Quiz
Examen 8
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Perguntas do quiz (92)
1Which is true regarding STAR's? STAR's are
- AUsed to separate IFR and known VFR traffic.
- BTo facilitate transition between en route and instrument approach procedures
- CUsed at certain airports to relieve traffic congestion.
2While being radar vectored, an approach clearance is received. The last assigned altitude should be maintained until
- AReaching the FAF.
- BAdvised to begin descent.
- CEstablished on a segment of a published route or instrument approach procedure.
3What does the absence of the procedure turn barb on the plan view on an approach chart indicate?
- AA procedure turn is not authorized.
- BTeardrop-type procedure turn is authorized.
- CRacetrack-type procedure turn is authorized.
4A pilot performing a published instrument approach is not authorized to perform a procedure turn when
- AManeuvering at radar vectoring altitudes.
- BReceiving a radar vector to a final approach course or fix.
- CManeuvering at minimum safe altitudes.
5On an instrument approach where a DH or MDA is applicable, the pilot may not operate below, or continue the approach unless the
- AFlight visibility and ceiling are at, or above, the published minimums for that approach.
- BApproach and runway lights are distinctly visible to the pilot.
- CAircraftiscontinuouslyinapositionfromwhichadescenttoanormallanding, ontheintendedrunway, can
be made.
6Pilots are not authorized to land an aircraft from an instrument approach unless the
- AFlight visibility is at, or exceeds the visibility prescribed in the approach procedure being used.
- BFlight visibility and ceiling are at, or exceeds the minimums prescribed in the approach being used.
- CVisual approach slope indicator and runway references are distincly visible to the pilot.
7For an airport without an approved instrument approach procedure to be listed as an alternate airport on an IFR flight plan, the forecasted weather conditions at the time of arrival must have at least a
- ACeiling of 2,000 feet and visibility 3 SM.
- BCeiling and visibility that allows for a descent, approach, and landing under basic VFR
- CCeiling of 1,000 feet and visibility 3 NM.
8For an airport with an approved instrument approach procedure to be listed as an alternate airport on an IFR flight plan, the forecasted weather conditions at the time of arrival must be at or above the following weather minimums.
- ACeiling 800 feet and visibility 2 SM for nonprecision.
- BCeiling 800 feet and visibility 2 NM for nonprecision.
- CCeiling 600 feet and visibility 2 NM for precision.
9VFR is the same as VMC and IFR is the same as IMC.
- ATrue, they are both the same
- BFalse, one is the type of flight plan and the other the designation as per Ops. Specs.
- CFalse, but they are correlated
10Hypoxia is the result of:
- AThe brain and body tissue not receiving sufficient CO through the blood stream
- BThe brain not being used to a lack of oxygen
- CAll of your body not being sufficiently balanced with oxygen and becoming hypoxic
11A DME arc should be flown within ____ from the center of the arc:
- A1.0 DME
- B2.0 DME to either side of the arc
- C0.0. (No deviations are allowed)
12If you are flying at 18.000 Ft. and your DME reads 6.0 Nm, you are:
- A6.0 Nm from the VOR
- B4.5 Nm from the VOR
- C3.0 Nm from the VOR
13TERPs are a US standard used for:
- AAll ICAO special charts
- BIFR departure design criteria
- CNon Jeppesen stars
14When flying a DP and you lose communications, you must:
- AContinue flying the DP as published
- BReturn for a landing
- CProceed as per special instructions on the chart when included
15Take off minimums are a standard value or all airports in Colombia:
- ATrue, except as published on STARs
- BFalse, every airport is different
- CTrue, except where otherwise published on the chart or company Ops Specs
16Departure Procedures must:
- ABe flown if available for that airport
- BBe flown and no change request for another DP is allowed if on an IFR flight plan
- CBe flown if accepted but may be declined or changes made if coordinated with ATC
17On a Jeppesen or NOA chart what does V344 mean:
- AV stands for “very high speed” and 344 is the max. speed allowed in Kts for that direction of flight
- BV stands for VOR (VHF signal) and 344 is the airway allocation
- CV stands or “Victor Collins” who min 1935 invented the airways between VORs and 344 is the airway allocation
18MEA guarantees adequate terrain clearance and:
- ANavigation signal
- BBoth navigation and communications
- C1.500 ground clearance around mountains
19When flying an airway you need to deviate 3.5 Nm to the left of course you need:
- ADo nothing, airways are 4 Nm wide to each side
- BRequest ATC since you are expected to navigate on the center line of the airway
- CDo nothing, airways are 8 Nm wide to each side of the center line
201.000 Ft clearance from terrain and 2.000 Ft in mountainous areas is guaranteed on:
- AMVA, MEA and MOCA
- BMAA, MCA, MRA, MOCA and MEA
- CNeither, as the radio altimeter is never activated (2.500 Ft or less) when the aircraft flies in mountainous terrain
21In order to fly a route where you plan to fly with an IFR approved GPS as the primary means of navigation from airport A direct to airport B, you need:
- AA Hi or Lo enroute chart
- BA GPS navigation chart since airways will not be used
- CA WAC VFR chart since GPS is not certified for enroute navigation
22When departing an airport in class B airspace you should advice ATC upon initial contact once handed off from TWR:
- AYour altitude assigned level/alt, squak code
- BAircraft ID, present altitude, squak code
- CAircraft ID, present altitude, limiting altitude assigned and squak code
23When in radar contact, your aircraft DME equipment becomes unserviceable, you should:
- AWrite a maintenance report at your next stop
- BAdvice ATC so he/she if required may make alternate arrangements
- CCheck the MEL to ensure the equipment is not required for the type of flight you are executing
24Position reports when required should include:
- AAircraft ID, position, ETA over next PT and following point
- BNothing if you were advised to be in radar contact since in this condition ATL always knows where you are
- CAircraft ID, position, time, altitude, ETA at next point, following compulsory point, remarks if any
25You are in radar contact and ATC clears you to a lower altitude at pilot’s discretion, you should:
- AReport leaving present altitude.
- BJust descend at will since ATC will know your altitude at all times
- CDescend as quickly as possible to relieve ATC of your traffic
26You gave a position report and you recognize that your ETA at the following point is off, you should:
- AAdvice ATC if more than 5 % error or 10 miles
- BIf off by more than 3 minutes advice ATC of revised time
- CDo nothing as you are on an IFR Flt.
27In a no wind condition you are asked at 12:00 Hrs. to hold at 8.000 Ft. until 12:12 Hrs
- AYou will fly two complete racetrack patterns
- BYou will fly three complete racetrack patterns
- CThe # of circuits you fly depends on the speed you are holding at.
28If on a descent clearance you are cleared to hold at a fix, you should:
- ASlow down and enter the hold at VMC + 10 Kts
- BReach the fix at or below the speed for your aircraft type/category
- CMaintain the speedup so as to hold at the fastest speed posible to be the first to leave the fix and expedite ATC
29When is an IFR flight plan required?
- AWhen less than VFR conditions exist in either Class E or Class G airspace and in Class A airspace.
- BIn all Class E airspace when conditions are below VFR, in Class A airspace, and in defense zone airspace.
- CIn Class E airspace when IMC exists or in Class A airspace.
30Prior to which operation must an IFR flight plan be filed and an appropriate ATC clearance received?
- AFlying by reference to instruments in controlled airspace.
- BEntering controlled airspace when IMC exists.
- CTakeoff when IFR weather conditions exist.
31To operate under IFR below 18,000 feet, a pilot must file an IFR flight plan and receive an appropriate ATC clearance prior to
- AEntering controlled airspace.
- BEntering weather conditions below VFR minimums.
- CTakeoff
32To operate an aircraft under IFR, a flight plan must have been filed and an ATC clearance received prior to
- AControlling the aircraft solely by use of instruments
- BEntering weather conditions in any airspace.
- CEntering controlled airspace.
33When is an IFR clearance required during VFR weather conditions?
- AWhen operating in the Class E airspace.
- BWhen operating in the Class A airspace.
- CWhen operating in airspace above 14, 500 feet.
34When departing from an airport located outside controlled airspace during IMC, you must file an IFR flight plan and receive a clearance before
- ATakeoff.
- BEntering IFR conditions.
- CEntering Class E airspace.
35No person may operate an aircraft in controlled airspace under IFR unless he/she files a flight plan
- AAnd receives a clearance by telephone prior to takeoff.
- BPrior to takeoff and requests the clearance upon arrival on an airway.
- CAnd receives a clearance prior to entering controlled airspace.
36During your preflight planning for an IFR flight, you determine that the first airport of intended landing has no instrument approach prescribed in 14 CFR part 97. The weather forecast for one hour before through one hour after your estimated time of arrival is 3000' scattered with 5 miles visibility. To meet the fuel requirements for this flight, you must be able to fly to the first airport of intended landing,
- AThen to the alternate airport, and then for 30 minutes at normal cruising speed.
- BThen to the alternate airport, and then for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.
- CAnd then fly for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.
37What are the minimum fuel requirements in IFR conditions, if the first airport of intended landing is forecast to have a 1, 500-foot ceiling and 3 miles visibility at flight-planned ETA? Fuel to fly to the first airport of intended landing,
- AAnd fly thereafter for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.
- BFly to the alternate, and fly thereafter for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed
- CFly to the alternate, and fly thereafter for 30 minutes at normal cruising speed.
38What minimum weather conditions must be forecast for your ETA at an alternate airport, that has only a VOR approach with standard alternate minimums, for the airport to be listed as an alternate on the IFR flight plan?
- A800-foot ceiling and 1 statute mile visibility.
- B800-foot ceiling and 2 statute miles visibility.
- C1,000-foot ceiling and visibility to allow descent from mínimum en route altitude (MEA), approach, and landing under basic VFR.
39What are the alternate minimums that must be forecast at the ETA for an airport that has a precision approach procedure?
- A400-foot ceiling and 2 miles visibility.
- B600-foot ceiling and 2 miles visibility.
- C800-foot ceiling and 2 miles visibility
40When an alternate airport is required, what are the weather minimums that must be forecast at the ETA for an alternate airport that has a precision approach procedure?
- ACeiling 200 feet above the approach mínimums and at least 1 statute mile visibility, but not less tan the minimum visibility for the approach.
- B600 foot ceiling and 2 statute miles visibility.
- CCeiling 200 feet above field elevation and visibility 1 statute mile, but not less tan the mínimum visibility for the approach.
41What are the minimum weather conditions that must be forecast to list an airport as an alternate when the airport has no approved IAP?
- AThe ceiling and visibility at ETA, 2,000 feet and 3 miles, respectively.
- BThe ceiling and visibility from 2 hours before until 2 hours after ETA, 2,000 feet and 3 miles, respectively.
- CTheceilingandvisibilityatETAmustallowdescentfromMEA, approach, andlanding, underbasicVFR.
42When a pilot elects to proceed to the selected alternate airport, which minimums apply for landing at the alternate?
- A600-1 if the airport has an ILS.
- BCeiling 200 feet above the published minimum, visibility 2 miles.
- CThe landing minimums for the approach to be used.
43If a pilot elects to proceed to the selected alternate, the landing minimums used at that airport should be the
- AMinimums specified for the approach procedure selected.
- BAlternate minimums shown on the approach chart.
- CMinimums shown for that airport in a separate listing of “IFR Alternate Minimums.”
44When making an instrument approach at the selected alternate airport, what landing minimums apply?
- AStandard alternate minimums (600-2 or 800-2).
- BThe IFR alternate minimums listed for that airport.
- CThe landing minimums published for the type of procedure selected.
45An airport without an authorized IAP may be included on an IFR flight plan as an alternate, if the current weather forecast indicates that the ceiling and visibility at the ETA will
- AAllow for descent from the IAF to landing under basic VFR conditions.
- BBe at least 1,000 feet and 1 mile.
- CAllow for a descent from the MEA, approach, and a landing under basic VFR conditions.
46Preferred IFR routes beginning with a fix indicate that departing aircraft will normally be routed to the fix by
- AThe established airway(s) between the departure airport and the fix.
- BAn instrument departure procedure (DP), or radar vectors.
- CDirect route only.
47The most current en route and destination flight information for planning an instrument flight should be obtained from
- AThe ATIS broadcast.
- BThe FSS.
- CNotices to Airmen (Class II).
48What point at the destination should be used to compute estimated time en route on an IFR flight plan?
- AThe final approach fix on the expected instrument approach.
- BThe initial approach fix on the expected instrument approach.
- CThe point of first intended landing.
49For aircraft other than helicopters, what forecast weather minimums are required to list an airport as an alternate on an IFR flight plan if the airport has VOR approach only?
- ACeiling and visibility at ETA, 800 feet and 2 miles, respectively
- BCeiling and visibility from 2 hours before until 2 hours after ETA, 800 feet and 2 miles, respectively.
- CCeiling and visibility at ETA, 600 feet and 2 miles, respectively.
50For aircraft other than helicopters, what minimum weather conditions must be forecast for your ETA at an alternate airport that has a precision approach procedure, with standard alternate minimums, in order to list it as an alternate for the IFR flight?
- A600-foot ceiling and 2 SM visibility at your ETA.
- B600-foot ceiling and 2 SM visibility from 2 hours before to 2 hours after your ETA.
- C800-foot ceiling and 2 SM visibility at your ETA.
51For aircraft other than helicopters, is an alternate airport required for an IFR flight to ATL (Atlanta Hartsfield) if the proposed ETA is 1930Z?, TAF KATL 121720Z 121818 20012KT 5SM HZ BKN030 FM2000 3SM TSRA OVC025CB FM2200 33015G20KT P6SM BKN015 OVC040 BECMG 0608 02008KT BKN 040 BECMG 1012 00000KT P6SM CLR=
- ANo, becausetheceilingandvisibilityareforecasttobeatorabove2,000feetand3mileswithin1hourbefore
to 1 hour after the ETA. - BNo, because the ceiling and visibility are forecast to remain at or above 1,000 feet and 3 miles, respectively.
- CYes, because the ceiling could fall below 2,000 feet within 2 hours before to 2 hours after the ETA.
- ANo, becausetheceilingandvisibilityareforecasttobeatorabove2,000feetand3mileswithin1hourbefore
52For aircraft other than helicopters, what minimum conditions must exist at the destination airport to avoid listing an alternate airport on an IFR flight plan when a standard IAP is available?
- AFrom 2 hours before to 2 hours after ETA, forecast ceiling 2,000, and visibility 2 and 1/2 miles
- BFrom 2 hours before to 2 hours after ETA, forecast ceiling 3,000, and visibility 3 miles.
- CFrom 1 hour before to 1 hour after ETA, forecast ceiling 2,000, and visibility 3 miles.
53What action is recommended if a pilot does not wish to use an instrument departure procedure?
- AAdvise clearance delivery or ground control before departure.
- BAdvise departure control upon initial contact.
- CEnter “No DP” in the REMARKS section of the IFR flight plan.
54Reception of signals from a radio facility, located off the airway being flown, may be inadequate at the designated MEA to identify the fix. In this case, which altitude is designated for the fix?
- AMOCA.
- BMRA.
- CMCA.
55ATC may assign the MOCA when certain special conditions exist, and when within
- A22NMofaVOR.
- B25NMofaVOR.
- C30NMofaVOR.
56For IFR operations off of established airways below 18,000 feet, VOR navigation aids used to describe the “route of flight” should be
- A40 NM apart
- B70 NM apart
- C80 NM apart
57At what point should the timing begin for the first leg outbound in a nonstandard holding pattern?
- AAbeam the holding fix, or wings level, whichever occurs last.
- BWhen the wings are level at the completion of the 180° turn outbound.
- CWhen over or abeam the holding fix, whichever occurs later.
58MEA is an altitude which assures
- AObstacleclearance, accuratenavigationalsignalsfrommorethanoneVORTAC, andaccurateDMEmileage.
- BA 1,000-foot obstacle clearance within 2 miles of an airway and assures accurate DME mileage.
- CAcceptable navigational signal coverage and meets obstruction clearance requirements.
59To ensure proper airspace protection while in a holding pattern, what is the maximum airspeed above 14,000 feet for civil turbojet aircraft?
- A230 knots.
- B265 knots.
- C200 knots.
60What obstacle clearance and navigation signal coverage is a pilot assured with the Minimum Sector Altitudes depicted on the IAP charts?
- A1,000 feet and acceptable navigation signal coverage within a 25 NM radius of the navigation facility.
- B1,000 feet within a 25 NM radius of the navigation facility but not acceptable navigation signal
coverage. - C500 feet and acceptable navigation signal coverage within a 10 NM radius of the navigation facility.
61When holding at an NDB, at what point should the timing begin for the second leg outbound?
- AWhenthewingsarelevelandthewinddriftcorrectionangleisestablishedaftercompletingtheturntothe outbound heading.
- BWhen the wings are level after completing the turn to the outbound heading, or abeam the fix, whichever occurs first.
- CWhen abeam the holding fix.
62To ensure proper airspace protection while in a holding pattern, what is the maximum indicated airspeed above 14,000 feet?
- A220 knots.
- B265 knots.
- C200 knots.
63What is the definition of MEA?
- AThe lowest published altitude which meets obstacle clearance requirements and assures aceptable
navigational signal coverage. - BThe lowest published altitude which meets obstacle requirements, assures acceptable navigational signal coverage, two-way radio communications, and provides adequate radar coverage.
- CAn altitude which meets obstacle clearance requirements, assures aceptable navigation signal coverage, two-way radio communications, adequate radar coverage, and accurate DME mileage.
- AThe lowest published altitude which meets obstacle clearance requirements and assures aceptable
64To ensure proper airspace protection while holding at 5,000 feet in a civil aircraft, what is the maximum indicated airspeed a pilot should use?
- A230 knots.
- B200 knots.
- C210 knots.
65What timing procedure should be used when performing a holding pattern at a VOR?
- ATiming for the outbound leg begins over or abeam the VOR, whichever occurs later.
- BTiming for the inbound leg begins when initiating the turn inbound.
- CAdjustments in timing of each pattern should be made on the inbound leg.
66Acceptable navigational signal coverage at the MOCA is assured for a distance from the VOR of only
- A12 NM.
- B22 NM.
- C25 NM.
67Which aeronautical chart depicts Military Training Routes (MTR) above 1, 500 feet?
- AIFR Planning Chart.
- BIFR Low Altitude En Route Chart.
- CIFR High Altitude En Route Chart.
68When more than one circuit of the holding pattern is needed to lose altitude or become better established on course, the additional circuits can be made
- AAt pilot’s discretion.
- BOnly in an emergency.
- COnly if pilot advises ATC and ATC approves.
69Reception of signals from an off-airway radio facility may be inadequate to identify the fix at the designated MEA. In this case, which altitude is designated for the fix?
- AMRA.
- BMCA.
- CMOCA.
70Which condition is guaranteed for all of the following altitude limits: MAA, MCA, MRA, MOCA, and MEA? (Non-mountainous area.)
- AAdequate navigation signals.
- BAdequate communications.
- C1,000-foot obstacle clearance.
71If no MCA is specified, what is the lowest altitude for crossing a radio fix, beyond which a higher minimum applies?
- AThe MEA at which the fix is approached.
- BThe MRA at which the fix is approached.
- CThe MOCA for the route segment beyond the fix.
72
How can an IAF be identified on a Standard Instrument Approach Procedure (SIAP) Chart?- AAll fixes that are labeled IAF.
- BAny fix illustrated within the 10 mile ring other than the FAF or stepdown fix.
- CThe procedure turn and the fixes on the feeder facility ring.
73When cleared to execute a published sidestep maneuver for a specific approach and landing on the parallel runway, at what point is the pilot expected to commence this maneuver?
- AAt the published minimum altitude for a circling approach.
- BAs soon as possible after the runway or runway environment is in sight.
- CAt the localizer MDA minimum and when the runway is in sight.
74Aircraft approach categories are based on
- ACertificated approach speed at maximum gross weight.
- B1.3 times the stall speed in landing configuration at maximum gross landing weight
- C1.3 times the stall speed at maximum gross weight.
75If all ILS components are operating and the required visual references are not established, the missed approach should be initiated upon
- AArrival at the DH on the glide slope.
- BArrival at the middle marker.
- CExpiration of the time listed on the approach chart for missed approach.
76Under which condition does ATC issue a STAR?
- ATo all pilots wherever STAR’s are available.
- BOnly if the pilot requests a STAR in the “Remarks” section of the flight plan.
- CWhen ATC deems it appropriate, unless the pilot requests “No STAR.”
77Where a holding pattern is specified in lieu of a procedure turn, the holding maneuver must be executed within
- AThe 1 minute time limitation or DME distance as specified in the profile view.
- BA radius of 5 miles from the holding fix
- C10 knots of the specified holding speed.
78Which procedure should be followed by a pilot who is circling to land in a Category B airplane, but is maintaining a speed 5 knots faster than the maximum specified for that category?
- AUse the approach minimums appropriate for Category C.
- BUse Category B minim ums.
- CUse Category D minimums since they apply to all circling approaches.
79When the approach procedure involves a procedure turn, the maximum speed should not be greater than
- A180 knots IAS.
- B200 knots IAS.
- C250 knots IAS.
80What does the symbol T within a black triangle in the minimums section of the IAP for a particular airport indicate?
- ATakeoff minimums are 1 mile for aircraft having two engines or less and 1⁄2 mile for those with more than two engines.
- BInstrument takeoffs are not authorized.
- CTakeoff minimums are not standard and/or departure procedures are published.
81When simultaneous approaches are in progress, how does each pilot receive radar advisories?
- AOn tower frequency.
- BOn approach control frequency.
- COne pilot on tower frequency and the other on approach control frequency.
82When may a pilot make a straight-in landing, if using an IAP having only circling minimums?
- AAstraight-inlandingmaynotbemade, butthepilotmaycontinuetotherunwayatMDAandthencircleto land on the runway.
- BThe pilot may land straight-in if the runway is the active runway and he has been cleared to land.
- CA straight-in landing may be made if the pilot has the runway in sight in sufficient time to make a
normal approach for landing, and has been cleared to land.
83What does the absence of the procedure turn barb on the plan view on an approach chart indicate?
- AA procedure turn is not authorized.
- BTeardrop-type procedure turn is authorized
- CRacetrack-type procedure turn is authorized.
84Which fixes on the IAP Charts are initial approach fixes?
- AAny fix on the en route facilities ring, the feeder facilities ring, and those at the start of arc approaches.
- BOnly the fixes at the start of arc approaches and those on either the feeder facilities ring or en route facilities ring that have a transition course shown to the approach procedure.
- CAny fix that is identified by the letters IAF
85What does the Runway Visual Range (RVR) value, depicted on certain straight-in IAP Charts, represent?
- AThe slant range distance the pilot can see down the runway while crossing the threshold on glide slope.
- BThe horizontal distance a pilot should see when looking down the runway from a moving aircraft.
- CThe slant visual range a pilot should see down the final approach and during landing.
86What conditions are necessary before ATC can authorize a visual approach?
- AYou must have the preceding aircraft in sight, and be able to remain in VFR weather conditions.
- BYou must have the airport in sight or the preceding aircraft in sight, and be able to proceed to, and land in IFR conditions.
- CYou must have the airport in sight or a preceding aircraft to be followed, and be able to proceed to
the airport in VFR conditions.
87Assume this clearance is received: “CLEARED FOR ILS RUNWAY 07 LEFT APPROACH, SIDE- STEP TO RUNWAY 07 RIGHT.” When would the pilot be expected to commence the side- step maneuver?
- AAs soon as possible after the runway environment is in sight.
- BAny time after becoming aligned with the final approach course of Runway 07 left, and after passing the final approach fix.
- CAfter reaching the circling minimums for Runway 07 right.
88If the RVR equipment is inoperative for an IAP that requires a visibility of 2, 400 RVR, how should the pilot expect the visibility requirement to be reported in lieu of the published RVR?
- AAs a slant range visibility of 2, 400 feet.
- BAs an RVR of 2, 400 feet.
- CAs a ground visibility of 1/2 SM.
89Which of the following statements is true regarding Parallel ILS approaches?
- AParallel ILS approach runway center lines are separated by at least 4,300 feet and standard IFR separation is provided on the adjacent runway.
- BParallel ILS approaches provide aircraft a minimum of 1-1/2 miles radar separation between
successive aircraft on the adjacent localizer course. - CLanding mínimums to the ad jacent runway will be higher tan the minimums to the primary runway, but will normally be lower than the published circling minimums.
90The RVR minimums for takeoff or landing are published in an IAP, but RVR is inoperative and cannot be reported for the runway at the time. Which of the following would apply?
- ARVRminimumswhicharespecifiedintheprocedureshouldbeconvertedandappliedasgroundvisibility.
- BRVR minimums may be disregarded, providing the runway has an operative HIRL system.
- CRVR minimums may be disregarded, providing all other components of the ILS system are operative.
91If an early missed approach is initiated before reaching the MAP, the following procedure should be used unless otherwise cleared by ATC.
- AProceedtothemissedapproachpointatorabovetheMDAorDHbeforeexecutingaturningmaneuver.
- BBegin a climbing turn immediately and follow missed approach procedures.
- CMaintain altitude and continue past MAP for 1 minute or 1 mile whichever occurs first.
92If during an ILS approach in IFR conditions, the approach lights are not visible upon arrival at the DH, the pilot is
- ARequired to immediately execute the missed approach procedure.
- BPermitted to continue the approach and descend to the localizer MDA.
- CPermitted to continue the approach to the approach threshold of the ILS runway.
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- Quiz sobre Examen 8, criado por Andres Felipe Londono em 11-11-2016.
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