Quiz
EMC storage systems: NAS, backup and flash questions
Este quiz tem tempo limite, por isso abre no player de sempre.
Perguntas do quiz (84)
1Which operation is performed by a scale-out NAS cluster when clients send data to the cluster?
- AData is divided and stored on multiple nodes in parallel
- BData is consolidated into a block and then stored on the NAS head
- CData is evenly distributed to every file system in the cluster
- DNAS file system and cluster grow dynamically to store the data
2What is an advantage of the changed block tracking backup technique?
- AIncreases backup device performance
- BReduces the backup window
- CEnables restoration to any point-in-time
- DEliminates the need for data deduplication
3To improve performance, which EMC product allows a PCIe flash card to be deployed in a compute system?
- AXtremSF
- BXtremCache
- CScaleIO
- DXtremIO
4What is a benefit of implementing the server flash caching technology in a storage environment?
- AEliminates the need for cache on a storage system
- BImproves the network performance during peak workloads
- CProvides performance acceleration for read intensive workloads
- DReduces the number of storage systems in a data center
5What provides the ability to automatically relocate extents across physical storage drives over the entire pool when new drives are added to the pool?
- AStorage pool tiering
- BAutomated extent tiering
- CStorage pool rebalancing
- DExtent relocation
6An organization plans to deploy a new backup device in their data center. The organization wants the new backup device to support their legacy backup software without requiring any changes to the software. In addition, the organization wants the backup device to provide random data access for better performance.
Which backup device should be recommended?- AVirtual tape library
- BOptical juke box
- CTape library
- DTape-based backup appliance
7What maps the logical path of a file system to its physical path in a file-level virtualization implementation?
- ACache coherency
- BDistributed file system
- CRemote procedure call
- DGlobal namespace
8 Which NAS implementation requires separate management of the NAS head and the storage?
- AScale-out
- BGateway
- CUnified
- DIntegrated
9Which part of the Fibre Channel (FC) frame does the label "X" represent in the exhibit?
- AData Field
- BCRC
- CSOF
- DFrame Header
10Which EMC block-based storage system uses a cluster design to scale both capacity and performance?
- AXtremIO
- BIsilon
- CScaleIO
- DXtremSF
11Which technique protects the data in cache from power failures?
- AMirroring
- BVaulting
- CCache tiering
- DIdle flushing
12What is an accurate statement about the Common Internet File System (CIFS) protocol?
- AUses file system locking to enable users to simultaneously overwrite all metadata of a file system
- BContains an open variation of the stateless user datagram protocol that stores information about open files
- CUses a Remote Procedure Call mechanism to provide access to the CIFS supported file systems
- DEnables a CIFS server to maintain connection information regarding every connected client
13The exhibit illustrates a software-defined storage environment. What do the labels “X” and “Y” represent in the exhibit?
- AX is a virtual storage pool and Y is a virtual storage system
- BX is a virtual storage system and Y is a virtual storage pool
- CX is a physical storage pool and Y is a virtual storage system
- DX is a virtual storage pool and Y is a physical storage system
14Which type of Fibre Channel (FC) ports do the labels "X" and "Y" represent in the exhibit?
- AX is an N_Port and Y is an F_Port
- BX is an F_Port and Y is an N_Port
- CX is an E_Port and Y is an F_Port
- DX is an N_Port and Y is an E_Port
15Which data center management process involves collating and presenting the utilization of resources?
- AReporting
- BProvisioning
- CPlanning
- DMaintenance
16Which data center characteristic ensures that adequate resources are provided to efficiently store and process data?
- AAvailability
- BCapacity
- CScalability
- DPerformance
17Which type of digital data has no defined format but has a self-describing structure that enables its analysis?
- ASemi-structured data
- BStructured data
- CMetadata
- DQuasi-structured data
18Which type of digital data consists of textual data with inconsistent formats but can be formatted with the use of software tools?
- AUnstructured data
- BMetadata
- CSemi-structured data
- DQuasi-structured data
19What accurately describes the function of the policy engine in a file-level storage tiering environment?
- AFacilitates moving data from primary storage to secondary storage based on pre-defined policies
- Bnothing
20What is the correct sequence of steps in a read-miss operation with cache?
- A1. Read request is issued to Disk
2. Host issues a read request
3. Data is copied to cache
4. Data is sent to host - B1. Host issues a read request
2. Data is sent to host
3. Data is copied to cache
4. Read request is issued to Disk - C1. Host issues a read request
2. Read request is issued to Disk
3. Data is copied to cache
4. Data is sent to host - D1. Data is sent to host
2. Host issues a read request
3. Data is copied to cache
4. Read request is issued to Disk
- A1. Read request is issued to Disk
21What is the correct sequence of operations for storing an object in an object-based storage device (OSD)?
- AThe application server presents the file to be stored to the OSD node
The OSD node generates the object ID using a specialized algorithm.
The OSD node stores the metadata and object ID using the metadata service
The OSD node divides the file into two parts: user data and metadata - BThe OSD node generates the object ID using a specialized algorithm.
The OSD node stores the metadata and object ID using the metadata service
The application server presents the file to be stored to the OSD node
The OSD node divides the file into two parts: user data and metadata - CThe application server presents the file to be stored to the OSD node
The OSD node divides the file into two parts: user data and metadata
The OSD node generates the object ID using a specialized algorithm.
The OSD node stores the metadata and object ID using the metadata service - DThe application server presents the file to be stored to the OSD node
The OSD node generates the object ID using a specialized algorithm.
The OSD node stores the metadata and object ID using the metadata service
The OSD node divides the file into two parts: user data and metadata
- AThe application server presents the file to be stored to the OSD node
22what contains the information about backup configuration and backup metadata?
- AProxy server
- BTracking database
- CBackup image
- DBackup catalog
23Which type of fabric topology does the exhibit represent?
- APartial mesh
- BSingle core-edge
- CFull mesh
- DDual core-edge
24Which type of storage device does the “X” represent in the exhibit?
- AObject-based
- BBlock-based
- CFile-based
- DUnified-based
25A service provider is offering cloud services to Enterprise P and Enterprise Q. Which cloud deployment model does the exhibit represent?
- APublic cloud
- BOn-premise community cloud
- CExternally-hosted private cloud
- DExternally-hosted community cloud
26What is an example of a security management task in a storage infrastructure?
- AEnforcing storage space quotas to restrict users from overprovisioning resources
- BRestricting the number of simultaneous client access to application servers
- CEnabling sending messages to a support center in the event of resource failure
- DConfiguring LUN masking to restrict hosts from accessing a specific LUN
27Why should a replica be consistent with its source?
- AEnsure the usability of the replica
- BReduce the need to create multiple replicas
- CEnsure the security of the replica
- DReduce the size of the replica
28A customer has a requirement to perform a backup each night. However, the customer has a limited amount of time for backups to run on week nights, Monday through Friday evenings. Which backup granularity type is recommended to meet the backup window for those nights?
- AFull
- BIncremental
- CDifferential
- DCumulative
29What is a characteristic of a scale-out NAS?
- ADifferent file systems can be mixed on each node in a single cluster
- BDistinct file systems are created on each node in the cluster
- CUp to four file systems can be created across the cluster
- DFile system grows dynamically as nodes are added in the cluster
30What is an accurate statement about infrastructure discovery?
- ACreates an inventory of infrastructure components and provides information about the components
- BStandardizes on-going infrastructure management activities and assesses potential risks of the activities
- CClassifies, organizes, and analyzes all infrastructure management best practices stored in data lakes
- DDetects potential security attacks on a storage infrastructure and deploys specialized tools to eliminate the attacks
31Which EMC product provides automated monitoring and reporting of a software-defined storage infrastructure?
- AViPR SRM
- BSnapSure
- CAvamar
- DFAST VP
32What is an example of an availability management task in storage infrastructure management?
- ADesigning a new replication solution for data redundancy
- BPerforming trend analysis of storage space consumption
- CTracking configuration changes to storage components
- DSpecifying storage space quotas for users
33Which EMC product enables management for Vblock systems?
- AUnified Infrastructure Manager
- BMirrorView
- CService Assurance Suite
- DViPR SRM
34What is the purpose of monitoring capacity in a storage infrastructure?
- AEvaluating utilization of components and identifying bottlenecks
- BTracking configuration changes to the storage infrastructure elements
- CTracking the amount of storage infrastructure resources used and available
- DIdentifying component failures that may lead to service unavailability
35What is an activity in the risk assessment step of risk management?
- ADetermine the likelihood of a risk
- BContinuously observe the existing risks
- CIdentify the sources of threats that increase the risks
36Which method is used to establish a VPN connection between a primary and remote data center to perform secure remote replication?
- ALong distance VPN connection
- BIntra-site VPN connection
- CRemote access VPN connection
- DSite-to-site VPN connection
37Which method does an intrusion detection and prevention system (IDPS) use to identify intrusions by scanning and analyzing events to detect if they are statistically different from normal events?
- AProfile-based
- BDevice-based
- CAnomaly-base
- DSignature-based
38Which technique is used in Kerberos to authenticate a client-server application across an insecure network?
- AShared secret
- BOne-way hash function
- CSecret-key cryptography
- DOpenID control
39What is an accurate statement about OpenID control?
- AEnables initiators and targets to authenticate each other by using a shared secret code
- BProvides strong authentication for client-server applications by using secret-key cryptography
- CAllows a client to access protected resources from a resource server on behalf of a resource owner
- DEnables an organization to use authentication services from an identity provider
40What is an accurate statement about OAuth security control?
- AAllows a client to access protected resources from a resource server on behalf of a resource owner
- BProvides strong authentication for client-server applications by using secret-key cryptography
- CEnables initiators and targets to authenticate each other by using a shared secret code
- DEnables an organization to use authentication services from an identity provider
41How do VSANs ensure security in an IT infrastructure?
- ABy authenticating a new switch that joins a fabric
- BBy prohibiting an unused switch port from being used
- CBy providing isolation over a shared infrastructure
- DBy limiting the number of switches in a fabric
42What enables an administrator to create device groups in an IP-SAN for restricting device communications to a group?
- ANIC teaming
- BiSNS discovery domain
- CDemilitarized zone
- DSecurity identifier
43In an FC SAN environment, which security mechanism prevents a switch port from being enabled even after a switch reboot?
- APort type locking
- BFabric binding
- CPort binding
- DPort locking
44In an FC SAN environment, an administrator wants to ensure that a particular switch port cannot function as an E_Port and cannot be used to create an interswitch link. Which security mechanism should the administrator use?
- APersistent port disable
- BPort type locking
- CPort binding
- DFabric binding
45What is a benefit of deploying a Defense in Depth strategy?
- AProvides additional time for organizations to detect and respond to an attack
- BEliminates the attack vector from the IT infrastructure
- CEliminates the attack surface from the IT infrastructure
46What accurately describes an attack vector in an IT infrastructure?
- AAmount of effort required to exploit vulnerabilities in the infrastructure
- BProcess of identifying the system components under attack
- CSeries of steps that must be followed in order to complete an attack
- DVarious entry points that can be used to launch an attack
47Which attack is carried out by sending a spoofing e-mail and redirecting a user to a false website?
- ARepudiation
- BPhishing
- CMan-in-the-middle
- DDenial-of-service
48What is an accurate statement about a denial-of-service attack?
- ACaptures a user’s credentials and then sends to the attacker
- BPrevents legitimate users from accessing resources or services
- CGaining unauthorized access to a user’s accounts and data
- DIntentional misuse of privileges to compromise data security
49What is compromised by a passive attack on an IT infrastructure?
- AIntegrity
- BAvailability
- CRepudiation
- DConfidentialy
50What is an example of an active attack on an IT infrastructure?
- AAttempt to gain access to the data in transit
- BAttempt to copy the data from the storage system
- CAttempt to modify information for malicious purposes
- DAttempt to gain unauthorized access into the system
51What is an accurate statement about hypervisor-based continuous data protection (CDP)?
- AJournal is stored in a virtual machine
- BVirtual appliance runs on a storage system
- CWrite splitter is embedded in the hypervisor
- DJournal and replica use the same storage volume
52What is a benefit of implementing a virtual machine (VM) storage migration?
- AEnables VMs to keep functioning even if the source data is lost due to a
- BImproves the security of applications running inside VMs on the migrated storage system
- CReduces the overall storage system capacity requirements for organizations
- DBalances storage utilization by redistributing VMs across different storage systems
53In continuous data protection (CDP) remote replication, where are the two split write I/Os of an incoming write I/O directed?
- AOne I/O goes to the remote CDP appliance and the other I/O goes to the replica
- BOne I/O goes to the local CDP appliance and the other I/O goes to the production volume
- COne I/O goes to the journal volume and the other I/O goes to the replica
- DOne I/O goes to the compute system and the other I/O goes to the production volume
54What determines how far back the recovery points can go in a continuous data protection (CDP) solution?
- AType of write splitter used for replication
- BAmount of space that is configured for the journal
- CSize of the source and replica volumes
- DSize of the CDP appliance used for replication
55What is a benefit of deploying a multi-site storage system-based remote replication solution?
- AEnsures disaster recovery protection remains available in the event of source or remote site failures
- BProvides the capability to recover data to any point-in-time
- CRequires low network bandwidth to perform synchronous replication
- DEnables a consistent near-zero RPO in the event of source and remote site failures
56What is an accurate statement about a virtual machine (VM) snapshot?
- AProvides the capability to restore VM data to any point-in-time
- BCaptures the state and data of a running VM at a specific point-in-time
- CProvides the capability to delete the parent VM once the snapshot is created
- DRuns as an independent copy from the parent VM
57What is an accurate statement about full volume replication?
- ATarget and source devices should be on different storage arrays
- BTarget device is at least as large as the source device
- CTarget device is accessible only after the replication session starts
- DTarget device requires only a fraction of the space used by the source device
58What is determined based on the recovery point objective in an asynchronous remote replication?
- ALocation of the source
- BSize of the buffer
- CSize of the replica
- DResponse time
59 What is a benefit of using content addressed storage (CAS) as an archival solution?
- AProvides the ability to perform production operations on the CAS
- BEnables modification of archived data
- CEnsures content authenticity and integrity
- DSupports location independence using different content IDs for an object
60What is an accurate statement about the function of an archiving server?
- AInstalls agents on the archiving storage device
- BScans the data that can be archived on application servers
- CCreates stub files on an archiving storage device
- DEnables the ability to configure policies for archiving data
61An organization plans to deploy a deduplication solution by retaining their legacy backup application. They are concerned about the application servers’ performance and a long backup window during backups. Which deduplication solution(s) should be recommended to the organization?
- AVariable-length segment and source-based
- BSource-based global deduplication
- CPost-process
- DFixed-length block and source-based
62Which type of storage system is built specifically for storing fixed content?
- AFile-based storage
- BUnified storage
- CContent addressed storage
- DBlock-based storage
63What is an accurate statement about three-way NDMP backup in a NAS environment?
- ABackup device can be shared among multiple NAS heads
- BEach NAS head should have a dedicated backup device
- CBackup data traverses at least three NAS heads before reaching the backup device
- DBackup is performed only when three or more NAS heads are present
64An organization has several virtual machines (VMs) deployed in their data center. The VM files are stored on a block-based storage system. The applications on the VMs are impacted during VM backup because the backup agents on the VMs are consuming a large amount of resources. Which alternate backup solution is recommended to address this issue?
- ATarget-based deduplication backup
- BImage-based backup
- CTwo-way NDMP backup
- DThree-way NDMP backup
65Why is it important for organizations to maintain a copy of data at a remote site?
- AProvide operational recovery
- BEnsure disaster recovery
- CEnsure data archiving to meet regulatory requirements
- DProvide flexibility to use stub files for production operations
66What is an accurate statement about incremental forever backups?
- ARequires periodic full back ups
- BRequires only one initial full backup
- CBackup is not created directly from the production data
- DCopies the data that has changed since the last full back up
67What is an advantage of performing cumulative backups compared to incremental backups for the same data?
- AFacilitates faster backups
- BReduces the storage space required for backups
- CFacilitates faster restores
- DEliminates the need for full backups
68What is a benefit of a “recovery-in-place” backup approach in a virtualized data center?
- AProvides instant recovery of a failed virtual machine
- BEliminates redundant data during virtual machine backups
- CEliminates the backup window
- DReduces the recovery point objective
69Which component is required for a “recovery-in-place” backup approach?
- ADisk-based backup target
- BAgent-based backup client
- CNDMP server
- DData deduplication server
70What is a function of the NDMP server in an NDMP-based backup approach?
- AInstructs the NAS head to start the backup operation
- BReads the data from the storage device and sends the data to the backup device
- CReads the data from the backup server and sends the data to the backup device
- DInstructs the backup agent on the client to send the data to the backup device
71An organization performs a full back up every Sunday and cumulative back ups on the remaining days. On Thursday, a data corruption occurs that requires a data restoration from the backup copies. How many backup copies are required to perform this restoration?
- A1
- B2
- C3
- D4
72What is an accurate statement about three-way NDMP backup in a NAS environment?
- ABackup data is sent directly from NAS to the backup device
- BA dedicated backup device is required for each NAS
- CBackup data is sent to the backup device through the application servers
- DAll NAS systems should have the same operating environment
73What is a benefit of backing up data to a disk library?
- AProvides improved backup and recovery performance
- BProvides built-in portability to meet offsite requirements
- CSupports the shoe shining effect for improved backup performance
- DPre-configured and dedicated appliance is only used for backups
74What refers to an IT infrastructure's ability to function based on business expectations during its specified time of operations?
- AInformation availability
- BDisaster recovery
- CCompliance adherence
- DBusiness agility
75In which stage of the business continuity planning lifecycle does an organization identify critical business processes and assign recovery priorities?
- AAnalyzing
- BEstablishing objectives
- CDesigning and developing
- DImplementing
76A system has three components and all three components need to be operational for 24 hours; Monday through Friday. During a particular week, failure of component 3 occurred as follows:
Tuesday = 8 AM to 1 PM
Thursday = 5 PM to 10 PM
Friday = 5 AM to 10 AM
What is the mean time between failures on component 3 for that week?- A5 hours
- B35 hours
- C40 hours
- D51 hours
77What is determined by the recovery point objective in a business continuity solution?
- AFrequency of the backup
- BType of backup devices
- CType of disaster recovery site
- DDistance between the primary and disaster recovery sites
78What is an accurate statement about a fabric-provided MAC address (FPMA) used in an FCoE SAN?
- AFCoE switches provide MAC addresses to VN_Ports during node login
- BFC switches provide MAC addresses to VE_Ports dynamically during discovery
- CCompute systems provide MAC addresses to the VF_Ports on FCoE switches
- DBoth VF_Ports and VE_Ports obtain MAC addresses from FC switches
79Which action takes place during the login phase in an FCoE SAN?
- AVN_Ports obtain FC addresses
- BNodes locate the Fibre Channel Forwarder
- CInitialization protocol starts transporting FC data
- DVN_Port to N_Port pairing is established
80What is an accurate statement about VLANs and VSANs in an FCoE environment with an existing FC SAN?
- ADefault VLAN must map to all VSANs defined in the FCoE switch
- BA minimum of four VLANs must be created to isolate VSAN traffic
- CVLANs configured for VSANs must carry regular LAN traffic
- DA dedicated VLAN must be configured for each VSAN
81 What is a function of a Fibre Channel Forwarder in an FCoE SAN?
- ATransfers FCoE traffic over an FC SAN
- BEncapsulates IP packets into FC frames
- CProvides both NIC and FC HBA functionality
- DApplies zoning configurations and provides fabric services
82What is a component of an FCoE switch?
- AVirtual N_Port
- BEthernet Bridge
- CConverged Network Adapter
- DFCIP Forwarder
83In an FCoE environment, which functionality provides a framework for the allocation of bandwidth to different network traffic classes?
- AEnhanced transmission selection
- BData center bridging exchange protocol
- CPriority-based flow control
- DCongestion notification
84Which lossless Ethernet functionality helps Converged Enhanced Ethernet (CEE) devices to convey and configure their features with the other CEE devices in the network?
- ACongestion notification
- BData center bridging exchange protocol
- CEnhanced transmission selection
- DPriority-based flow control
Informações
- Descrição
- Quiz sobre Sem título, criado por ia vnua em 21-12-2016.
- Autor
- ia vnua
- Idioma
- Español
- Visualizações
- 0
- Avaliação
- Ainda sem avaliações Avalie este quiz