Quiz
Exam C
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Perguntas do quiz (112)
1When does the PACK Ram Air inlet Flap open automatically?
- AAfter lift-off.
- BJust after touch down.
- C20 sec after lift-off
- DAfter takeoff power is set during takeoff.
2What happens when a Duct Overheat occurs?
- AHot-Air pressure regulating valve and cabin trim air valves close.
- BHot-Air pressure regulating valve and all trim air valves close.
- CHot-Air pressure regulating valve remains open and cabin trim air valves close.
- DHot-Air pressure regulating valve closes and there is no closure of trim air valves.
3Redundancy in the operation of the pressurisation outflow valve is provided by:
- ATwo automatic and one manual means of controlling the valve via three separate electric motors
- BTwo separate automatic controllers operating the valve via one electric motor.
- CTwo separate automatic controllers plus a direct mechanical linkage.
- DAn automatic controller, a manual electric controller, and a mechanical linkage.
4What happens when the EXTRACT pb is selected to override?
- ASystem goes to the intermediate config, Ari conditioning air is added, Blower & Extract fan keeps running.
- BSystem goes to the Closed config, Air conditioning air is added, Blower fan stop & Extract fan keeps running.
- CSystem goes to the Closed config, Air conditioning air is added, Blower & Extract fan keeps running.
- DSystem goes ot the Closed config, Air conditioning air is added, Blower fan keep running & Extract fan stops.
5The battery is ventilated and cooled by:
- AAir drawn from a venturi in the skin of the aircraft.
- BRe-circulated cabin air then vented overboard.
- CElectrical fan air.
- DIP bleed.
6Cost Index =999 corresponds to
- AMinimum fuel consumption (max range)
- BMinimum time.
- CBest ratio between the flight time cost and the fuel cost.
- DLRC (Long Range Cruise).
7On the FCU you have selected a heading prior to T/O (with the HDG / V/S - TRK FPA selected to HDG / V/S). After getting airborne lateral FMA wil:
- ADisplay NAV at 30 ft.
- BBlank at 30ft and the A/C maintain
s the selected heading. - CHDG wil be engaged at 30 .ft
- DRWY TRK wil be engaged at 30 ft
8Following failure of one FMGC, ni order to regain the ND you must :
- AReset the relevant circuit breaker.
- BSelect the same mode as the other ND.
- CSelect the same range and mode as the other ND.
- DTransfer the ND ot PFD.
9Select the INCORRECT statement for annunciators on the MCDU-
- AIND amber light indicates the onside FM detects an independent mode of operation
- BFAIL amber light indicates the onside FMGC has failed.
- CMCDU MENU white light indicates that the crew should call up a peripheral linked to the MCDU (ACARS, ATSU &CFDS)
- DRDY Green light indicates that the MCDU has passed its power up test after it was turned off using its DIM key
10The APU has been switched OFF, but the AVAIL light remains illuminated. Why could this happen?
- AThe APU always runs for 60 seconds after being switched OFF.
- BThe APU is the only source of electrical power and is waiting for ENG GEN to takeover.
- CThe APU is waiting until the external power start powering aircraft.
- DThe APU bleed air was in use.
11During an APU start, the FAULT light:
- AIlluminates amber with an ECAM caution when an APU auto shut down occurs
- BIlluminates momentarily for an ECB test
- CIs inhibited during the start sequence
- DIlluminates until the APU reaches 95%
12Fuel for APU operation is normally supplied from:
- AAlways from APU fuel pump
- BThe left inner tank only.
- CCentre tank pumps only.
- DThe left fuel feed line only.
13At what point does the CVR (Cockpit Voice Recorder) stop automatically?
- A5 minutes after the 1st engine shutdown.
- B30 minutes after the 2nd engine shutdown.
- C5 minutes after the 2nd engine shutdown.
- DAs soon as both engines are shutdown
14What are the EMER EVAC indications in the Cabin when evacuation initiated from the cockpit?
- AEVAC lights flash at FWD and AFT attendant panels. 3 Hi Low chimes sound.
- BEVAC lights flash at FWD and AFT attendant panels. Evacuation tone sounds.
- COnly an Evacuation tone sounds.
- DEVÁC lights flash at FWD attendant panel only and Evacuation tone sounds.
15Regarding the batteries, which of the following statements is true?
- ABatteries must be charged if the voltage is <27.5.
- BDuring Preliminary Cockpit Preparation, the battery voltage check must be done with The BATT switches ON.
- CIn flight, on battery power only, the battery life is 20 minutes max
- DDuring preliminary cockpit preparation, the battery voltage check must be done with BATT switches OFF
16Regarding flight with battery power only, which of the following busbars are powered?
- AHOT BUS 1&2, AC BUS 1& 2, AC & DC ESS SHED
- BHOT BUS 1 & 2, AC & DC ESS BUS
- CHOT BUS 1 & 2, DC ESS BUS only
- DHOT BUS 1 & 2, AC & DC ESS BUS and DC BAT BUS
17In the event of AC BUS 1 + 2 failure in flight, if the RAT fails to auto-extend, what means are available to deploy the RAT?
- ARAT cannot be deployed manually
- BReset GEN 1 and GEN 2
- CPress MAN ON guarded pb on EMER ELEC PWR panel
- DPress RAT MAN ON guarded pb on HYD panel
18Select correct statement concerning OEBs?
- AOEB procedures appear on ECAM.
- BRED OEBs have a significant impact on the safe operation of the aircraft
- CThere are RED, AMBER and WHITE OEBs
- DOEB means operators engine bulletin
19The oxygen masks drop automatically if the cabin pressure altitude exceeds:
- A8800ft
- B9950ft
- C11000ft
- D14000ft
20How do the Crew Escape from the Cockpit, if Cockpit Door is Jammed?
- AEscape ropes are the only option.
- BMaintenance action is required to perform door lock OVRD.
- CEscape panel can only be removed from the Cabin side by pulling the quick release pins towards the centre of the flap and Cabin Crew can kick the panel open.
- DEscape panel can only be removed from the cockpit side by puling the quick release pins towards the centre of the flap and kicking the panel open.
21What happens when the Extract and Blower are selected to OVERRIDE?
- AExtract and Blower Fans keep running + Smoke config + air conditioning air added
- BExtract and Blower Fan keeps running + Open config + air conditioning air added
- CExtract Fan keeps running + blower fan stops + smoke config + air conditioning air added
- DExtract Fan Stops + Blower fan keeps running + intermediate config + air conditioning air added
22The ENG1 (2) FIRE light remains illuminated until:
- AThe fire switch is pushed.
- BThe fire is extinguished.
- CEither master warning light is pressed.
- DAgent 2 is discharged.
23What is the function of the GEN 1 LINE push button?
- AWhen selected OFF the avionics compartment isolation valves close.
- BWhen selected OFF the Gen 1 powers all AC busses
- CWhen selected OFF Gen 1 is removed from all busses but continues to power one fuel pump in each wing
- DTo force Gen 1 to shut down
24Following selection of FLAP 1, which of the following statements is true?
- AWhen decelerating for the approach, CONFIG 1 +F will be the result.
- BDuring the acceleration, following a go-around, CONFIG 1+ F will be the result.
- CDuring acceleration, following a takeoff, CONFIG 1 will be the result.
- DThe result is always CONFIG 1+F in flight.
25When wil speed brakes retract automatically in flight?
- AIf Config FULL if selected.
- BIf speed is less than 180 kts.
- CIf RA is less than 1000 feet
- DIf alternate law activated.
26Which of the following can be overridden by the sidestick?
- AHigh speed protection
- BAlpha floor
- CAlpha protection
- DLow speed stability
27In NORMAL LAW, which protections are available?
- APitch Attitude Protection, Load Factor Protection,
High speed protection, High angle of attack protection, Bank Angle Protection - BPitch attitude protection, Load Factor Protection, High Speed Stability, Band Angle Protection
- CPitch Attitude protection, load factor protection, high speed protection, stall protection only
- DLoad factor protection, high speed stability, low speed stability
- APitch Attitude Protection, Load Factor Protection,
28What causes reversion to Mechanical Back-up: what aircraft pitch and lateral
control is available?- ALoss of all hydraulics: use the THS and RUDDER.
- BLoss of all ELAC's and SEC's: use the THS and RUDDER.
- CLoss of al FAC's and SEC's: use the ELEVATORS and RUDDER.
- DLoss of all ELAC's and FAC's: use the THS and RUDDER
29The side stick priority red arrow will illuminate..........:
- AIn front of the pilot losing authority.
- BIn front of the pilot gaining authority.
- CAfter the pushbutton has been pressed for 40 secs.
- DIn front of both pilots.
30Which Flight Control Computer computes Va PROT, Va MAX and VSW based on aerodynamic data & the activation of the protection is computed by which
computer?- AComputed by FAC, Activated by ELAC.
- BComputed by ELAC, Activated by FAC.
- CComputation & Activation by ELAC.
- DComputation & Activation by FAC.
31Regarding maximum bank angles, which of the following statements is true?
- AAt normal speeds, the maximum is 67° (full sidestick deflection) and 25° (when sidestick neutral)
- BThe maximum bank angle in ALTERNATE LAW is 45 degrees
- CIn high speed protection, the maximum is 40 degrees (full sidestick deflection) and 0 degrees (when sidestick neutral).
- DIn Alpha prot, the maximum bank angle is 33 degrees.
32The Alpha Lock function inhibits -
- ASlat extension at high speed
- BSlat retraction at low speed
- CAutomatic Slat retraction during T/O
- DFlap retraction at low speed
33Which protection is available in Alternate Law?
- ALoad Factor Protection
- BLoad factor protection available only with the alternate law with protections
- CNo protection available in alternate law
- DAngle of attack protection
34For what reason would you use the Emergency Cancel push-button?
- ATo inhibit false or spurious Master Warnings only.
- BTo inhibit all Master Cautions and all Master Warnings.
- CUsed to clear Master Warning (aural, lights and ECAM procedure).
- DUsed to Cancel Master Cautions (aural, lights and ECAM procedure).
35Select the incorrect statement:
- AThe yaw bar is displayed in RWY mode on takeoff
- BThe yaw bar is displayed in FLARE and ROLL OUT modes at landing.
- CThe yaw bar is displayed only during T/O roll.
- DIf FPV was previously selected during approach, it reverts to FD bars at go- around engagement.
36What is the function of the System Data Acquisition Concentrators (SDACs)?
- ATo generate all visual and aural warnings
- BTo generate display of system pages and engine parameters. Also, to supply information to the FWC s for warning messages and alerts.
- CTo generate display of system pages to be sent to the system display unit and generate decision height callouts.
- DTo generate memos and synthetic voice messages.
37The normal fuel feed sequence is
- ACentre tank, inner tanks to 750 kgs each tank then outer tanks via the inner tanks
- BInner tanks to 750kgs total, centre tank, then outer tanks
- CCentre tank, outer tanks to 750kg total, then inner tanks
- DCentre tank to 750kgs, inner tanks then outer tanks
38With fuel in the centre tank, AUTO mode selected and the slates extended in flight, the centre tank pumps will.......?
- ARun continuously.
- BRun in normal sequence.
- CStop after 5 minutes.
- DStop.
39How may a fuel leak be discovered / detected in the flight?
- AThere will be an ECAM caution of FUEL LEAK along with Master Caution light.
- BThere will be a level 3 ECAM warning of FUEL LEAK along with Master warning light
- CThere will be advisory with FOB quantity flashing on EWD and Fuel SD page
- DBy comparing the sum of FOB and Fuel used is significantly less than FOB at engine start.
40What precaution should be taken when you apply gravity fuel feeding?
- AOperate the aircraft below 15,000 feet.
- BUse centre tank first.
- CAvoid negative G factor.
- DStart APU
41If both transfer valves on one side fail:
- AThe outer cell quantity is eliminated from the ECAM fuel page display.
- BThe outer cell quantity is boxed amber on the ECAM fuel page display.
- CThe FOB indication will have an amber line drawn through the last two digits.
- DThe outer cell emergency electric transfer pump runs.
42Prior to the engine start it is possible to pressurise the green system by
- AUse of the green engine pump.
- BUse of the yellow engine pump and the PTU.
- CUse of the yellow electric pump and the PTU.
- DUse of the blue electric pump.
43Whilst on the ground the BLUE electrical pump
- AWill not operate with two engines running.
- BWill run after first engine start
- CWill run providing the BLUE PUMP OVRD pb sw is pressed only
- DThe blue pump cannot be pressurised on the ground.
44The air gap above the fluid in the Hydraulic reservoirs is pressurised by :
- AElectric pump
- BNo.1 engine bleed air or the pneumatic system
- CAir conditioning mix manifold
- DEngine driven pump pressure
45When is the PTU self-tested?
- ADuring first ENG start
- BAfter first ENG start is completed
- CDuring second ENG start.
- DAfter both ENG starting sequences are completed
46The window heat computer provides two heating levels for the windshield
- ANormal above 20,000 ft, LO below 20,000 ft.
- BLO at all times unless Normal is manually selected
- CNormal level in icing conditions, LO level in other conditions.
- DLO level on the ground, normal level in flight
47What happens if WING ANTI-ICE is selected ON when taxying for take-off?
- AThe Wing anti-ice valves open for 30 seconds only if ENG anti-ice is ON.
- BThe Wing anti-ice valves remain closed since aircraft is on Ground.
- CThe Wing anti-ice valves open for 30 seconds only and on lift off, the valves will re-open.
- DThe Wing anti-ice valves remain OPEN and remain OPEN until the switch is set to OFF.
48Following landing, in heavy rain, what is (are) the first action(s) to protect the avionics vent system from water entry?
- ABlower valve to OVRD.
- BEXTRACT valve to OVRD
- CEXTRACT and Blower valves to OVRD
- DRam Air Valve OPEN
49Following the use of an oxygen mask, how is the boom mic re-established?
- AAutomatically, by re-stowing the oxygen mask
- BBy selecting BOOM on the associated ACP.
- CBy closing the left door of the storage box and then pressing the TEST slide
- DBy pressing the OXY ON button
50Above what cabin altitude will the crew oxygen masks automatically supply over-pressure regardless of the emergency pressure selector position?
- ACabin altitude exceeds 30000ft
- BCabin altitude exceeds 20000ft
- CCabin altitude exceeds 14000ft
- DCabin altitude exceeds 10000ft
51After impact during ditching procedure, the lowest point of the passenger exits (aft door) remains above the waterline for more than...
- A15mins
- B10mins
- C7mins
- D5mins
52The red light on an entry/service door will flash if:
- AThe cabin is still pressurised and both engines are shut down with slides
disarmed - BThe slide is not armed in flight
- CThe cabin is still pressurised and both engines are shut down with slides armed
- DThe cabin is not pressurised and when engines are running
- AThe cabin is still pressurised and both engines are shut down with slides
53What actions are required if a Windshield Crack is detected?
- AFollow ECAM action.
- BRapid descent to FL 100 or MSA and then follow QRH procedure.
- CRapid descent to LF 230 or MSA and then follow QRH procedure.
- DDiagnosis of the affected ply is required as per QRH procedure before making descent decision.
54Which computer is responsible for the control all datalink communication, and automatically select the best available communication media (VHF, HF or SATCOM)
- AATSU
- BFMGS
- CMCDU
- DADIRS
55Control of the water and waste systems are located on...
- AAft Attendant Panel
- BForward Attendant Panel
- CMaintenance Panel
- DExternal Power Panel
56How is TA Intruder (surrounding aircraft traffic) indicated on the ND?
- AA white empty diamond
- BA white filled diamond
- CAn amber circle
- DAred square
57The Landing Gear Indicator Panel (on the instrument panel) is:
- AConnected to the LGCIU currently controlling the landing gear operation.
- BConnected to both LGCIUs.
- CConnected to LGCIU 1
- DIndependent of both LGCIU 1and 2.
58After landing, a flashing green AUTO BRK on the Wheel SD page indicates that:
- AThe auto brake has disengaged.
- BThe auto brake is arming.
- CThe auto brake is functioning normally.
- DAuto brake fault has been detected.
59The Landing gear indicator panel UNLK light wil illuminate Red if:
- ALGCIU fails.
- BThe gear is extended by gravity and the doors are not closed
- CThe gear is extended normally and the doors are not closed
- DThe gear is not locked in the selected position.
60At one hundred knots on take-off, what is the situation regarding Nose Wheel Steering?
- ANo Nosewheel steering is available.
- BHandwheel steering and rudder steering are both available.
- CHandwheel steering is available: rudder steering is not available
- DRudder steering is available: handwheel steering is not available
61L/G CTL indication appears amber on WHEEL SD with ECAM caution when:
- ALGCIU control is lost.
- BLGCIU 1 is lost.
- CThere is a disagreement between L/G lever and L/G position
- DThere is a disagreement between LGCIU 1 and LGCIU 2
62What is the sequence of events when Gravity Extension of the gear is performed?
- ASafety valve closes, gear unlocks - thereby forcing the doors open
- BSafety valve closes, then the doors unlock, then the gear unlocks
- CDoors unlock, gear unlocks, doors close when all gear legs locked down
- DDoors unlock, gear unlocks - when all gear locked down, the safety valve closes
63Which information is used in order to produce the EGPWS display?
- AWeather radar (map mode) and baro altitude.
- BWeather radar (map mode) and radio altitude.
- CAn FMGS database and FM1 position.
- DAn FMGS database and FM2 position.
64The compass card on the DDRM1 is supplied from
- AADIRU2 or ADIRU3
- BADIRU1 only
- CADIRU1 or ADIRU3
- DFMGC
65For FM Position, which of the following statements is INCORRECT about 'BIAS' -
- AEach FMGC computes a BIAS vector from its own IRS position to the radio
position or GPIRS position. - BBIAS can be updated automatically by FMGS
- CBIAS is updated by FMGCs continusly as long as a GPIRS position or a radio position is available
- DThe flight crew can update the FM position manually, this also updates the bias
- AEach FMGC computes a BIAS vector from its own IRS position to the radio
66When the aircraft is on the ground, and if one ADIRU is powered by aircraft batteries, what external warnings are activated:
- AExternal horn warning only.
- BAn external horn sounds & the ADIRU and AVNS lights come on amber on the EXTERNAL POWER panel
- CAn external horn sounds & the ADIRU and AVNS lights come on red on the EXTERNAL POWER panel
- DNo external indications
67Selection of the NAV key on RMP engages the radio navigation back up mode, this action....
- ARemoves the NAVAIDS tuning capability from that FMGC only
- BRemoves the NAVAIDS tuning capability from both FMGCs
- CIsolates the radio communication
- DAllows extra NAVAIDS to be tuned and displayed
68What is meant by CHECK ATT (amber) on the PFD's?
- ABoth PFD's show different attitudes: check ISIS in order to identify failed system
- BIf it appears on only one PFD, it indicates an impending failure of the associated system
- CIf it appears on the CAPT's PFD only, select the IR SWITCHING switch to CAPT ON 3
- DIf it appears on both PFD's select the IR SWITCHING switch o CAPPT (or F/O) then ignore the other PFD
69Which of the following correctly completes the statement; "Switching the APU Air Bleed on will cause.....":
- Athe crossbleed valve to open, and the pack flow to go to NORM.
- Bthe crossbleed valve ot close, and the pack flow to go to HI
- Cthe crossbreed valve to open and the ENG bleed valves to close
- Dthe crossbleed valve to close and the ENG bleed valves to close
70Regarding operation with high engine thrust the:
- AHP valve closes, and the IP stage supplies bleed air.
- BHP valve opens, and the IP stage supplies the bleed air.
- CHP valve and the IP stage air is supplied together.
- DHP and IP bleed valves close due to overpressure.
71On the ENG panel on the Centre Console, the FAULT light will illuminate:
- Awhen there is an automatic start abort.
- Bwhen an engine fire warning is triggered in the associated engine
- Cwhen there is a fault in the fire detection loops of the associated engine
- Dwhen carrying out a manual engine start on the associated engine
72After ENG MASTER lever set to OFF during parking phase, the engine does not shut down as expected due to LP fuel valve remained open. Which procedure will you follow
- AENG FIRE pb sw (affected engine) ....PRESS
- BAll Fuel Pump sw ...off
- CCentre tank & inner tank (affected engine side) ....off
- DENG MASTER św (affected engine) .....Recycle (OFF then ON)
73In the event of a hot start during automatic engine start, the FADEC will:
- APassive monitoring alerts the crew with ECAM caution to take appropriate action.
- BAborts the start as soon as fault detected.
- CFADEC performs ENG abort, but crew needs to perform engine crank
- DAborts the start, attempts restarts, auto-cranks and advises shutdown if unsuccessful
74'LVR ASYM' is displayed on the FMA if:
- AOne engine is shutdown.
- BATHR active, one THR LVR is in the Climb detent and the other one out of the CLB detent
- CBoth THR LVR out of CLB detent when A/THR active
- DA/THR off, one THR LVR is set out of the CLB detent.
75How to carry out ENG dry cranking?
- AMODE sel - CRANK, ENG MAN START pb-sw - ON.
- BMODE sel - CRANK, ENG MAN START pb-sw - ON, ENG MASTER sw- ON.
- CMODE sel - NORM, ENG MAN START pb-sw - ON.
- DMODE sel - CRANK, ENG MASTER sw- ON.
76During Relight of engine in flight
- AFADEC will open the start valve if a/c is outside stabilised wind milling envelope
- BFADEC will open the start valve if a/c is within the stabilised wind milling envelope
- CEngine light up must be achieved within 40 seconds
- DEngine light up limit does not apply in flight
77Which of the following APU limitations is correct?
- AAPU start is not permitted at an altitude above 35,000ft
- BIn ELEC-EMER CONFIG, APU start is limited to 25,000ft or below
- CSingle pack operation is limited to 25,000ft or below
- DTwo pack operation is limited to 20,000ft or below
78What is the minimum height for the use of Autopilot during Take Off with SRS mode?
- A1500ft AGL.
- B160ft AGL.
- C250ft AGL.
- D100ft AGL.
79What is the maximum continuous ENG oil temperature?
- A150°C
- B155°C
- C140°C
- D185°C
80How many times can you reset a circuit breaker?
- AAny CBs can be reset once.
- BOnce, if authorised by the procedure
- CCan be reset multiple times if required by procedures.
- DTwice, if authorised by the procedure.
81What is the maximum operating speed VMO/MMO?
- A350kts / M0.82
- B380 kts / M0.88
- C350kts / M0.84
- D340kts / M0.80
82What precautions should you be taken if LP ground air unit is connected?
- ADo not use APU bleed air.
- BOnly single PACK operation is permitted.
- CDo not use conditioned air simultaneously from PACKs
- DUse both PACKs at LOW flow only.
83What is the maximum tyre ground speed?
- A200kts
- B230kts
- C175kts
- D195kts
84What is the maximum permitted wind speed for passenger door operation?
- A55kts
- B40kts
- C65kts
- D150kts
85What is the maximum permitted speed for the use of windscreen wipers?
- A230kts
- B220kts
- C210kts
- D200kts
86The RAM air inlet should only be opened with if differential pressure is less than.......
- A1 Psi.
- B1.1 Psi.
- C0.125 Psi
- D1.25 Psi
87What is the maximum speed for landing gear retraction?
- A230kts
- B220kts
- C210kts
- D200kts
88If an inoperative component is not listed specifically in the MEL, can the item be deferred for safe operation?
- ANo
- BYes, in all conditions
- CYes, only if allowed in maintenance manuals
- DYes, only if the captain allows it
89According to the ECAM handling procedure, which of the following abnormal procedures must be carried out from memory, without referring to the ECAM or QRH procedure
- ABoth ENG flame out
- BBomb on board
- CTailstrike
- DDON'T SINK warning
90What are the correct initial actions following a "WINDSHEAR" warning on the final approach?
- ATOGA thrust: A/P (if engaged) keep ON: SRS - follow
- BTOGA thrust: A/P OFF: SRS - follow
- CFLEX/MCT thrust: A/P (if engaged) keep ON: SRS - follow
- DTOGA thrust: A/P OFF: sidestick fully aft
91What are the combined correct initial actions of the Crew in event of a Rejected Take Off at >100kts (below V1)?
- AIdle thrust: when ground spoilers have deployed, SELECT REVERSE MAX.
- BCall "STOP": REVERSE MAX: when ground spoilers have deployed, apply full pedal braking
- CCall "STOP": Select IDLE thrust: REVERSE thrust MAX.
- DCal "STOP": REVERSE - MAX:
92What is the correct immediate pitch attitude and thrust guidance in the event of unreliable IAS indications just after take-off?
- ATHR CLB: Pitch +10 degrees
- BTHR CLB: Pitch +5 degrees
- CTHR TOGA: Pitch +15 degrees
- DTHR TOGA: Pitch +10 degrees
93Which of the following cockpit lights are available when only the batteries powering aircraft?
- AReading lights and dome lights
- BIntegral Instrument lighting and flood lighting
- CBoth dome lights
- DRight-hand dome light
94During following a TCAS RA 'CLIMB' procedure, if 'DESCEND DESCEND NOW' audio command is triggered twice, what potentially could be happening?
- AThis indicates that the intruder trajectory has changed.
- BThis indicates that you will cross through the intruder altitude.
- CThis indicates that you are not following TCAS command correctly.
- DThis indicates that your V/S is insufficient to achieve safe vertical separation.
95In the event of sudden depressurisation at FL 300 due to structural failure, what will be the correct initial actions?
- AEmer Descent - Initiate, Both PACKS - High.
- BEmer Descent - Initiate, if A/THR is off THR LEVERS - IDLE
- CEmer Descent - Initiate, AP and A/THR - OFF
- DAP/FD - OFF, THR lever - IDLE, EMER Descent - Initiate
96During landing with autobrake selected, you realise the aircraft is not slowing down.....what are the correct initial actions?
- ABrake pedals - press: Reverse MAX: A/SKID and N/W STRG OFF.
- BBrake Pedals - press: Reverse MAX: brake pedals-release:
- CReverse MAX: brake pedals release: A/SKID and N/W STRG OFF.
- DReverse MAX: brake pedals release: A/SKID and NW/ STRG OF then on.
97In case of Dual SDAC Fault
- AAmber cautions and Red warnings are lost.
- BAll ECAM SD pages are lost.
- CRed warnings are lost but amber cautions are available
- DSome amber cautions are lost but red warnings are available
98Which page on the SD can the crew confirm the LDG ELEV AUTO information during Cockpit Preparation SOP?
- APress SD
- BBleed SD
- CVentilation SD
- DCruise SD
99In the event of loss of both ECAM DU's, what is the initial action?
- APress the black PFD/ND TSFR button on the left or right instrument panel.
- BPress the RECALL button on the ECAM control panel.
- CRotate the ECAM/ND TSFR switch left or right as appropriate.
- DRotate the EIS/DMC TSFR switch left or right as appropriate.
100An excessive ILS deviation is indicated by:
- ALOC and G/S scale indications flash continuously.
- BLOC and G/S scale indications flash amber.
- CFlashing ILS on the FCU.
- DECAM ILS Fault Master Caution.
101Weather radar images can be displayed on the ND:
- AIn all modes.
- BIn all modes except PLAN
- CIn all modes except ILS
- DOnly in ARC
102When will Sideslip Index changes colour from yellow or blue?
- AIn case of engine failure in flight
- BIn case of engine failure on ground
- CIn case of engine failure at takeoff or go around
- DWhen the Roll index indication calculation is wrong
103If only one ECAM DU is operative, how is an advisory brought to the attention of the crew?
- AA level one caution is triggered.
- B"ADVISORY" is displayed on the PFD: the associated ECP button flashes.
- CADV is displayed on the EWD: the associated ECP button flashes.
- DThe associated SD replaces the EWD.
104How is the ECON Speed range (no active speed constraint) shown on the speed scale during descent?
- AMagenta bars on the speed tape +10 and -10
- BMagenta bars on the speed tape +5 and -20
- CMagenta bars on the speed tape +5 and -10
- DMagenta bars on the speed tape +20 and -20
105During the managed descent phase and the crew pulls HDG selector knob, the FMA changes from THR IDLE/DES/NAV to....
- ASPEED / V/S / HDG.
- BTHR IDLE / V/S / HDG.
- CTHR IDLE / OP DES / HDG.
- DSPEED / OP DES / NAV
106In the event of both FMGC's failing the NAV back-up tuning is:
- AAvailable on RMP 1 only.
- BAvailable on either RMP 1or 2
- COnly available on RMP 3.
- DLost completely
107If one Autopilot is engaged:
- AThe related FMGC is the master.
- BFMGC1 is always the master.
- CThe opposite FMGC is the master.
- DFMGC master is sequenced on landing.
108When both F/Ds are OFF and an A/P pushbutton switch is pressed ON:
- AThe A/P engages in OPEN CLIMB or DESCENT depending on actual vertical speed.
- BThe A/P will not engage.
- CThe A/P engages in V/S or FPA depending on FCU selection.
- DThe A/P engages in lateral navigation only.
109The SRS mode disengages automatically at:
- AThrust reduction altitude.
- BAcceleration altitude.
- CEngine out acceleration altitude.
- DTransition altitude.
110Each FMGC computes a BIAS vector from its:
- AThe MIX IRS and the Radio or GPIRS Position.
- BThe FM position and the Radio Position.
- CIRS 1, 2and 3.
- DIRS 1,2 and 3, and the radio or GPIRS position.
111What Vertical mode will the AP reverts to, if the altitude is changed when ALT* is active?
- AV/S = 0
- BCLB or DES
- COP CLB or OP DES
- DVIS or FPA
112A/C below 200ft RA, LAND mode activated with both AP ON. Under which of the following conditions will the AUTOLAND WARNING Light NOT flash?
- A15ft RA difference is detected between both RA indications
- BThe FMGS detects a long flare
- CLoss of LOC signal above 15ft RA
- DOne Engine fail
Informações
- Descrição
- Quiz sobre Exam C, criado por Jonathan Witherow em 19-10-2023.
- Autor
- Jonathan Witherow
- Idioma
- English
- Visualizações
- 15
- Etiquetas
- Avaliação
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