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Perguntas do quiz (161)
1Which operation is performed by a scale-out NAS cluster when clients send data to the cluster?
- AData is consolidated into a block and then stored on the NAS head
- BData is divided and stored on multiple nodes in parallel
- CData is evenly distributed to every file system in the cluster
- DNAS file system and cluster grow dynamically to store the data
2What is an advantage of the changed block tracking backup technique?
- AReduces the backup window
- BEnables restoration to any point-in-time
- CEliminates the need for data deduplication
- DIncreases backup device performance
3To improve performance, which EMC product allows a PCIe flash card to be deployed in a compute system?
- AXtremCache
- BXtremSF
- CScaleIO
- DXtremIO
4What is a benefit of implementing the server flash caching technology in a storage environment?
- AProvides performance acceleration for read intensive workloads
- BReduces the number of storage systems in a data center
- CEliminates the need for cache on a storage system
- DImproves the network performance during peak workloads
5What provides the ability to automatically relocate extents across physical storage drives over the entire pool when new drives are added to the pool?
- AAutomated extent tiering
- BStorage pool tiering
- CStorage pool rebalancing
- DExtent relocation
6An organization plans to deploy a new backup device in their data center. The organization wants the new backup device to support their legacy backup software without requiring any changes to the software. In addition, the organization wants the backup device to provide random data access for better performance.
Which backup device should be recommended?- AVirtual tape library
- BTape-based backup appliance
- CTape library
- DOptical juke box
7What maps the logical path of a file system to its physical path in a file-level virtualization implementation?
- AGlobal namespace
- BRemote procedure call
- CDistributed file system
- DCache coherency
8What is an accurate statement about a virtual tape library?
- ALegacy backup software can be used without additional modules or changes
- BPortability of physical tapes tooffsite locations is supported
- COnly sequential data access for both backup and recovery is supported
- DRegular maintenance tasks associated with a physical tape drive are required
9Which NAS implementation requires separate management of the NAS head and the storage?
- AGateway
- BUnified
- CScale-out
- DIntegrated
10Which part of the Fibre Channel (FC) frame does the label "X" represent in the exhibit?
- AFrame Header
- BCRC
- CSOF
- DData Field
11Which EMC block-based storage system uses a cluster design to scale both capacity and performance?
- AXtremSF
- BIsilon
- CScaleIO
- DXtremIO
12Which technique protects the data in cache from power failures?
- ACache tiering
- BVaulting
- CMirroring
- DIdle flushing
13What is an accurate statement about the Common Internet File System (CIFS) protocol?
- AUses a Remote Procedure Call mechanism to provide access to the CIFS supported file systems
- BContains an open variation of the stateless user datagram protocol that stores information about open files
- CUses file system locking to enable users to simultaneously overwrite all metadata of a file system
- DEnables a CIFS server to maintain connection information regarding every connected client
14The exhibit illustrates a software-defined storage environment. What do the labels “X” and “Y” represent in the exhibit?
- AX is a virtual storage pool and Y is a physical storage system
- BX is a physical storage pool and Y is a virtual storage system
- CX is a virtual storage pool and Y is a virtual storage system
- DX is a virtual storage system and Y is a virtual storage pool
15Which type of Fibre Channel (FC) ports do the labels "X" and "Y" represent in the exhibit?
- AX is an E_Port and Y is an F_Port
- BX is an F_Port and Y is an N_Port
- CX is an N_Port and Y is an E_Port
- DX is an N_Port and Y is an F_Port
16Which data center management process involves collating and presenting the utilization of resources?
- AProvisioning
- BMaintenance
- CReporting
- DPlanning
17Which data center characteristic ensures that adequate resources are provided to efficiently store and process data?
- ACapacity
- BPerformance
- CScalability
- DAvailability
18Which type of digital data has no defined format but has a self-describing structure that enables its analysis?
- ASemi-structured data
- BStructured data
- CMetadata
- DQuasi-structured data
19Which type of digital data consists of textual data with inconsistent formats but can be formatted with the use of software tools?
- AQuasi-structured data
- BSemi-structured data
- CMetadata
- DUnstructured data
20What accurately describes the function of the policy engine in a file-level storage tiering environment?
- AFacilitates moving data from primary storage to secondary storage based on pre-defined policies
- BNOTHING
21What is the correct sequence of steps in a read-miss operation with cache?
- AHost issues a read request
Read request is issued to Disk
Data is copied to cache
Data is sent to host - BData is copied to cache
Data is sent to host
Host issues a read request
Read request is issued to Disk - CRead request is issued to Disk
Data is copied to cache
Host issues a read request
Data is sent to host - DHost issues a read request
Read request is issued to Disk
Data is sent to host
Data is copied to cache
- AHost issues a read request
22What is the correct sequence of operations for storing an object in an object-based storage device (OSD)?
- AThe OSD node divides the file into two parts: user data and metadata
The application server presents the file to be stored to the OSD node
The OSD node stores the metadata and object ID using the metadata service
The OSD node generates the object ID using a specialized algorithm. - BThe OSD node divides the file into two parts: user data and metadata
The OSD node generates the object ID using a specialized algorithm.
The application server presents the file to be stored to the OSD node
The OSD node stores the metadata and object ID using the metadata service - CThe OSD node divides the file into two parts: user data and metadata
The OSD node stores the metadata and object ID using the metadata service
The OSD node generates the object ID using a specialized algorithm.
The application server presents the file to be stored to the OSD node - DThe application server presents the file to be stored to the OSD node
The OSD node divides the file into two parts: user data and metadata
The OSD node generates the object ID using a specialized algorithm.
The OSD node stores the metadata and object ID using the metadata service
- AThe OSD node divides the file into two parts: user data and metadata
23what contains the information about backup configuration and backup metadata?
- ABackup catalog
- BProxy server
- CTracking database
24Which type of fabric topology does the exhibit represent?
- APartial mesh
- BFull mesh
- CSingle core-edge
- DDual core-edge
25Which type of storage device does the “X” represent in the exhibit?
- AObject-based
- BBlock-based
- CFile-based
- DUnified-based
26Which type of storage device does the “X” represent in the exhibit?
- AObject-based
- BBlock-based
- CFile-based
- DUnified-based
27A service provider is offering cloud services to Enterprise P and Enterprise Q. Which cloud deployment model does the exhibit represent
- AExternally-hosted private cloud
- BOn-premise community cloud
- CPublic cloud
- DExternally-hosted community cloud
28What is an example of a security management task in a storage infrastructure?
- AConfiguring LUN masking to restrict hosts from accessing a specific LUN
- BEnforcing storage space quotas to restrict users from overprovisioning resources
- CRestricting the number of simultaneous client access to application servers
- DEnabling sending messages to a support center in the event of resource failure
29Why should a replica be consistent with its source?
- AEnsure the usability of the replica
- BReduce the need to create multiple replicas
- CEnsure the security of the replica
- DReduce the size of the replica
30A customer has a requirement to perform a backup each night. However, the customer has a limited amount of time for backups to run on week nights, Monday through Friday evenings. Which backup granularity type is recommended to meet the backup window for those nights?
- AIncremental
- BCumulative
- CFull
- DDifferential
31What is a characteristic of a scale-out NAS?
- AFile system grows dynamically as nodes are added in the cluster
- BUp to four file systems can be created across the cluster
- CDistinct file systems are created on each node in the cluster
- DDifferent file systems can be mixed on each node in a single cluster
32What is an accurate statement about infrastructure discovery
- ACreates an inventory of infrastructure components and provides information about the components
- BStandardizes on-going infrastructure management activities and assesses potential risks of the activities
- CClassifies, organizes, and analyzes all infrastructure management best practices stored in data lakes
- DDetects potential security attacks on a storage infrastructure and deploys specialized tools to eliminate the attacks
33What is an accurate statement about infrastructure discovery?
- ACreates an inventory of infrastructure components and provides information about the components
- BStandardizes on-going infrastructure management activities and assesses potential risks of the activities
- CClassifies, organizes, and analyzes all infrastructure management best practices stored in data lakes
- DDetects potential security attacks on a storage infrastructure and deploys specialized tools to eliminate the attacks
34Which EMC product provides automated monitoring and reporting of a software-defined storage infrastructure?
- AViPR SRM
- BSnapSure
- CAvamar
- DFAST VP
35What is an example of an availability management task in storage infrastructure management?
- ADesigning a new replication solution for data redundancy
- BPerforming trend analysis of storage space consumption
- CTracking configuration changes to storage components
- DSpecifying storage space quotas for users
36Which EMC product enables management for Vblock systems?
- AUnified Infrastructure Manager
- BMirrorView
- CService Assurance Suite
- DViPR SRM
37What is the purpose of monitoring capacity in a storage infrastructure?
- ATracking the amount of storage infrastructure resources used and available
- BEvaluating utilization of components and identifying bottlenecks
- CTracking configuration changes to the storage infrastructure elements
- DIdentifying component failures that may lead to service unavailability
38What is an activity in the risk assessment step of risk management?
- ADetermine the likelihood of a risk
- BPlan and deploy security controls
- CContinuously observe the existing risks
- DIdentify the sources of threats that increase the risks
39Which method is used to establish a VPN connection between a primary and remote data center to perform secure remote replication?
- ASite-to-site VPN connection
- BRemote access VPN connection
- CIntra-site VPN connection
- DLong distance VPN connection
40Which method does an intrusion detection and prevention system (IDPS) use to identify intrusions by scanning and analyzing events to detect if they are statistically different from normal events?
- AAnomaly-based
- BSignature-based
- CProfile-based
- DDevice-based
41Which technique is used in Kerberos to authenticate a client-server application across an insecure network?
- ASecret-key cryptography
- BOne-way hash function
- CShared secret
- DOpenID control
42What is an accurate statement about OpenID control?
- AEnables an organization to use authentication services from an identity provider
- BEnables initiators and targets to authenticate each other by using a shared secret code
- CProvides strong authentication for client-server applications by using secret-key cryptography
- DAllows a client to access protected resources from a resource server on behalf of a resource owner
43What is an accurate statement about OAuth security control?
- AAllows a client to access protected resources from a resource server on behalf of a resource owner
- BProvides strong authentication for client-server applications by using secret-key cryptography
- CEnables initiators and targets to authenticate each other by using a shared secret code
- DEnables an organization to use authentication services from an identity provider
44How do VSANs ensure security in an IT infrastructure?
- ABy providing isolation over a shared infrastructure
- BBy authenticating a new switch that joins a fabric
- CBy limiting the number of switches in a fabric
- DBy prohibiting an unused switch port from being used
45What enables an administrator to create device groups in an IP-SAN for restricting device communications to a group?
- AiSNS discovery domain
- BNIC teaming
- CDemilitarized zone
- DSecurity identifier
46In an FC SAN environment, which security mechanism prevents a switch port from being enabled even after a switch reboot?
- APort locking
- BPort type locking
- CPort binding
- DFabric binding
47In an FC SAN environment, an administrator wants to ensure that a particular switch port cannot function as an E_Port and cannot be used to create an interswitch link. Which security mechanism should the administrator use?
- APort type locking
- BPort binding
- CPersistent port disable
- DFabric binding
48What accurately describes an attack vector in an IT infrastructure?
- ASeries of steps that must be followed in order to complete an attack
- BVarious entry points that can be used to launch an attack
- CAmount of effort required to exploit vulnerabilities in the infrastructure
- DProcess of identifying the system components under attack
49Which attack is carried out by sending a spoofing e-mail and redirecting a user to a false website?
- APhishing
- BMan-in-the-middle
- CDenial-of-service
- DRepudiation
50What is an accurate statement about a denial-of-service attack?
- APrevents legitimate users from accessing resources or services
- BIntentional misuse of privileges to compromise data security
- CGaining unauthorized access to a user’s accounts and data
- DCaptures a user’s credentials and then sends to the attacker
51What is compromised by a passive attack on an IT infrastructure?
- AConfidentiality
- BIntegrity
- CAvailability
- DReplication
52What is an example of an active attack on an IT infrastructure?
- AAttempt to modify information for malicious purposes
- BAttempt to copy the data from the storage system
- CAttempt to gain unauthorized access into the system
- DAttempt to gain access to the data in transit
53What is an accurate statement about hypervisor-based continuous data protection (CDP)?
- AWrite splitter is embedded in the hypervisor
- BJournal is stored in a virtual machine
- CJournal and replica use the same storage volume
- DVirtual appliance runs on a storage system
54What is a benefit of implementing a virtual machine (VM) storage migration?
- ABalances storage utilization by redistributing VMs across different storage systems
- BEnables VMs to keep functioning even if the source data is lost due to a failure
- CImproves the security of applications running inside VMs on the migrated storage system
- DReduces the overall storage system capacity requirements for organizations
55In continuous data protection (CDP) remote replication, where are the two split write I/Os of an incoming write I/O directed?
- AOne I/O goes to the local CDP appliance and the other I/O goes to the production volume
- BOne I/O goes to the compute system and the other I/O goes to the production volume
- COne I/O goes to the remote CDP appliance and the other I/O goes to the replica
- DOne I/O goes to the journal volume and the other I/O goes to the replica
56What determines how far back the recovery points can go in a continuous data protection (CDP) solution?
- AAmount of space that is configured for the journal
- BSize of the CDP appliance used for replication
- CSize of the source and replica volumes
- DType of write splitter used for replication
57What is a benefit of deploying a multi-site storage system-based remote replication solution?
- AEnsures disaster recovery protection remains available in the event of source or remote site failures
- BProvides the capability to recover data to any point-in-time
- CRequires low network bandwidth to perform synchronous replication
- DEnables a consistent near-zero RPO in the event of source and remote site failures
58What is an accurate statement about a virtual machine (VM) snapshot?
- ACaptures the state and data of a running VM at a specific point-in-time
- BProvides the capability to delete the parent VM once the snapshot is created
- CRuns as an independent copy from the parent VM
- DProvides the capability to restore VM data to any point-in-time
59What is an accurate statement about full volume replication?
- ATarget device is at least as large as the source device
- BTarget device requires only a fraction of the space used by the source device
- CTarget device is accessible only after the replication session starts
- DTarget and source devices should be on different storage arrays
60What is determined based on the recovery point objective in an asynchronous remote replication?
- ASize of the buffer
- BSize of the replica
- CResponse time
- DLocation of the source
61What is a benefit of using content addressed storage (CAS) as an archival solution?
- AEnsures content authenticity and integrity
- BSupports location independence using different content IDs for an object
- CProvides the ability to perform production operations on the CAS
- DEnables modification of archived data
62What is an accurate statement about the function of an archiving server?
- AEnables the ability to configure policies for archiving data
- BInstalls agents on the archiving storage device
- CScans the data that can be archived on application servers
- DCreates stub files on an archiving storage device
63What is an accurate statement about the function of an archiving server?
- AEnables the ability to configure policies for archiving data
- BInstalls agents on the archiving storage device
- CScans the data that can be archived on application servers
- DCreates stub files on an archiving storage device
64An organization plans to deploy a deduplication solution by retaining their legacy backup application. They are concerned about the application servers’ performance and a long backup window during backups. Which deduplication solution(s) should be recommended to the organization?
- APost-process
- BSource-based global deduplication
- CVariable-length segment and source-based
- DFixed-length block and source-based
65Which type of storage system is built specifically for storing fixed content?
- AContent addressed storage
- BBlock-based storage
- CFile-based storage
- DUnified storage
66What is an accurate statement about three-way NDMP backup in a NAS environment?
- ABackup device can be shared among multiple NAS heads
- BEach NAS head should have a dedicated backup device
- CBackup data traverses at least three NAS heads before reaching the backup device
- DBackup is performed only when three or more NAS heads are present
67An organization has several virtual machines (VMs) deployed in their data center. The VM files are stored on a block-based storage system. The applications on the VMs are impacted during VM backup because the backup agents on the VMs are consuming a large amount of resources. Which alternate backup solution is recommended to address this issue?
- AImage-based backup
- BThree-way NDMP backup
- CTwo-way NDMP backup
- DTarget-based deduplication backup
68Why is it important for organizations to maintain a copy of data at a remote site?
- AEnsure disaster recovery
- BProvide operational recovery
- CEnsure data archiving to meet regulatory requirements
- DProvide flexibility to use stub files for production operations
69What is an accurate statement about incremental forever backups?
- ARequires only one initial full backup
- BRequires periodic full back ups
- CBackup is not created directly from the production data
- DCopies the data that has changed since the last full back up
70What is an advantage of performing cumulative backups compared to incremental backups for the same data?
- AFacilitates faster restores
- BFacilitates faster backups
- CReduces the storage space required for backups
- DEliminates the need for full backups
71What is a benefit of a “recovery-in-place” backup approach in a virtualized data center?
- AProvides instant recovery of a failed virtual machine
- BReduces the recovery point objective
- CEliminates redundant data during virtual machine backups
- DEliminates the backup window
72Which component is required for a “recovery-in-place” backup approach?
- ADisk-based backup target
- BAgent-based backup client
- CNDMP server
- DData deduplication server
73 What is a function of the NDMP server in an NDMP-based backup approach?
- AReads the data from the storage device and sends the data to the backup device
- BReads the data from the backup server and sends the data to the backup device
- CInstructs the NAS head to start the backup operation
- DInstructs the backup agent on the client to send the data to the backup device
74An organization performs a full back up every Sunday and cumulative back ups on the remaining days. On Thursday, a data corruption occurs that requires a data restoration from the backup copies. How many backup copies are required to perform this restoration?
- A1
- B2
- C3
- D4
75What is an accurate statement about three-way NDMP backup in a NAS environment?
- ABackup data is sent directly from NAS to the backup device
- BBackup data is sent to the backup device through the application servers
- CA dedicated backup device is required for each NAS
- DAll NAS systems should have the same operating environment
76What is a benefit of backing up data to a disk library?
- AProvides improved backup and recovery performance
- BProvides built-in portability to meet offsite requirements
- CSupports the shoe shining effect for improved backup performance
- DPre-configured and dedicated appliance is only used for backups
77What refers to an IT infrastructure's ability to function based on business expectations during its specified time of operations?
- AInformation availability
- BDisaster recovery
- CCompliance adherence
- DBusiness agility
78In which stage of the business continuity planning lifecycle does an organization identify critical business processes and assign recovery priorities?
- AAnalyzing
- BEstablishing objectives
- CDesigning and developing
- DImplementing
79A system has three components and all three components need to be operational for 24 hours; Monday through Friday. During a particular week, failure of component 3 occurred as follows:
Tuesday = 8 AM to 1 PM
Thursday = 5 PM to 10 PM
Friday = 5 AM to 10 AM
What is the mean time between failures on component 3 for that week?- A5
- B35
- C40
- D51
80What is determined by the recovery point objective in a business continuity solution?
- AFrequency of the backup
- BType of backup devices
- CType of disaster recovery site
- DDistance between the primary and disaster recovery sites
81What is an accurate statement about a fabric-provided MAC address (FPMA) used in an FCoE SAN?
- AFCoE switches provide MAC addresses to VN_Ports during node login
- BFC switches provide MAC addresses to VE_Ports dynamically during discovery
- CCompute systems provide MAC addresses to the VF_Ports on FCoE switches
- DBoth VF_Ports and VE_Ports obtain MAC addresses from FC switches
82Which action takes place during the login phase in an FCoE SAN?
- AVN_Ports obtain FC addresses
- BNodes locate the Fibre Channel Forwarder
- CInitialization protocol starts transporting FC data
- DVN_Port to N_Port pairing is established
83What is an accurate statement about VLANs and VSANs in an FCoE environment with an existing FC SAN?
- AA dedicated VLAN must be configured for each VSAN
- BVLANs configured for VSANs must carry regular LAN traffic
- CDefault VLAN must map to all VSANs defined in the FCoE switch
- DA minimum of four VLANs must be created to isolate VSAN traffic
84What is a function of a Fibre Channel Forwarder in an FCoE SAN?
- AApplies zoning configurations and provides fabric services
- BTransfers FCoE traffic over an FC SAN
- CEncapsulates IP packets into FC frames
- DProvides both NIC and FC HBA functionality
85What is a component of an FCoE switch?
- AEthernet Bridge
- BVirtual N_Port
- CConverged Network Adapter
- DFCIP Forwarder
86In an FCoE environment, which functionality provides a framework for the allocation of bandwidth to different network traffic classes?
- AEnhanced transmission selection
- BPriority-based flow control
- CCongestion notification
- DData center bridging exchange protocol
87Which lossless Ethernet functionality helps Converged Enhanced Ethernet (CEE) devices to convey and configure their features with the other CEE devices in the network?
- AData center bridging exchange protocol
- BEnhanced transmission selection
- CPriority-based flow control
- DCongestion notification
88What is a benefit of configuring EX_Ports on each Fibre Channel over IP (FCIP) gateway in an FCIP tunnel implementation?
- AEnables FC-FC routing through the FCIP tunnel without merging the fabrics
- BMerges the fabrics at either end of the FCIP tunnel to create a single large fabric
- CTransfers VSAN tagged traffic over the FCIP tunnel without FC protocol overhead
- DCreates eight virtual FC links on the FCIP tunnel that can be paused and restarted independently
89How does an iSCSI initiator discover its targets?
- AInitiator sends a query to an iSNS server for a list of available targets
- BInitiator receives the iSCSI names of its targets from the primary DNS server
- CInitiator uses the data center bridging exchange protocol for the discovery
- DInitiator sends SCSI commands and the target responds by sending its name
90Which fabric login type occurs between two N_Ports to exchange FC-4 upper layer protocol-related parameters?
- APRLI
- BFLOGI
- CPLOGI
- DWWNN
91Which type of login is performed between an N_Port and an F_Port in a Fibre Channel SAN environment?
- AFLOGI
- BPLOGI
- CPRLI
- DWWNP
92Which fabric login type enables two N_Ports to exchange service parameters to establish a session?
- APLOGI
- BPRLI
- CFLOGI
- DWWPN
93What is a benefit of N_Port virtualization (NPV)?
- AReduces the number of domain IDs in a fabric
- BEliminates the overhead of fabric services in an FC SAN
- CEnables online expansion of virtual volumes
- DAllows an N_Port to transfer multiple VSAN traffic
94What is enabled by the N_Port ID virtualization (NPIV)?
- AA single physical N_Port to obtain multiple FC addresses
- BA single virtual N_Port to act as a physical Ethernet port
- CA virtualization layer to map virtual volumes to LUN IDs
- DA single physical N_Port to act as a virtual HBA port
95What accurately describes the flow control mechanism in an FC SAN?
- ABoth transmitting and receiving ports agree on the number of buffers available during port login
- BNegotiation occurs between an E_Port and an F_Port, and between two N_Ports
- CCredit value is incremented when a frame is transmitted and decremented upon receiving a response
- DReceiver Ready (R_RDY) is sent from the receiving port if available credits reach zero
96What is an accurate statement about VSAN trunking?
- AAllows network traffic from multiple VSANs to traverse a single interswitch link
- BEnables an F_Port to transfer multiple VSAN traffic over a single port channel
- CProvides VSAN IDs to F_Ports to include them in the VSANs
- DForwards FC frames between F_Ports that belong to the same VSAN
97What accurately describes a VSAN?
- AA logical fabric on an FC SAN that enables communication among a group of nodes
- BA logical fabric on an FC SAN that has a 1-to-1 relationship with a zone in the FC SAN
- CA logical fabric across FC SANs that aggregates the FC SANs to create a network pool
- DA logical fabric across FC SANs that allows non-disruptive file mobility between the SANs
98Which fabric service distributes SW-RSCNs to the other switches in a Fibre Channel SAN?
- AFabric controller
- BFabric login server
- CName server
- DFabric management server
99What is a benefit of block-level storage virtualization?
- AEnables the online expansion of virtual volumes
- BEnhances performance by limiting the RSCN traffic
- CImproves security through logical segmentation of block storage devices
- DIncreases scalability through separation of FC addresses across VSANs
100Which data structure enables two node ports to identify and manage a set of information units in a Fibre Channel (FC) SAN?
- AExchange
- BSequence
- CFrame
- DDomain
101What keeps the name server up-to-date on all switches in a fabric?
- ASW-RSCN
- BManagement server
- CZoning
- DFLOGI
102What is a function of the FC-1 layer of the Fibre Channel (FC) protocol stack?
- ADefines data encoding
- BProvides FC addressing
- CDefines the physical interface
- DMaps upper layer protocols to FC layers
103What is a characteristic of software-defined networking?
- AAbstracts and separates the control plane from the data plane
- BData plane sends instructions to the control plane to handle network traffic
- CController in network switches takes over data plane functions
- DExternal software combines both data plane and control plane functions
104What is a benefit of a storage area network (SAN)?
- AEnables compute systems across locations to access shared storage
- BEnsures secure data transmission using only channel technologies
- CEnsures high response times without the protocol overhead
- DEnables consolidation of control and data planes in a single system
105What accurately describes link aggregation in a SAN?
- ACombines two or more parallel interswitch links into a single logical interswitch link
- BAggregates the data transmission rate of all HBA and storage system port pairs
- CConsolidates compute-to-compute traffic and storage traffic into a single interswitch link
- DReplaces multiple parallel interswitch links by a single physical interswitch link
106What is a benefit of link aggregation in a SAN?
- AProvides a higher throughput than a single interswitch link can provide
- BDistributes the network traffic across all virtual SANs, ensuring even virtual SAN utilization
- COptimizes performance by consolidating all interswitch links into a single physical link
- DProvides the flexibility to deploy the same interswitch links for both FC and iSCSI traffic
107Which global addressing does the REST application programming interface use for the discovery of a storage service?
- AUniform Resource Identifier
- BNamespace
- CExtensible Markup Language
- DController-provided MAC address
108What is a function of the metadata manager in a compute-based storage area network (SAN)?
- AControls load balancing and data migration in a compute-based SAN
- BProvides an interface to the software-defined storage controller
- CControls all data read and write operations in a compute-based SAN
- DPerforms the I/O operations on the local storage of a compute system as requested by a client
109Which component of a software-defined storage (SDS) environment enables integration with external monitoring tools?
- AREST API
- BMetadata service
- CSDS web service
- DStorage agent
110Which component of a software-defined storage (SDS) environment manages and provisions storage?
- ASDS controller
- BREST API
- CSDS web service
- DStorage agent
111Which EMC product provides a software-defined storage platform to create a compute-based storage area network?
- AScaleIO
- BXtremIO
- CIsilon
- DAtmos
112Which EMC product provides a software-defined storage platform that supports object storage services?
- AElastic Cloud Storage
- BViPR Controller
- CScaleIO
- DXtremIO
113Which EMC product provides a software-defined platform that supports both block and file storage services?
- AXtremIO
- BElastic Cloud Storage
- CScaleIO
- DViPR Controller
114Which feature of an object-based storage system abstracts and provides a common view of storage independent of location to applications?
- AGlobal namespace
- BFlexible data access
- CMulti-tenancy
- DScale-out architecture
115Which EMC product is a hyper-scale storage infrastructure that provides universal accessibility with support for object and HDFS?
- AECS Appliance
- BXtremIO
- CData Domain
- DCentera
116Which LUN expansion technique provides both capacity expansion and performance improvement?
- AStriped metaLUN
- BPartitioned metaLUN
- CVirtual metaLUN
- DConcatenated metaLUN
117Which type of LUN provides full control for precise data placement and allows an administrator to create LUNs on different RAID sets if there is workload contention?
- ATraditional
- BThin
- CJournal
- DBitmap
118What is an accurate statement about a hardware RAID implementation?
- AUses a specialized hardware controller installed on a storage array
- BUses CPU cycles of a compute system to perform RAID calculations
- CRequires a RAID controller and operating system to be compatible
- DOffers a low-cost solution for providing disk protection
119What is an accurate statement about a software RAID implementation?
- AUses CPU cycles of a compute system to perform RAID calculations
- BSupports the upgrade of RAID software on incompatible O/S
- CUses a specialized hardware controller to perform RAID calculations
- DSupports all RAID levels
120An application generates 8400 small random I/Os at peak workloads with a read/write ratio of 2:1. What is the disk load at peak activity for a RAID 1/0 configuration?
- A5600
- B11200
- C16800
- D22400
121Which solid state drive component performs write coalescing?
- AController
- BI/O interface
- CNon-volatile memory
- DCache
122What accurately describes the seek time of a disk drive?
- ATime taken to position the read/write head over the correct track
- BTime taken by the platter to position the data under the read/write head
- CTime taken to read a block of data from the platter
- DTime taken by the controller to service an I/O from the application
123An organization plans to deploy a new application in their environment. The new application requires 3 TB of storage space. During peak workloads, the application is expected to generate 2450 IOPS with a typical I/O size of 2 KB. The capacity of each available disk drive is 500 GB. The maximum number of IOPS a drive can perform at with 70 percent utilization is 90 IOPS. What is the minimum number of disk drives needed to meet the application’s capacity and performance requirements given a RAID 0 configuration?
- A6
- B16
- C25
- D28
124An organization plans to deploy a new application in their environment. The new application requires 2 TB of storage space. During peak workloads, the application is expected to generate 9800 IOPS with a typical I/O size of 4 KB. The capacity of each available disk drive is 250 GB. The maximum number of IOPS a drive can perform at with 70 percent utilization is 90 IOPS. What is the minimum number of disk drives needed to meet the application’s capacity and performance requirements given a RAID 0 configuration
- A8
- B70
- C110
- D140
125What improves the performance of multi-threaded large block I/O workloads on a solid state drive?
- AParallel I/O channels
- BI/O coalescing
- CNative command queuing
- DHigh capacity RAM cache
126What is an accurate statement about a logical volume in a compute system?
- ACan span across multiple physical volumes
- BCan only be created from a single physical volume
- CMust be created across multiple volume groups
- DAllows multiple file systems to run concurrently
127What is a function of a virtual machine manager?
- AAbstracts physical hardware and presents it to a virtual machine
- BSends resource requests from multiple virtual machines to the hypervisor kernel
- CMaps the virtual machine hardware to the hypervisor kernel
- DPresents resource requests from a virtual machine directly to physical hardware
128What is an accurate statement about a virtual desktop infrastructure?
- AEach user is provided a dedicated desktop VM with its own operating system and applications
- BOperating system and applications hosted on a client system are shared by multiple users
- CEach user has an individual desktop session on the remote compute system in which applications execute
- DOperating system and applications on the remote desktop are downloaded on the client for local execution
129What is an accurate statement about the application streaming technique of application virtualization?
- AApplication is downloaded in portions on the client for local execution
- BApplication executes remotely and its user interface is transmitted to the client
- CApplication executes on the client without the use of a locally-installed agent
- DApplication is converted into a standalone package that directly executes on the client
130What is a benefit of application virtualization?
- AAvoids conflicts between different versions of the same application
- BEnables an application to directly access a LUN on a storage system
- CRuns applications without requiring the use of cache memory
- DPresents more memory to an application than is physically available
131Which process groups multiple physical drives and presents them to a compute system as a single logical volume?
- AConcatenation
- BPartitioning
- CStriping
- DOrchestration
132Which VMware product provides a network virtualization platform for a software-defined data center?
- ANSX
- BEXi
- CHorizon
- DAirWatch
133Which product provides an integrated IT infrastructure solution for data center deployment by combining IT resources into a single package?
- AVCE Vblock
- BEMC VPLEX
- CEMC ViPR
- DVMware vCloud
134What is a function of the orchestration layer in a data center infrastructure?
- AProvides workflows for automated execution of management tasks
- BAggregates physical infrastructure components into resource pools
- CMeasures the consumption of IT resources by various services
- DDecouples an operating environment from the underlying hardware
135What is a benefit of using converged infrastructure for building a data center?
- AReduces the time to acquire and deploy the infrastructure
- BProvides the flexibility to purchase individual IT components
- CIntegrates existing IT components into the infrastructure
- DOffers the flexibility to change vendors and prevent vendor lock-in
136Which capability is provided by a software-defined storage controller?
- AAbility to pool and abstract physical storage and present it as an open storage platform
- BAbility for multiple operating systems to run concurrently on a single physical compute system
- CMechanisms to automatically create application programming interfaces for centralized management
- DSingle self-contained package with integrated hardware and software components
137What is an accurate statement about a data lake?
- AStores data as an exact or near-exact copy of the source format
- BSupports query and analysis by classifying and organizing data before storing
- CStores current and historical data in a structured format on object-based storage
- DProvides a single consistent view of data across an organization for report generation
138What does the transformation of an operating model for third platform adoption involve?
- AProvisioning IT resources through a self-service portal
- BEstablishing new roles and responsibilities to manage IT services
- CAdopting virtualization technologies to enable automation
- DBuilding new technical and business skills in the IT staff
139What is signified by the “variety” characteristic of big data?
- AData is generated in different formats by numerous sources
- BMeaning of the data changes constantly
- CVarying data quality affects its reliability and accuracy
- DData change rate affects its timely analysis
140What is signified by the “variability” characteristic of big data?
- AMeaning of the data changes constantly
- BData is generated in different formats by numerous sources
- CData change rate affects its timely analysis
- DVarying data quality affects its reliability and accuracy
141Which capability does big data analytics provide?
- AEnabling data-driven decisions from large volumes of data
- BStoring large volumes of data without affecting availability
- CReducing the data storage capacity requirement
- DPerforming analytics using traditional tools
142What is an accurate statement about Platform as a Service?
- AConsumer has control over the deployed applications
- BConsumer has control over the operating system and database management system
- CConsumer has control over the programming languages and tools
- DConsumer has control over the operating system and storage
143What is an accurate statement about Infrastructure as a Service?
- AConsumer has control over the operating systems and the deployed applications
- BConsumer only has control over user-specific application configuration settings
- CConsumer has control over network devices, compute systems, and storage systems
- DConsumer only has control over the configuration settings of the application-hosting environment
144Which cloud computing characteristic enables multi-tenancy and abstracts the location of provided resources?
- AResource pooling
- BMeasured service
- CRapid elasticity
- DBroad network access
145Which benefit does the measured service characteristic provide to a cloud service provider
- AEnables control and optimization of resource use
- BEnables cloud services to communicate with each other
- CEnables availability of specific resources depending on policy
- DEnables the reduction and/or elimination of upfront IT expenditure
146A start-up company with a limited budget is planning to adopt a hybrid cloud solution for their operations. The company has business-critical applications that serve customers and have strict service levels. In addition, the company has less critical applications such as backup and archive. Which hybrid cloud strategy should be recommended to the company?
- ADeploy the business-critical applications on an externally-hosted private cloud. Deploy the less critical applications on a public cloud.
- BDeploy the business-critical applications on an on-premise private cloud. Deploy the less critical applications on an externally-hosted private cloud.
- CDeploy the business-critical applications on an on-premise private cloud. Deploy the less critical applications on a public cloud.
- DDeploy the business-critical applications on an externally-hosted private cloud. Deploy the less critical applications on an on-premise private cloud.
147What is an accurate statement about Software as a Service?
- AConsumer has limited control over user-specific application configuration settings
- BConsumer has control over the operating systems and deployed applications
- CConsumer has control over the configuration settings of the application-hosting environment
- DConsumer has limited control over select networking components, such as host firewalls
148What is an accurate statement about a hybrid cloud?
- ASupports data and application portability for load balancing between clouds
- BAllows organizations with common concerns to share the cost of deploying the cloud
- CEnables the entire cloud infrastructure to be controlled by the consumer’s IT staff
- DAllows an organization to outsource the implementation of a private cloud to a cloud provider
149Which data center characteristic ensures that data is stored and retrieved exactly as it was received?
- ADATA INTEGRITY
- BSECURITY
- CSCALABILITY
- DMANAGEABILITY
150What is an accurate statement about Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP) control?
- AEnables initiators and targets to authenticate each other by using a shared secret code
- BProvides strong authentication for client-server applications by using secret-key cryptography
- CAllows a client to access protected resources from a resource server on behalf of a resource owner
- DEnables an organization to use authentication services from an identity provider
151Which elements are associated with an object in an object-based storage system?
- AData, metadata, object ID, and attributes
- BLUN ID, data, metadata, and object ID
- CMetadata, object ID, attributes, and file path
- DObject ID, attributes, LUN ID, and file path
152Which EMC product provides a remote replication solution for EMC VMAX3 storage systems?
- ASRDF
- BSnapSure
- CMirrorView
- DProtectPoint
153Which data access method enables a compute system to access a file system that resides on a storage system?
- AFile-based
- BBlock-based
- CObject-based
- DSector-based
154What is a benefit when a node is added to a scale-out NAS cluster?
- AIncreased cluster performance
- BReduced capital expenditure
- CSimplified cluster management
- DDecreased data duplication
155What is an accurate statement about remote desktop services?
- AOperating system and applications hosted on a remote compute system are shared by multiple users
- BUsers are provided dedicated virtual machines running operating system and applications, and hosted on a client system
- CUsers have the flexibility to install applications and modify operating system settings on the remote compute system
- DUsers' interface of the remote desktop is transmitted to the client without the use of a remote display protocol
156In which data access method does the file system access an iSCSI storage system over a network?
- ABlock-based
- BFile-based
- CObject-based
- DSector-based
157Which cloud service does VMware vCloud Air provide?
- AInfrastructure as a Service
- BPlatform as a Service
- CDatabase as a Service
- DSoftware as a Service
158Which environment is represented in the exhibit?
- AWrite-back cache
- BWrite-through cache
- CRead miss
- DRead hit
159What is an advantage of a software-based object storage implementation?
- AProvides the flexibility to reuse the existing infrastructure
- BRequires less storage capacity tostore a large number of objects
- CProvides the flexibility to create more than one object ID for an object
- DRequires less hardware to support scalable architecture
160What is an accurate statement about the application presentation technique of application virtualization?
- AApplication executes remotely and its user interface is transmitted to the client
- BApplication is downloaded in portions on the client for local execution
- CApplication executes on the client without the use of a locally-installed agent
- DApplication is converted into a standalone package that directly executes on the client
161What is an accurate statement about an integrated NAS controller?
- AContains a specialized operating system dedicated to file serving
- BStripes data across multiple NAS systems for data protection
- CAbstracts and pools NAS controllers across multiple NAS systems
- DContains an FC Forwarder that is optimized for file sharing functions
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- Quiz sobre Sem título, criado por ia vnua em 22-12-2016.
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- ia vnua
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