Quiz
ISTQB 2 (68 questions)
Perguntas do quiz (68)
1According to the ISTQB Glossary, a product risk is related to which of the following?
- AControl of the test project
- BThe test object
- CA single test item
- DA potential negative outcome
- AControl of the test project
2Why are error guessing and exploratory testing good to do?
- AThey can find defects missed by specificationbased and structure-based techniques
- BThey don't require any training to be as effective as formal techniques
- CThey can be used most effectively when there are good specifications
- DThey will ensure that all of the code or system is tested
- AThey can find defects missed by specificationbased and structure-based techniques
3In a test summary report, the project's test leader makes the following statement, "The payment processing subsystem fails to accept payments from American Express cardholders, which is considered a must-work feature for this release." This statement is likely to be found in which of the following sections?
- AEvaluation
- BSummary of activities
- CVariances
- DIncident description
4Which tools help to support static testing?
- AStatic analysis tools and test execution tools
- BReview process support tools, static analysis tools and coverage measurement tools
- CDynamic analysis tools and modeling tools
- DReview process support tools, static analysis tools and modeling tools
- AStatic analysis tools and test execution tools
5What statement about static analysis is true?
- AWith static analysis, defects can be found that are difficult to find with dynamic testing
- BCompiling is not a form of static analysis
- CWhen properly performed, static analysis makes functional testing redundant
- DStatic analysis finds all faults
- AWith static analysis, defects can be found that are difficult to find with dynamic testing
6Which of the following is a goal for a proof-of-concept or pilot phase for tool evaluation?
- ADecide which tool to acquire
- BDecide on the main objectives and requirements for this type of tool
- CEvaluate the tool vendor including training, support and commercial aspects
- DDecide on standard ways of using, managing, storing and maintaining the tool and the test assets
- ADecide which tool to acquire
7Use case testing is useful for which of the following? P Designing acceptance tests with users or customers. Q Making sure that the mainstream business processes are tested. R Finding defects in the interaction between components. S Identifying the maximum and minimum values for every input field. T Identifying the percentage of statements exercised by a sets of tests.
- AP, Q and R
- BQ, S and T
- CP, Q and S
- DR, S and T
- AP, Q and R
8According to the ISTQB Glossary, what do we mean when we call someone a test manager?
- AA test manager manages a collection of test leaders
- BA test manager is the leader of a test team or teams
- CA test manager gets paid more than a test leader
- DA test manager reports to a test leader
- AA test manager manages a collection of test leaders
9Which of the following artifacts can be examined by using review techniques?
- ASoftware code
- BRequirements specification
- CTest designs
- DAll of the above
- ASoftware code
10What statement about reviews is true?
- AInspections are led by a trained moderator, whereas technical reviews are not necessarily
- BTechnical reviews are led by a trained leader, inspections are not
- CIn a walkthrough, the author does not attend
- DParticipants for a walkthrough always need to be thoroughly trained
- AInspections are led by a trained moderator, whereas technical reviews are not necessarily
11According to the ISTQB Glossary, the word 'bug' is synonymous with which of the following words?
- AIncident
- BDefect
- CMistake
- DError
12Which of the following characteristics and types of review processes belong together? 1. Led by the author 2. Undocumented 3. No management participation 4. Led by a trained moderator or leader 5. Uses entry and exit criteria s. Inspection t. Technical review u. Informal review v. Walkthrough
- As = 4, t = 3, u = 2 and 5, v = 1
- Bs = 4 and 5, t = 3, u = 2, v = 1
- Cs = 1 and 5, t = 3, u = 2, v = 4
- Ds = 5, t = 4, u = 3, v = 1 and 2
- As = 4, t = 3, u = 2 and 5, v = 1
13How do experience-based techniques differ from specification-based techniques?
- AThey depend on the tester's understanding of the way the system is structured rather than on a documented record of what the system should do
- BThey depend on having older testers rather than younger testers
- CThey depend on a documented record of what the system should do rather than on an individual's personal view
- DThey depend on an individual's personal view rather than on a documented record of what the system should do
- AThey depend on the tester's understanding of the way the system is structured rather than on a documented record of what the system should do
14Which of the following is a non-functional quality characteristic?
- AFeasibility
- BUsability
- CMaintenance
- DRegression
- AFeasibility
15Static code analysis typically identifies all but one of the following problems. Which is it?
- AUnreachable code
- BUndeclared variables
- CFaults in the requirements
- DToo few comments
- AUnreachable code
16What are good practices for testing within the development life cycle?
- AEarly test analysis and design
- BDifferent test levels are defined with specific objectives
- CTesters will start to get involved as soon as coding is done
- DA and B above
- AEarly test analysis and design
17Why is independent testing important?
- AIndependent testing is usually cheaper than testing your own work
- BIndependent testing is more effective at finding defects
- CIndependent testers should determine the processes and methodologies used
- DIndependent testers are dispassionate about whether the project succeeds or fails
- AIndependent testing is usually cheaper than testing your own work
18In which document described in IEEE 829 would you find instructions for the steps to be taken for a test including set-up, logging, environment and measurement?
- ATest plan
- BTest design specification
- CTest case specification
- DTest procedure specification
- ATest plan
19According to the ISTQB Glossary, what is a test level?
- AA group of test activities that are organized together
- BOne or more test design specification documents
- CA test type
- DAn ISTQB certification
- AA group of test activities that are organized together
20Which of the following structure based test design technique would be most likely to be applied to? 1 Boundaries between mortgage interest rate bands. 2 An invalid transition between two different arrears statuses. 3 The business process flow for mortgage approval. 4 Control flow of the program to calculate repayments.
- A2, 3 and 4
- B2 and 4
- C3 and 4
- D1, 2 and 3
- A2, 3 and 4
21Which of the following would NOT be done as part of selecting a tool for an organization?
- AAssess organizational maturity, strengths and weaknesses
- BRoll out the tool to as many users as possible within the organization
- CEvaluate the tool features against clear requirements and objective criteria
- DIdentify internal requirements for coaching and mentoring in the use of the tool
- AAssess organizational maturity, strengths and weaknesses
22Which of the following metrics would be most useful to monitor during test execution?
- APercentage of test cases written
- BNumber of test environments remaining to be configured
- CNumber of defects found and fixed
- DPercentage of requirements for which a test has been written
- APercentage of test cases written
23What is a potential risk in using tools to support testing?
- AUnrealistic expectations, expecting the tool to do too much
- BInsufficient reliance on the tool, i.e. still doing manual testing when a test execution tool has been purchased
- CThe tool may find defects that aren't there
- DThe tool will repeat exactly the same thing it did the previous time
- AUnrealistic expectations, expecting the tool to do too much
24A product risk analysis is performed during the planning stage of the test process. During the execution stage of the test process, the test manager directs the testers to classify each defect report by the known product risk it relates to (or to 'other'). Once a week, the test manager runs a report that shows the percentage of defects related to each known product risk and to unknown risks. What is one possible use of such a report?
- ATo identify new risks to system quality
- BTo locate defect clusters in product subsystems
- CTo check risk coverage by tests
- DTo measure exploratory testing
- ATo identify new risks to system quality
25You and the project stakeholders develop a list of product risks and project risks during the planning stage of a project. What else should you do with those lists of risks during test planning?
- ADetermine the extent of testing required for the product risks and the mitigation and contingency actions required for the project risks
- BObtain the resources needed to completely cover each product risk with tests and transfer responsibility for the project risks to the project manager
- CExecute sufficient tests for the product risks, based on the likelihood and impact of each product risk and execute mitigation actions for all project risks
- DNo further risk management action is required at the test planning stage
- ADetermine the extent of testing required for the product risks and the mitigation and contingency actions required for the project risks
26What is the primary difference between the test plan, the test design specification, and the test procedure specification?
- AThe test plan describes one or more levels of testing, the test design specification identifies the associated high-level test cases and a test procedure specification describes the actions for executing a test
- BThe test plan is for managers, the test design specification is for programmers and the test procedure specification is for testers who are automating tests
- CThe test plan is the least thorough, the test procedure specification is the most thorough and the test design specification is midway between the two
- DThe test plan is finished in the first third of the project, the test design specification is finished in the middle third of the project and the test procedure specification is finished in the last third of the project
- AThe test plan describes one or more levels of testing, the test design specification identifies the associated high-level test cases and a test procedure specification describes the actions for executing a test
27According to the ISTQB Glossary, a risk relates to which of the following?
- ANegative feedback to the tester
- BNegative consequences that will occur
- CNegative consequences that could occur
- DNegative consequences for the test object
- ANegative feedback to the tester
28Which test activities are supported by test harness or unit test framework tools?
- ATest management and control
- BTest specification and design
- CTest execution and logging
- DPerformance and monitoring
- ATest management and control
29Which of the following is most important to promote and maintain good relationships between testers and developers?
- AUnderstanding what managers value about testing
- BExplaining test results in a neutral fashion
- CIdentifying potential customer work-arounds for bugs
- DPromoting better quality software whenever possible
- AUnderstanding what managers value about testing
30Which of the following factors is an influence on the test effort involved in most projects?
- AGeographical separation of tester and programmers
- BThe departure of the test manager during the project
- CThe quality of the information used to develop the tests
- DUnexpected long-term illness by a member of the project team
- AGeographical separation of tester and programmers
31Which of the following could be used to assess the coverage achieved for specification based (black-box) test techniques? V Decision outcomes exercised W Partitions exercised X Boundaries exercised Y State transitions exercised Z Statements exercised
- AV,W,YorZ
- BW,XorY
- CV,XorZ
- DW, X, Y or Z
- AV,W,YorZ
32Ensuring that test design starts during the requirements definition phase is important to enable which of the following test objectives?
- APreventing defects in the system
- BFinding defects through dynamic testing
- CGaining confidence in the system
- DFinishing the project on time
- APreventing defects in the system
33Which of the following are advanced scripting techniques for test execution tools?
- AData-driven and keyword-driven
- BData-driven and capture-driven
- CCapture-driven and keyhole-driven
- DPlayback-driven and keyword-driven
- AData-driven and keyword-driven
34According to the ISTQB Glossary, regression testing is required for what purpose?
- ATo verify the success of corrective actions
- BTo prevent a task from being incorrectly considered completed
- CTo ensure that defects have not been introduced by a modification
- DTo motivate better unit testing by the programmers
- ATo verify the success of corrective actions
35A company recently purchased a commercial off-the-shelf application to automate their bill-paying process. They now plan to run an acceptance test against the package prior to putting it into production. Which of the following is their most likely reason for testing?
- ATo build confidence in the application.
- BTo detect bugs in the application.
- CTo gather evidence for a lawsuit.
- DTo train the users.
- ATo build confidence in the application.
36A product risk analysis meeting is held during the project planning period. Which of the following determines the level of risk?
- ADifficulty of fixing related problems in code
- BThe harm that might result to the user
- CThe price for which the software is sold
- DThe technical staff in the meeting
- ADifficulty of fixing related problems in code
37Which of the following would be an example of decision-table testing for a financial application applied at the system-test level?
- AA table containing rules for combinations of inputs to two fields on a screen
- BA table containing rules for interfaces between components
- CA table containing rules for mortgage applications
- DA table containing rules for chess
- AA table containing rules for combinations of inputs to two fields on a screen
38Which of the following is a true statement regarding the process of fixing emergency changes?
- AThere is no time to test the change before it goes live, so only the best developers should do this work and should not involve testers as they slow down the process
- BJust run the retest of the defect actually fixed
- CAlways run a full regression test of the whole system in case other parts of the system have been adversely affected
- DRetest the changed area and then use risk assessment to decide on a reasonable subset of the whole regression test to run in case other parts of the system have been adversely affected
- AThere is no time to test the change before it goes live, so only the best developers should do this work and should not involve testers as they slow down the process
39Put the test cases that implement the following test conditions into the best order for the test execution schedule, for a test that is checking modifications of customers on a database. 1 Print modified customer record. 2 Change customer address: house number and street name. 3 Capture and print the on-screen error message. 4 Change customer address: postal code. 5 Confirm existing customer is on the database by opening that record. 6 Close the customer record and close the database. 7 Try to add a new customer with no details at all.
- A5,4, 2,1, 3, 7, 6
- B4,2,5,1,6,7,3
- C5,4,2,1,7,3,6
- D5,1, 2, 3,4, 7, 6
- A5,4, 2,1, 3, 7, 6
40Which is not a type of review?
- AWalkthrough
- BInspection
- CInformal review
- DManagement approval
41You are writing a test plan using the IEEE 829 template and are currently completing the Risks and Contingencies section. Which of the following is most likely to be listed as a project risk?
- AUnexpected illness of a key team member
- BExcessively slow transaction-processing time
- CData corruption under network congestion
- DFailure to handle a key use case
- AUnexpected illness of a key team member
42Which statement about the function of a static analysis tool is true?
- AGives quality information about the code without executing it
- BChecks expected results against actual results
- CCan detect memory leaks
- DGives information about what code has and has not been exercised
- AGives quality information about the code without executing it
43Postal rates for 'light letters' are 25p up to l0g, 35p up to 50g plus an extra l0p for each additional 25g up to l00g. Which test inputs (in grams) would be selected using equivalence partitioning?
- A8,42,82,102
- B4,15, 65, 92,159
- C10,50,75,100
- D5, 20, 40, 60, 80
- A8,42,82,102
44Which of these is a functional test?
- AMeasuring response time on an on-line booking system
- BChecking the effect of high volumes of traffic in a call-center system
- CChecking the on-line bookings screen information and the database contents against the information on the letter to the customers
- DChecking how easy the system is to use
- AMeasuring response time on an on-line booking system
45Consider the following exit criteria which might be found in a test plan: I - No known customer-critical defects. II - All interfaces between components tested. III - 100% code coverage of all units. IV - All specified requirements satisfied. V - System functionality matches legacy system for all business rules. Which of the following statements is true about whether these exit criteria belong in an acceptance test plan?
- AAll statements belong in an acceptance test plan
- BOnly statement I belongs in an acceptance test plan
- COnly statements I, II, and V belong in an acceptance test plan
- DOnly statements I, IV, and V belong in an acceptance test plan
- AAll statements belong in an acceptance test plan
46What is a key characteristic of structure-based testing techniques?
- AThey are mainly used to assess the structure of a specification
- BThey are used both to measure coverage and to design tests to increase coverage
- CThey are based on the skills and experience of the tester
- DThey use a formal or informal model of the software or component
- AThey are mainly used to assess the structure of a specification
47With a highly experienced tester with a good business background, which approach to defining test procedures would be effective and most efficient for a project under severe time pressure?
- AA high-level outline of the test conditions and general steps to take
- BEvery step in the test spelled out in detail
- CA high-level outline of the test conditions with the steps to take discussed in detail with another experienced tester
- DDetailed documentation of all test cases and careful records of each step taken in the testing
- AA high-level outline of the test conditions and general steps to take
48Which of the following statements about the relationship between statement coverage and decision coverage is correct?
- A100% decision coverage is achieved if statement coverage is greater than 90%
- B100% statement coverage is achieved if decision coverage is greater than 90%
- C100% decision coverage always means 100% statement coverage
- D100% statement coverage always means 100% decision coverage
- A100% decision coverage is achieved if statement coverage is greater than 90%
49Which of the statements below is the best assessment of how the test principles apply across the test life cycle?
- ATest principles only affect the preparation for testing
- BTest principles only affect test execution activities
- CTest principles affect the early test activities such as review
- DTest principles affect activities throughout the test life cycle
- ATest principles only affect the preparation for testing
50What are the potential benefits from using tools in general to support testing?
- AGreater quality of code, reduction in the number of testers needed, better objectives for testing
- BGreater repeatability of tests, reduction in repetitive work, objective assessment
- CGreater responsiveness of users, reduction of tests run, objectives not necessary
- DGreater quality of code, reduction in paperwork, fewer objections to the tests
- AGreater quality of code, reduction in the number of testers needed, better objectives for testing
51Which of the following is among the typical tasks of a test leader?
- ADevelop system requirements, design specifications and usage models
- BHandle all test automation duties
- CKeep tests and test coverage hidden from programmers
- DGather and report test progress metrics
- ADevelop system requirements, design specifications and usage models
52When choosing which technique to use in a given situation, which factors should be taken into account? U previous experience of types of defects found in this or similar systems V the existing knowledge of the testers W regulatory standards that apply X the type of test execution tool that will be used Y the documentation available Z previous experience in the development language
- AV,W,YandZ
- BU, V, W and Y
- CU,XandY
- DV,W and Y
- AV,W,YandZ
53Which of the following is a test type?
- AComponent testing
- BFunctional testing
- CSystem testing
- DAcceptance testing
- AComponent testing
54During test execution, the test manager describes the following situation to the project team: "90% of the test cases have been run. 20% of the test cases have identified defects. 127 defects have been found. 112 defects have been fixed and have passed confirmation testing. Of the remaining 15 defects, project management has decided that they do not need to be fixed prior to release." Which of the following is the most reasonable interpretation of this test status report?
- AThe remaining 15 defects should be confirmation tested prior to release
- BThe remaining 10% of test cases should be run prior to release
- CThe system is now ready for release with no further testing or development effort
- DThe programmers should focus their attention on fixing the remaining known defects prior to release
- AThe remaining 15 defects should be confirmation tested prior to release
55During an early period of test execution, a defect is located, resolved and confirmed as resolved by re-testing, but is seen again later during subsequent test execution. Which of the following is a testing-related aspect of configuration management that is most likely to have broken down?
- ATraceability
- BConfirmation testing
- CConfiguration control
- DTest documentation management
- ATraceability
56Which of the following could be a coverage measure for state transition testing? V All states have been reached. W The response time for each transaction is adequate. X Every transition has been exercised. Y All boundaries have been exercised. Z Specific sequences of transitions have been exercised.
- AX,YandZ
- BV, X, Y and Z
- CW,XandY
- DV, X and Z
- AX,YandZ
57According to the ISTQB Glossary, what do we call a document that describes any event that occurred during testing which requires further investigation?
- AA bug report
- BA defect report
- CAn incident report
- DA test summary report
- AA bug report
58Which option best describes objectives for test levels with a life cycle model?
- AObjectives should be generic for any test level
- BObjectives are the same for each test level
- CThe objectives of a test level don't need to be defined in advance
- DEach level has objectives specific to that level
- AObjectives should be generic for any test level
59Why are both specification-based and structure-based testing techniques useful?
- AThey find different types of defect
- BUsing more techniques is always better
- CBoth find the same types of defect
- DBecause specifications tend to be unstructured
- AThey find different types of defect
60Which of the following statements about early test design are true and which are false? 1. Defects found during early test design are more expensive to fix. 2. Early test design can find defects. 3. Early test design can cause changes to the requirements. 4. Early test design takes more effort.
- A1 and 3 are true. 2 and 4 are false
- B2 is true. 1, 3 and 4 are false
- C2 and 3 are true. 1 and 4 are false
- D2, 3 and 4 are true. 1 is false
- A1 and 3 are true. 2 and 4 are false
61What is the main difference between a walkthrough and an inspection?
- AAn inspection is led by the authors, whilst a walk through is led by a trained moderator
- BAn inspection has a trained leader, whilst a walk through has no leader
- CAuthors are not present during inspections, whilst they are during walkthroughs
- DA walkthrough is led by the author, whilst an inspection is led by a trained moderator
- AAn inspection is led by the authors, whilst a walk through is led by a trained moderator
62A regression test:
- AIs only run once
- BWill always be automated
- CWill check unchanged areas of the software to see if they have been affected
- DWill check changed areas of the software to see if they have been affected
- AIs only run once
63A test team consistently finds between 90% and 95% of the defects present in the system under test. While the test manager understands that this is a good defect-detection percentage for her test team and industry, senior management and executives remain disappointed in the test group, saying that the test team misses too many bugs. Given that the users are generally happy with the system and that the failures which have occurred have generally been low impact, which of the following testing principles is most likely to help the test manager explain to these managers and executives why some defects are likely to be missed?
- AExhaustive testing is impossible
- BDefect clustering
- CPesticide paradox
- DAbsence-of-errors fallacy
- AExhaustive testing is impossible
64Non-functional testing includes:
- ATesting to see where the system does not function correctly
- BTesting the quality attributes of the system including reliability and usability
- CGaining user approval for the system
- DTesting a system feature using only the software required for that function
- ATesting to see where the system does not function correctly
65The ISTQB Foundation Syllabus establishes a fundamental test process where test planning occurs early in the project, while test execution occurs at the end. Which of the following elements of the test plan, while specified during test planning, is assessed during test execution?
- ATest tasks
- BEnvironmental needs
- CExit criteria
- DTest team training
- ATest tasks
66In an incident report, the tester makes the following statement: At this point, I expect to receive an error message explaining the rejection of this invalid input and asking me to enter a valid input. Instead the system accepts the input, displays an hourglass for between one and five seconds and finally terminates abnormally, giving the message: "Unexpected data type: 15. Click to continue." This statement is likely to be found in which of the following sections of an IEEE 829 standard incident report?
- ASummary
- BImpact
- CItem pass/fail criteria
- DIncident description
- ASummary
67Beta testing is:
- APerformed by customers at their own site
- BPerformed by customers at the software developer's site
- CPerformed by an independent test team
- DUseful to test software developed for a specific customer or user
- APerformed by customers at their own site
68You are working as a tester on a project to develop a point-of-sales system for grocery stores and other similar retail outlets. Which of the following is a product risk for such a project?
- AThe arrival of a more-reliable competing product on the market
- BDelivery of an incomplete test release to the first cycle of system test
- CAn excessively high number of defect fixes fail during re-testing
- DFailure to accept allowed credit cards
- AThe arrival of a more-reliable competing product on the market
Informações
- Descrição
- ISQB Quiz sobre ISTQB 2 (68 questions), criado por gaidamak.pasha em 11-12-2014.
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- gaidamak.pasha
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- English
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