- Ca precision approach.
- Da conventional approach followed by a visual maneuver.
4871.1.1.0 (4913)
For twin-engined aircraft, the take-off alternate shall be located at a distance
that : (Annex 6, Part I)- ADoes not exceed the equivalent of one hour of flight time at cruising speed all engines operating.
- BDoes not exceed the equivalent of one hour of flight time, at cruising speed with
only one engine operative. - CDoes not exceed the equivalent of two hour of flight time at cruising speed all engines
operating. - DDoes not exceed the equivalent of two hours of flight time, at cruising speed with only one
engine operative.
4971.1.1.0 (4915)
When refueling is being performed while passengers are boarding or disembarking
the aircraft, it is necessary that: (Annex 6, Part I)- AThe aircraft's stairs be completely extended.
- BCommunications be maintained between ground personnel and qualified
personnel on board. - CAll the flight crew be on board."s
- DRefueling is prohibited while passengers are boarding and/or disembarking.
5071.1.1.0 (4920)
The regulatory green navigation light is located on the starboard wing tip, with a
coverage angle of :- A70°.
- B110°.
- C140°.
- D220°.
5171.1.1.0 (4921)
Flight data recorders must keep the data and parameters recorded during at least
the last :- A25 hours of operation.
- Bflight.
- C30 hours of operation.
- D48 hours of operation
5271.1.1.0 (4922)
For aircraft certified before the 1 april 1998, cockpit voice recorder must keep the
conversations and sound alarms recorded during the last :- Aflight.
- B25 hours of operation.
- C30 minutes of operation.
- D48 hours of operation.
5371.1.1.0 (4923)
On board a non-pressurized aircraft, the crew and all the passengers must be fed
with oxygen throughout the flight period during which the pressure altitude is
greater than :- A10 000 ft
- B11 000 ft
- C12 000 ft
- D13 000 ft
5471.1.1.0 (4924)
On board a non-pressurized aircraft, 10% of the passengers must be supplied with
oxygen throughout the period of flight, reduced by 30 minutes, during which the
pressure altitude is between :- A10 000 ft and 12 000 ft
- B10 000 ft and 13 000 ft
- C11 000 ft and 12 000 ft
- D11 000 ft and 13 000 ft
5571.1.1.0 (4926)
For the flight crew members, quickly-fitted oxygen masks are compulsory on board
any pressurized aircraft flying at a pressure altitude greater than :- A10 000 ft
- B25 000 ft
- C13 000 ft
- D29 000 ft
5671.1.1.0 (4928)
The coverage angle of the regulatory white position lights, continuously lit in flight
and located at the rear of the aircraft, is :- A70°
- B110°
- C140°
- D220°
5771.1.1.0 (4930)
The JAR-OPS is based on :- AICAO Appendix 6
- BThe air transport rules
- Che Federal Aviation Requirements (FAR)
- DA JAA guideline
5871.1.1.0 (4931)
During a night flight, an observer located in the cockpit, seeing an aircraft coming
from the front right right, will first see the :- Ared steady light
- Bgreen steady light
- Cwhite steady light
- Dgreen flashing light
5971.1.1.0 (4932)
The coverage angle of the regulatory red position light, continuously lit in flight
and located at the tip of the left wing is :
- A70°
- B110°
- C140°
- D220°
6071.1.1.0 (4933)
For turbo-jet aircraft, in the flight preparation stage, the landing distance at the
scheduled destination aerodrome shall be less than the available landing distance
multiplied by a factor of :- A0.5
- B0.6
- C0.7
- D0.8
6171.1.2.0 (4936)
The first part of the JAR-OPS applies to:
- Athe aircraft proceeding from European states or flying over them.
- Bthe operation by a state member of the JAA of any civil commercial transport
aircraft. - Cthe aircraft used by police, customs and defense departments.
- Dthe operation by a state member of the JAA of any civil aircraft
6271.1.2.4 (4953)
A category C aircraft can carry out an indirect approach followed by a visual
maneuver only if the horizontal visibility is higher than or equal to :- A1500 m
- B1600 m
- C2400 m
- D3600 m
6371.1.2.4 (4958)
When establishing an instrument approach procedure, 5 aircraft categories
according to their speed at the threshold (Vat) are established. This speed is equal
to the stalling speed in the landing configuration at the maximum certified landing
weight multiplied by a factor of:- A1.3
- B1.15
- C1.5
- D1.45
6471.1.2.4 (4963)
In accordance with JAR-OPS1, a Category III B operations, is a precision
instrument approach and landing using ILS or MLS with, a decision height lower
than 50 ft, or no decision height and a runway visual range lower than 200 m but
no less than :- A50 m
- B75 m
- C100 m
- D150 m
6571.1.2.4 (4967)
For a twin-engine aeroplane, the standard operational take-off minimums may be
used provided an alternate aerodrome is accessible at less than:- A60 minutes at cruising speed all engines running.
- B30 minutes at cruising speed with one engine unserviceable.
- C30 minutes at cruising speed all engines running.
- D60 minutes at cruising speed with one engine unserviceable
6671.1.2.4 (4971)
In accordance with OPS 1 430 (Aerodrome Operating Minima - General), it is
established, among other considerations, that an Operator must take full account
of Aeroplane Categories.The criteria taken into consideration for classification of
Aeroplanes by Categories is the indicated airspeed at threshold (Vat), which is
equal to the stalling speed at the maximum landing mass (Vso) multiplied by
1,3.Corresponding Aeroplane Category when Vat is from 141 kt to 165 kt is :- AD
- BB
- CC
- DE
6771.1.3.1 (4983)
On an alternate field, the captain of turbojet engined aircraft must mandatorily
have a quantity of fuel and lubricant sufficient for flying during :- A45 minutes at holding flight speed and 1500 ft
- B30 minutes at holding flight speed and 1500 ft
- C30 minutes at cruising speed
- D45 minutes at cruising speed
6871.1.3.1 (4984)
On landing on an isolated field, the captain of a turbojet engined aircraft must
mandatorily have a minimum quantity of fuel and lubricant sufficient for flying
during :- A2 hours with normal cruising consumption
- B2 hours at holding flight speed and 1500 ft
- C30 minutes at holding flight speed and 1500 ft
- D30 minutes with normal cruising consumption
6971.1.3.1 (4985)
When the weather conditions require an alternate aerodrome to be available on
take-off, the latter shall be located, for a twin-engined aircraft, at an equivalent
distance not exceeding :- A1 hour of flight at cruising speed with a single engine
- B1 hour of flight at cruising speed with two engines
- C2 hours of flight at cruising speed with single engine
- D2 hours of flight at cruising speed with two engines
7071.1.3.1 (4988)
According to the JAR-OPS regulations, an IFR flight with no alternate airfield can
be undertaken only if the minimum weather conditions stipulated in the
regulations are effective for at least :- A1 hour before to at least 1 hour after the expected time of arrival
- B2 hours before to at least 2 hours after the expected time of arrival
- C3 hours before to at least 1 hour after the expected time of arrival
- D3 hours before to at least 3 hours after the expected time of arrival
7171.1.3.2 (5009)
During a transoceanic and polar flight, the chart precession is a rotation in
degrees, for a moving aircraft, of the gyro North with respect to the :- Agrid North for any chart
- Bgrid North for a given chart
- Ctrue North for a given chart
- Dtrue North for any chart
7271.1.3.2 (5010)
Astronomic precession is :- Andependent of the latitude
- Bdepending on the chart used
- Cexisting whether the aircraft is on the ground or flying
- Dzero when the aircraft is on the ground
7371.1.3.3 (5017)
MNPS is the abbreviation for:- AMinimum Navigation Performance Specification.
- BMaximum North-atlantic Precision System.
- CMilitary Network Performance Structure.
- DMinimum Navigation Positioning System
7471.1.3.3 (5018)
In MNPS airspace, the speed reference is the:- AMach number.
- Btrue airspeed.
- Cground speed.
- Dindicated airspeed.
7571.1.3.3 (5020)
In the MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) area, a pilot should
first of all take the following action in the event of a failure of the last inertial
navigation system:- Anotify Control and wait for a reply within a reasonable time.
- Brequest authorization from Control to track another aircraft.
- Cset a different heading approximately 45° from the previous one.
- Dimmediately climb or descent 1 000 ft.
7671.1.3.3 (5022)
The validity period of a flight track system organized in MNPS (Minimum
Navigation Performance Specification) airspace during an Eastbound flight
normally is :- A10H30 UTC to 19H00 UTC
- B01H00 UTC to 08H00 UTC
- C11H30 UTC to 19H00 UTC
- D00H00 UTC to 08H00 UTC
7771.1.3.3 (5023)
The validity period of a flight track system organized in MNPS (Minimum
Navigation Performance Specification) airspace during a Westbound flight
normally is :- A11H30 UTC to 19H00 UTC
- B10H30 UTC to 19H00 UTC
- C01H00 UTC to 08H00 UTC
- D00H00 UTC to 08H00 UTC
7871.1.3.3 (5026)
The minimum navigation equipment required for an aircraft flying without
restriction in MNPS airspace can be at the very least :- ATwo inertial navigation units.
- BTwo inertial navigation units and a DECCA.
- CThree inertial navigation units.
- DOne inertial navigation unit.
7971.1.3.3 (5027)
The minimum longitudinal spacing of two aircraft flying in MNPS airspace at the
same Mach number is :- A5 minutes.
- B10 minutes.
- C15 minutes.
- D20 minutes.
8071.1.3.3 (5028)
The minimum lateral spacing to be maintained between aircraft flying in MNPS
airspace is :- A30 NM.
- B60 NM.
- C90 NM.
- D120 NM.
8171.1.3.3 (5029)
During the flight of two aircraft in MNPS airspace with a leading aircraft flying at
higher speed, the longitudinal spacing must be at least :- A5 minutes
- B10 minutes
- C15 minutes
- D20 minutes
8271.1.3.3 (5031)
The MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace extends from
:- A27° North to 90° North.
- B27° North to 70° North.
- C30° North to 90° North.
- D30° North to 70° North.
8371.1.3.3 (5043)
Which errors in ""estimates"" minutes shall be reported by aircraft overflying the
North Atlantic?- A2 or more.
- B3 or more.
- C5 or more.
- D10 or more.
8471.1.3.3 (5044)
The minimum lateral separation in the NAT region is:- A60 NM between aircraft flying above FL285.
- B60 NM between aircraft operating below MNPS airspace.
- C90 NM between aircraft flying above FL285.
- D90 NM between all aircraft flying in the NAT region.
8571.1.3.3 (5045)
Which separation will be provided if Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum (RVSM)
is used when operating in MNPS airspace?- A60 NM lateral and 1000 ft vertical.
- B60 NM lateral and 500 ft vertical.
- C90 NM lateral and 1000 ft vertical.
- D90 NM lateral and 500 ft vertical.
8671.1.3.3 (5050)
The abbreviation MNPS means :- AMinimum Navigation Performance Specification
- BMain Navigation Performance Specification
- CMaximum Navigation Performance Specification
- DMagnetic Navigation Performance Specification
8771.1.3.3 (5051)
Minimum Navigation Performance Specification (MNPS) airspace of the North
Atlantic is comprised within :- Aflight levels 285 and 420 from the North parallel 27 to the pole
- Bsea level and FL660 from North parallel 27 to the pole
- Cflight levels 270 and 400 from the equator to the pole
- Dflight levels 280 and 475 from North parallel 27 to the pole
8871.1.3.3 (5056)
In the Area where the MNPS is applicable, the vertical separation that can be
applied between FL 290 and FL410 inclusive is :- A500 ft
- B1 000 ft
- C1 500 ft
- D2000ft
8971.2.1.0 (5065)
A piece of equipment on your public transport airplane fails while taxiing to the
holding point. The reference document you use in the first place to decide on the
procedure to follow is:- Athe operation manual's chapter ""Abnormal and Emergency Procedures"".
- Bthe JAR OPS.
- Cthe minimum equipment list.
- Dthe flight record.
9071.2.1.0 (5066)
A piece of equipment on your public transport airplane fails while you are still
parked. The reference document you use to decide on the procedure to follow is:- Athe minimum equipment list.
- Bthe JAR OPS.
- Cthe operation manual's chapter ""Abnormal and Emergency procedures"".
- Dthe flight manual.
9171.2.1.0 (5068)
The master minimum equipment list (MMEL) is established by:- Athe operator of the aircraft, and accepted by the authority
- Bthe manufacturer of the aircraft, and accepted by the authority
- Cthe manufacturer of the aircraft, but need not to be accepted by the authority
- Dthe operator of the aircraft, and accepted by the manufactureri
9271.2.1.0 (5069)
The minimum equipment list (MEL) gives the equipment which can be inoperative
when undertaking a flight and the additonnal procedures to be observed
accordingly. This list is prepared by:- Athe operator, and it is inserted in the operations manual
- Bthe operator, and it is appended to the flight manual
- Cthe manufacturer, and it is inserted in the operations manual
- Dthe manufacturer, and it is appended to the flight manual
9371.2.2.0 (5072)
If the EPR probe becomes covered with ice, EPR indications will be:- AGreater than the actual.
- BLess than the actual.
- CEqual to the actual.
- DDependent on the temperature.
9471.2.2.0 (5073)
In public transport, prior to take-off in icing conditions, the captain must check
that:- Aexternal surfaces are free from any ice accretion greater than 5 mm.
- Bexternal surfaces are free from any ice accretion which may impede the airplane
performance and manoeuvrability, except within the limits specified by the flight
manual. - Cexternal surfaces are still covered with anti-icing fluid.
- Dpossible ice accretions do not cause to exceed weight and balance limits.
9571.2.2.0 (5074)
The accumulation of snow or ice on an aircraft in flight induces an increase in the:
- Avalue of the stall angle of attack
- Btuck under
- Cstalling speed
- Droll rate
9671.2.2.0 (5075)
The reference document dealing with air transport of hazardous materials is :- AICAO Appendix 8
- BICAO Appendix 18
- Cthe Washington Convention
- DInstruction No. 300 of June 3, 1957
9771.2.2.0 (5076)
When taking-off, in winter conditions, the wing contamination by ice or frost will
cause the following effects:1 - an increase in the take-off distance2 - a diminution
of the take-off run3 - an increase in the stalling speed4 - a diminution of the
stalling speed5 - a diminution of the climb gradientThe combination regrouping all
the correct statements is :- A1, 2, 3
- B1, 3, 5
- C2, 3, 5
- D2, 4, 5
9871.2.2.0 (5080)
For a given ambient temperature and type of de-icing fluid used, in which one of
the following types of weather condition will the holdover (protection) time be
shortest ?- AFreezing rain
- BSteady snow
- CFreezing fog
- DFrost
9971.2.2.0 (5081)
During a de-icing/anti-icing procedure carried out in two stages, the waiting time
starts:- Aat the end of the second stage (anti-icing stage).
- Bat the beginning of the second stage (anti-icing stage).
- Cat the beginning of the first stage (de-icing stage).
- Da the end of the first stage (de-icing stage).
10071.2.2.0 (5085)
An aircraft having undergone an anti-icing procedure must be anti-icing fluid free
at the latest when :- Ait is rotating (before taking-off).
- Bit is implementing its own anti-icing devices.
- Creleasing the brakes in order to take-off.
- Dleaving the icing zone.
10171.2.2.0 (5086)
An aircraft having undergone an anti-icing procedure and having exceeded the
protection time of the anti-icing fluid:- Amust only undergo a new anti-icing procedure for take-off.
- Bneed not to undergo a new anti-icing procedure for take-off.
- Cmust undergo a de-icing procedure before a new application of anti-icing fluid
for take-off. - Dmust only undergo a de-icing procedure for take-off.
10271.2.2.0 (5088)
The anti-icing fluid protecting film can wear off and reduce considerably the
protection time:- Awhen the outside temperature is close to 0 °C.
- Bduring strong winds or as a result of the other aircraft engines jet wash.
- Cwhen the airplane is into the wind.
- Dwhen the temperature of the airplane skin is close to 0 °C.
10371.2.2.0 (5089)
Without wind, the tip vortices created by an airplane at take-off:- Aseparate on each side of the runway.
- Bstagnate on the runway.
- Cseparate to the right side.
- Dseparate to the left side.
10471.2.2.0 (5091)
The holdover time following an anti-icing procedure being carried out will vary
considerbly depending on the ambient temperature and the weather conditions.
For a given ambient temperature, the longest protection will be in weather
conditions of :- Afrost
- Bfreezing fog
- Crain on a cold soaked wing
- Dsteady snow
10571.2.4.0 (5102)
About procedures for noise attenuation during landing:- AThey prohibit the use of reverse thrust .
- BSuch procedures do not exist.
- CSuch procedures will not involve the prohibition of using reverse thrust .
- DThey are applied in the case of an instrument approach only.
10671.2.3.0 (5093)
The observations and studies conducted on the behavior of birds on the ground,
ahead of an aircraft taking off and having reached an average speed of 135 kt,
show that birds fly away :- Aabout ten seconds beforehand
- Babout two seconds beforehand
- Cas soon as they hear the engines noise
- Dfrom the beginning of the takeoff roll
10771.2.5.0 (5113)
After a landing, with overweight and overspeed conditions, the tyres and brakes
are extremely hot. The fireguards should approach the landing gear tyres:- Aonly from front or rear side.
- Bonly from left or right side.
- Cfrom any side.
- Dunder no circumstances.
10871.2.5.0 (5115)
If smoke appears in the air conditioning, the first action to take is to :- ABegin an emergency descent.
- BPut on the mask and goggles.
- CCut off all air conditioning units.
- DDetermine which system is causing the smoke.
10971.2.5.0 (5116)
You will use a CO2 fire-extinguisher for :1. a paper fire2. a plastic fire3. a
hydrocarbon fire4. an electrical fireThe combination regrouping all the correct
statements is:- A1,2,3
- B1,2,3,4
- C3,4
- D2,3
11071.2.5.0 (5117)
You will use a powder fire-extinguisher for:1. a paper fire2. a plastic fire3. a
hydrocarbon fire4. an electrical fireThe combination regrouping all the correct
statements is:- A1, 2, 3
- B1, 2, 3, 4
- C2, 3
- D1, 4
11171.2.5.0 (5118)
The correct statement about extinguishing agents on board aeroplanes is :- AHalon is an effective extinguishing agent for use in aeroplanes.
- BWater may only be used for minor fires.
- CA powder extinguisher is suitable for extinguishing a cockpit fire.
- DBurning cargo in a cargo-aeroplane is usually extinguished by using carbon dioxide.
11271.2.5.0 (5119)
The system which must be switched off in case of a belly compartment fire is
generally the :- Apressurization
- Bventilation of the cargo compartment
- Ctotal airconditioning
- Dtrim air
11371.2.5.0 (5126)
You will use a halon extinguisher for a fire of:1 - solids (fabric, plastic, ...)2 -
liquids (alcohol, gasoline, ...)3 - gas4 - metals (aluminium, magnesium, ...)The
combination regrouping all the correct statements is:- A1,2,3
- B2,3,4
- C1,2,3,4
- D1,2,4
11471.2.5.0 (5128)
After landing, in case of high temperature of the brakes you:- Aapply the parking brake and you approach the wheels either from fore or aft.
- Brelease the parking brake and you approach the wheels sidewards.
- Crelease the parking brake and you approach the wheels either from aft or fore.
- Dapply the parking brake and approach the wheels sidewards.
11571.2.5.0 (5130)
In case of an engine nozzle fire while on ground you :- Acarry out a damp cranking.
- Bcarry out a dry cranking.
- Cpull the fire shut off handle and trigger the engines fire-extinguishers.
- Dfight the nozzle fire with a water fire-extinguisher.
11671.2.5.0 (5135)
The fire extinguisher types which may be used on class B fires are:1 - H2O2 - CO23
- dry-chemical4 - halogenWhich of the following combinations contains all of the
correct statements?- A2002-03-04
- B1 - 2 - 3 - 4
- C2
- D04-Mar2
11771.2.5.0 (5138)
A class A fire is a fire of:- Aliquid or liquefiable solid
- Bsolid material, generally of organic nature
- Celectrical origin
- Dmetal or gas or chemical (special fires)
11871.2.6.0 (5143)
If cabin altitude increases during level flight, the differential pressure :- Aincreases
- Bdecreases
- Cremains constant
- Dattains its maximum permitted operating limit
11971.2.6.0 (5146)
Following an explosive decompression, the maximum altitude without oxygen at
which flying efficiency is not impaired is :- A8000 ft
- B2500 ft
- C14000 ft
- D25000 ft
12071.2.6.0 (5147)
Following an explosive decompression, if you are using an oxygen diluter demand
system, the regulator controls the amount of air that is mixed with pure oxygen
when the supply selector is at the ""normal"" position. At what approximate
altitude will the regulator supply to the mask become pure oxygen only ?- A25000 ft
- B14000 ft
- C32000 ft
- D8000 ft
12171.2.6.0 (5148)
The minimum requirements for Supplemental Oxygen to be supplied in pressurised
aeroplanes during and following an emergency descent are that for pilots it shall
be available for the entire flight time that the cabin pressure altitude exceeds a
minimum of X feet. That minimum of X feet is :- A14000 ft
- B15000 ft
- C13000 ft
- D25000 ft
12271.2.7.0 (5153)
In case of an unexpected encounter with windshear, you will:1. set the maximum
take-off thrust2. increase the pitch-up attitude up to the limit actuating the stick
shaker3. pull in the drag devices (gear and flaps)4. keep the airplane's current
configuration5. try to reach the maximum lift-to-drag ratioThe combination
regrouping all the correct statements is:- A1, 2, 4
- B1, 3, 5
- C2, 3
- D3, 5
12371.2.7.0 (5159)
In final approach, you encounter a strong rear wind gust or strong down wind
which forces you to go around. You1- maintain the same aircraft configuration
(gear and flaps)2- reduce the drags (gear and flaps)3- gradually increase the
attitude up to triggering of stick shaker4- avoid excessive attitude changeThe
combination of correct statements is :- A1,3
- B1,4
- C2,3
- D2,4
12471.2.7.0 (5167)
In the ""worst case"" scenario of recovery from the effects of a microburst, having
increased to full go-around power, in co-ordinating power and pitch it may be
necessary to :- Aclimb away at Vat + 20 kt
- Bincrease the pitch angle until the stick shaker is felt and hold at slightly below
this angle - Creduce speed to V2 and hold
- Dslowly increase speed whilst maintaining a positive rate of climb
12571.2.8.0 (5170)
In a 5 kt right crosswind component behind a taking off aircraft:- AThe right wake turbulence stays approximately on the runway.
- BThe left wake turbulence stays approximately on the runway.
- CThe right and left wake turbulence stays approximately on the runway.
- DThe runway will be clear of any hazard turbulence
12671.2.8.0 (5172)
The greatest wake turbulence occurs when the generating aircraft is :- ALarge, heavy, at low speed in clean configuration
- BLarge, heavy, at maximum speed in full flaps configuration
- CSmall, light, at low speed in clean configuration
- DSmall, light, at maximum speed in full flaps configuration
12771.2.8.0 (5173)
To avoid wake turbulence, when departing behind a larger aircraft, the pilot should
manoeuver :- AAbove and upwind from the larger aircraft
- BBelow and downwind from the larger aircraft
- CAbove and downwind from the larger aircraft
- DBelow and upwind from the larger aircraft
12871.2.8.0 (5174)
The wake turbulence is the most severe when the aircraft is :1. slow2. heavy3. in a
clean configuration4. flying with a high thrustThe combination of correct
statement is:- A1, 4
- B1, 2, 3
- C1, 2, 3, 4
- D2, 3, 4
12971.2.8.0 (5175)
The wake turbulence is greater when the aircraft has a :- Ahigh weight and high speed
- Bhigh weight and low speed
- Clow weight and low speed
- Dlow weight and high speed
13071.2.8.0 (5176)
The wake turbulence caused by an aircraft is mainly the result of:1. An
aerodynamical effect (wing tip vortices).2. The engines action (propellers rotation
or engine gas exhausts).3. The importance of the drag devices (size of the landing
gear, of the flaps, etc.).The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:- A1
- B2 AND 3
- C1, 2 AND 3
- D3
13171.2.8.0 (5177)
Tip vortices which are responsible for wake turbulence appear as soon as the
following is established :- Alift
- Bdrag
- Cspin up
- Dlift destruction
13271.2.8.0 (5178)
Wake turbulence risk is highest :- Afollowing a preceding aircraft at high speed.
- Bif, just before landing a much lighter aircraft has landed at the same runway with heavy
crosswind. - Cwhen a heavy aircraft has just performed a take-off at a closely situated parallel
runway with a light crosswind. - Dwhen a preceeding aircraft has briefly applied take-off thrust just prior to take off.
13371.2.8.0 (5182)
The time needed for the dissipation of a turbulent wake created by a wide-body
aircraft during take-off is about:- A1 minute.
- B3 minutes.
- C30 seconds.
- D10 minutes.
13471.2.8.0 (5183)
The wake turbulence:- Astarts during the rotation and stops as soon as the airplane's wheels touch the
ground. - Bstarts when the airplane reaches a height of 300 ft above the ground and stops when it
crosses this height before landing. - Cstarts as soon as the aeroplane is running for take-off and stops as soon as it has come to
a stop at landing. - Dstarts when pulling out the drag devices and stops when rectracting the drag devices.
- Astarts during the rotation and stops as soon as the airplane's wheels touch the
13571.2.8.0 (5184)
An airplane creates a wake turbulence when :- Agenerating lift.
- Bflying at high speed.
- Cusing a high engine R.P.M.
- Dflying with its gear and flaps extended
13671.2.8.0 (5185)
The tip vortices circulate about each wing tip :
- Aclockwise.
- Bcounterclockwise.
- Cfrom the underwing toward the upper side of the wing.
- Dfrom the upper side of the wing toward the underwing
13771.2.8.0 (5198)
DOC 4444 (ICAO) establishes, that wake turbulence separation minima shall be
based on a grouping of aircraft types into three categories according to the
maximum certificated take-off mass.Heavy (H) Category, are all aircraft types of :- A136 000 Kg or more
- B135 000 Kg or more
- C146 000 Kg or more
- Dless than 136 000 Kg but more than 126 000 Kg
13871.2.9.0 (5199)
What is the transponder code to be used by an aircraft that is subject to unlawful
interference (hijacked) is :- A7500
- B7600
- C7700
- D7800
13971.2.9.0 (5202)
Following an act of unlawful interference on board an aeroplane, to whom the
commander should submit a report of the act to :- Athe Authority of the State within which the aeroplane is operating at the time of the
unlawful interference - Bboth the local authority and the Authority of the State of the operator
- Cthe Autority of the State of the operator only
- Dthe local authority only
- Athe Authority of the State within which the aeroplane is operating at the time of the
14071.2.9.0 (5204)
What transponder code should be used to provide recognition of an aircraft which
is being subjected to unlawful interference :- Acode 7500
- Bcode 7600
- Ccode 7700
- Dcode 2000
14171.2.10.0 (5211)
The attitudes to be adopted by the passengers, sitting in the travelling direction, in
case of an emergency landing are: 1. legs together and feet flat on the floor,2.
head resting against the back of the front seat,3. forearms on the armrests,4. seat
belt very tightly fastened,5. head resting on the forearms.The combination
regrouping all the correct statements is:- A2, 3, 4
- B1, 4, 5
- C1, 2, 3, 4
- D2, 4, 5
14271.2.11.0 (5218)
In what period of time must a fuel jettisoning system be capable of jettisoning
sufficient fuel to meet the precise climb and discontinued approach requirements :- A15 minutes
- B30 minutes
- C60 minutes
- D90 minutes
14371.2.12.0 (5227)
ICAO (International Civil Aviation Organization) Appendix 18 is a document
dealing with :- Athe air transport of live animals
- Bthe safety of the air transport of hazardous materials
- Cthe noise pollution of aircraft
- Dthe technical operational use of aircraft
14471.2.12.0 (5228)
In the hazardous materials transportation act, the freight compliance with the
regulatory arrangements is the responsibility of the :- Asender.
- Bcaptain.
- Cstation manager.
- Daerodrome manager.
14571.2.12.0 (5232)
From the following list :1. Fire extinguishers2. Portable oxygen supplies3. First-aid
kits4. Passenger meals5. Alcoholic beveragesWhich are classed as Dangerous
Goods that are required to be on the aeroplane in accordance with relevant JAR's
for operating reasons :- A1,2 and 3 only
- B1,2 and 5 only
- C3,4 and 5 only
- D2,3 and 4 only
14671.2.12.0 (5235)
Carriage of dangerous goods is allowed, provided that:- Anational aviation administration permission has been granted
- Bgovernment permission has been granted
- Cthe airline complies with the Technical Instructions
- Dno passenger is carried on the same flight
14771.2.13.0 (5237)
The presence of dynamic hydroplaning depends primarily on the :- Aaircraft's weight.
- Bdepth of the standing water on the runway.
- Cstrength of the headwind.
- Damount of the lift off speed.
14871.2.13.0 (5238)
If airworthiness documents do not shown any additionnal correction factor for
landing performance determination on a wet runway, the landing distance shall be
increased by:- A5%
- B15%.
- C10%.
- D20%.
14971.2.13.0 (5240)
Viscous hydroplaning occurs primary if the runway is covered with a thin film of
water and:- Ais very smooth and clean.
- Bis very smooth and dirty.
- Cis rough textured.
- Dthe tyre treads are not in a good state
15071.2.13.0 (5242)
A runway covered with 4 mm thick water, is said to be:- Awet.
- Bflooded.
- Ccontaminated.
- Ddamp.
15171.2.13.0 (5243)
In the JAR OPS, a runway is considered wet when:1. it is covered with a quantity
of water or loose or slushy snow less than or equal to the equivalent of 3 mm of
water.2. the amount of surface moisture is sufficient to modify its colour but does
not give it a shiny appearance.3. the amount of surface moisture is sufficient to
make it reflective, but does not create large stagnant sheets of water.4. it bears
stagnant sheets of water.The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:- A1, 3
- B4
- C1, 2
- D1, 2, 3
15271.2.13.0 (5245)
The braking efficiency is a piece of information presenting itself in the form of a :- Apercentage varying from 10 % to 100 %.
- Bcombination of the terms: poor, medium, good.
- Czero followed by two decimals.
- Dletter falling between A and E
15371.2.13.0 (5252)
Assuming contaminated runway conditions, if an aeroplane's mainwheel tyre
pressure is 206 psi., the approximate speed above which dynamic hydroplaning
may occur in the event of applying brakes is :- A80 kt
- B100 kt
- C114 kt
- D129 kt
15481.1.1.1 (5262)
Which formula or equation describes the relationship between force (F),
acceleration (a) and mass (m)?- AF=m. a
- Bm=F.a
- Ca=F. m
- DF=m / a
15581.1.1.1 (5265)
Which one of the following statements about Bernoulli's theorem is correct?- AThe dynamic pressure increases as static pressure decreases.
- BThe total pressure is zero when the velocity of the stream is zero.
- CThe dynamic pressure decreases as static pressure decreases.
- DThe dynamic pressure is maximum in the stagnation point.
15681.1.1.1 (5267)
Bernoulli's equation can be written as:(pt= total pressure, ps = static pressure and
q=dynamic pressure)
- Apt = ps - q
- Bpt = ps + q
- Cpt = q - ps
- Dpt = ps / q
15781.1.1.1 (5270)
The total pressure is:- Astatic pressure plus the dynamic pressure.
- B½ rho V²
- Cstatic pressure minus the dynamic pressure.
- Dcan be measured in a small hole in a surface, parallel to the local stream.
15881.1.1.1 (5273)
The difference between IAS and TAS will:- Aincrease at increasing air density.
- Bdecrease at decreasing altitude.
- Cincrease at decreasing temperature.
- Ddecrease at increasing speed.
15981.1.1.1 (5279)
Which of the following statements, about a venturi in a sub-sonic airflow are
correct?1. the dynamic pressure in the undisturbed flow and in the throat are
equal.2. the total pressure in the undisturbed flow and in the throat are equal.- A1 is correct and 2 is incorrect.
- B1 is incorrect and 2 is correct.
- C1 and 2 are correct.
1 and 2 are incorrect. - D1 and 2 are incorrect.
16081.1.1.3 (5283)
Drag is in the direction of - and lift is perpendicular to the:- Arelative wind/airflow.
- Bhorizon.
- Cchord line.
- Dlongitudinal axis.
16181.1.1.3 (5284)
The correct drag formula is:- AD= CD 2 RHO V² S
- BD= CD 1/2 RHO V S
- CD= CD 1/2 RHO V² S
- DD= CD 1/2 1/RHO V² S
16281.1.1.4 (5289)
The term angle of attack in a two dimensional flow is defined as:- Athe angle between the wing chord line and the direction of the relative
wind/airflow. - Bthe angle formed by the longitudinal axis of the aeroplane and the chord line of the wing
- Cthe angle for maximum lift/drag ratio
- Dthe angle between the aeroplane climb path and the horizon.
- Athe angle between the wing chord line and the direction of the relative
16381.1.1.4 (5290)
Which statement is correct about the Cl and angle of attack?- Afor a symmetric aerofoil, if angle of attack = 0, Cl is not equal to 0
- Bfor a symmetric aerofoil, if angle of attack = 0, Cl =0
- Cfor an asymmetric aerofoil with positive camber, if angle of attack is greater than 0, Cl = 0
- Dfor an asymmetric aerofoil, if angle of attack = 0, Cl =0
16481.1.1.4 (5291)
The relative thickness of an aerofoil is expressed in:- Acamber.
- B% chord.
- Cdegrees cross section tail angle.
- Dmeters.
16581.1.1.4 (5292)
""A line connecting the leading- and trailing edge midway between the upper and
lower surface of a aerofoil"". This definition is applicable for :- Athe chord line
- Bthe mean aerodynamic chord line
- Cthe camber line
- Dthe upper camber line
16681.1.2.0 (5298)
Consider an aerofoil with a certain camber and a positive angle of attack. At which
location will the highest flow velocities occur ?- ALower side
- BUpper side
- CIn front of the stagnation point
- DIn the stagnation point
16781.1.2.5 (5304)
The lift force, acting on an aerofoil :- Ais mainly caused by suction on the upperside of the aerofoil.
- Bincreases, proportional to the angle of attack until 40 degrees.
- Cis maximum at an angle of attack of 2 degrees.
- Dis mainly caused by overpressure at the underside of the aerofoil.
16881.1.3.2 (5316)
The polar curve of an aerofoil is a graphic relation between :- ACL and CD
- BAngle of attack and CL
- CTAS and stall speed
- DCD and angle of attack
16981.1.3.2 (5322)
Which statement is correct? The lift to drag ratio provides directly the- Aglide distance from a given altitude.
- Bglide distance from a given altitude at zero wind.
- Cdistance for climb up to a certain altitude
- Ddistance for horizontal flight.
17081.1.4.1 (5324)
Which statement about induced drag and tip vortices is correct?- ATip vortices can be diminished by vortex generators.
- BThe flow direction at the upper and under side of the wing, both deviate in wing tip
direction. - CThe flow direction at the upper side of the wing has a component in wing root
direction, the flow at the underside of the wing in wing tip direction. - DThe wing tip vortices and the induced drag decrease at increasing angle of attack.
17181.1.4.2 (5326)
If flaps are deployed at constant IAS in straight and level flight, the magnitude of
tip vortices will eventually : (flap span less than wing span)- Aincrease.
- Bdecrease.
- Cremain the same
- Dincrease or decrease, depending on the initial angle of attack.
17281.1.4.2 (5334)
The induced drag:- Aincreases as the lift coefficient increases.
- Bhas no relation to the lift coefficient.
- Cincreases as the aspect ratio increases.
- Dincreases as the magnitude of the tip vortices decreases.
17381.1.4.2 (5339)
Winglets- Adecrease the induced drag.
- Bincrease the manoeuvrability.
- Cdecrease the static lateral stability.
- Dcreate an elliptical lift distribution
17481.1.4.2 (5340)
Which location on the aeroplane has the largest effect on the induced drag ?- AEngine cowling
- BWing root junction
- CWing tip
- DLanding gear
17581.1.5.2 (5345)
The value of the parasite drag in straight and level flight at constant weight varies
linearly with the:- Asquare of the speed.
- Bangle of attack
- Cspeed.
- Dsquare of the angle of attack
17681.1.5.5 (5351)
Which one of the following statements about the lift-to-drag ratio in straight and
level flight is correct?- AThe highest value of the lift/drag ratio is reached when the lift is zero.
- BAt the highest value of the lift/drag ratio the total drag is lowest.
- CThe highest value of the lift/drag ratio is reached when the lift is equal to the aircraft
weight - DThe lift/drag ratio always increases as the lift decreases
17781.1.8.1 (5363)
The boundary layer of a wing is caused by:- Aa turbulent stream pattern around the wing.
- Bthe normal shock wave at transonic speeds.
- Ca layer on the wing in which the stream velocity is lower than the free stream
velocity, due to friction. - Dsuction at the upper wing side.
17881.1.8.1 (5364)
A laminar boundary layer is a layer, in which:- Athe vortices are weak.
- Bno velocity components exist, normal to the surface.
- Cthe temperature varies constantly
- Dthe velocity is constant.
17981.1.8.2 (5376)
Increase of wing loading will:- Aincrease the stall speeds.
- Bdecrease the minimum gliding angle.
- Cincrease CLmax.
- Ddecrease take off speeds.
18081.1.8.2 (5374)
Which of the following situations leads to a decreasing stall speed (IAS)?- Aincreasing altitude.
- Bincreasing air density.
- Cdecreasing weight.
- Dincreasing load factor.
18181.1.8.2 (5378)
When a pilot makes a turn in horizontal flight, the stall speed :- Aincreases with flap extension
- Bdecreases with increasing bank angle
- Cincreases with the square root of load factor
- Dincreases with the load factor squared
18281.1.8.2 (5380)
An aeroplane has a stall speed of 100 kt at a load factor n=1. In a turn with a load
factor of n=2, the stall speed is:- A70 kt
- B141 kt
- C282 kt
- D200 kt
18381.1.8.2 (5384)
By what approximate percentage will the stall speed increase in a horizontal
coordinated turn with a bank angle of 45° ?- A19%
- B31%
- C41%
- D52%
18481.1.8.2 (5385)
An aeroplane has a stalling speed of 100 kt in a steady level flight. When the
aeroplane is flying a level turn with a load factor of 1.5, the stalling speed is:- A122 kt.
- B141 kt.
- C82 kt.
- D150kt
18581.1.8.2 (5386)
The stalling speed in IAS will change according to the following factors:- AMay increase when the c.g. moves forward, with higher altitude and due to the slip stream
from a propellor on an engine located forward of the wing - BWill increase in a turn, higher temperature and will increase when the c.g. moves aft
- CMay increase with altitude, especially high altitude, will increase during icing
conditions and will increase when the c.g. moves forward - DWill increase with increased load factor, more flaps and increased bank angle in a turn
- AMay increase when the c.g. moves forward, with higher altitude and due to the slip stream
18681.1.8.2 (5388)
The stalling speed in IAS will change according to the following factors:- AWill increase during turn, increased mass and an aft c.g. location
- BWill decrease with a forward c.g. location, lower altitude and due to the slip stream from a
propeller on an engine located forward of the wing - CWill increase with increased load factor, icing conditions and more flaps
- DMay increase during turbulence and will always increase when banking in a turn
18781.1.8.5 (5395)
On a swept wing aeroplane at low airspeed, the ""pitch up"" phenomenon:- Ais caused by wingtip stall.
- Bis caused by extension of trailing edge lift augmentation devices.
- Cnever occurs, since a swept wing is a ""remedy"" to pitch up.
- Dis caused by boundary layer fences mounted on the wings.
18881.1.8.5 (5399)
Which of the following statements about stall speed is correct ?- AIncreasing the angle of sweep of the wing will decrease the stall speed.
- BUse of a T-tail will decrease the stall speed..
- CDecreasing the angle of sweep of the wing will decrease the stall speed.
- DIncreasing the anhedral of the wing will decrease the stall speed.
18981.1.8.5 (5408)
The pitch up effect of an aeroplane with swept wing in a stall is due to the- Awing tip stalling first.
- Baft movement of the centre of gravity.
- Cwing root stalling firs
- Dforward movement of the centre of gravity.
19081.1.9.0 (5410)
Trailing edge flap extension will:- Aincrease the critical angle of attack and increase the value of CLmax.
- Bdecrease the critical angle of attack and increase the value of CLmax.
- Cdecrease the critical angle of attack and decrease the value of CLmax.
- Dincrease the critical angle of attack and decrease the value of CLmax.
19181.1.9.0 (5412)
An aeroplane with swept back wings is equipped with slats and/or leading edge
(L.E.) flaps. One possible efficient way to arrange the leading edge devices on the
wings is:- AWing roots: slatsWing tips: L.E. flaps
- BWing roots: L.E. flapsWing tips: slats
- CWing roots: L.E. flapsWing tips: no devices
- DWing roots: slatsWing tips: no devices
19281.1.9.0 (5413)
An aeroplane has the following flap settings : 0°, 15°, 30° and 45°. Slats can be
selected too. Which of the above selections will produce the greatest negative
influence on the CL/CD ratio?- AThe slats.
- BFlaps from 0° to 15°.
- CFlaps from 30° to 45°.
- DFlaps from 15° to 30°.
19381.1.9.1 (5416)
The trailing edge flaps when extended :- Aincrease the zero lift angle of attack
- Bworsen the best angle of glide
- Csignificantly lower the drag
- Dsignificantly increase the angle of attack for maximum lift
19481.1.9.1 (5417)
When the trailing edge flaps are deflected in level flight, the change in pitch
moment will be:- Anose up.
- Bnose down.
- Czero
- Ddependent on c.g. location
19581.1.9.1 (5426)
Flap selection at constant IAS in straight and level flight will increase the :- Astall speed.
- Blift coefficient and the drag.
- Cmaximum lift coefficient (CLmax) and the drag.
- Dlift and the drag.
19681.1.9.2 (5436)
Which of the following statements about the difference between Krueger flaps and
slats is correct?- ADeploying a slat will form a slot, deploying a Krueger flap does not.
- BDeploying a Krueger flap will form a slot, deploying a slat does not.
- CDeploying a slat will increase critical angle of attack, deploying a Krueger flap does not.
- DDeploying a Krueger flap will increase critical angle of attack, deploying a slat does not.
19781.1.9.2 (5439)
A deployed slat will:- Aincrease the boundary layer energy, move the suction peak from the fixed part
of the wing to the slat, so that the stall is postponed to higher angles of attack. - Bincrease the boundary layer energy and increase the suction peak on the fixed part of the
wing, so that the stall is postponed to higher angles of attack. - Cdecrease the boundary layer energy and decrease the suction peak on the slat, so that
CLmax is reached at lower angles of attack. - Dincrease the camber of the aerofoil and increase the effective angle of attack, so that
CLmax is reached at higher angles of attack.
- Aincrease the boundary layer energy, move the suction peak from the fixed part
19881.1.9.2 (5440)
What increases the stalling angle of attack ? Use of :- Aflaps
- Bslats
- Cspoilers
- Dfuselage mounted speed-brakes
19981.1.9.2 (5444)
A slat will- Aincrease the camber of the aerofoil and divert the flow around the sharp leading edge.
- Bincrease the lift by increasing the wing area and the camber of the aft portion of the wing.
- Cincrease the boundary layer energy and prolongs the stall to a higher angle of
attack. - Dprovide a boundary layer suction on the upper side of the wing.
20081.1.9.3 (5445)
Vortex generators:- Achange the turbulent boundary layer into a laminar boundary layer.
- Breduce the spanwise flow on swept wing.
- Ctransfer energy from the free airflow into the boundary layer.
- Dtake kinetic energy out of the boundary layer to reduce separation.
Informações
- Descrição
- Aviacion (Examen ) Quiz sobre EASA ATP Qatar Yellow 5, criado por Alejandro Castillo em 23-05-2018.
- Autor
- Alejandro Castillo
- Idioma
- Español
- Visualizações
- 223
- Histórico
- Criado em 23 mai 2018 · atualizado em 24 mai 2018
- Etiquetas
- Avaliação
- Ainda sem avaliações Avalie este quiz