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SAIT 4th Class Power Eng Part A II

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4th Class Part A II

Questão 1 de 142

1

Electrical circuit insulation:

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Will never break down or deteriorate

  • Requires replacement after 10 years

  • Will deteriorate due to high temperatures

  • Will not burn

Explicação

Questão 2 de 142

1

Under the Canadian Electrical Code, if an area contains dust in the air, under normal operation conditions, in concentrations high enough to produce explosive or ignitable mixtures, the electrical equipment must be designed safe for use in an area classification of:

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Class I, Division I

  • Class I, Division II

  • Class II, Division I

  • Class II, Division II

Explicação

Questão 3 de 142

1

A common cause of an electrical fire is:

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Allowing motors or conductors to stay dry, unless designed for wet locations

  • Prematurely replacing deteriorated wiring

  • Following too closely to the Electrical Code when installing electrical equipment

  • Replacing burned fuses with ones of a higher rating

Explicação

Questão 4 de 142

1

Which one of the following maintenance procedures is not a concern with preventing fires in electrical equipment?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Allowing the accumulation of dust on a motor since this buildup will prevent heat from escaping, thus keeping the motor warm in cold ambient conditions

  • Keeping electrical equipment dry unless designed for wet locations

  • Using the equipment designed for the application

  • Checking any aluminum connections frequently for tightness and presence of corrosion

Explicação

Questão 5 de 142

1

Electrical connections:

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • need only make contact, they need not be tight

  • will create large amounts of heat if not tight

  • can cause an arc if too tight

  • may operate on overload for specified duration

Explicação

Questão 6 de 142

1

When an electrical fire is discovered:

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • the equipment may be left running if the fire is put out with a C type fire extinguisher

  • the equipment should be de-energized as quickly as possible

  • the equipment should be left running until a backup power supply is available

  • the equipment may be immediately restarted once the fire is extinguished

Explicação

Questão 7 de 142

1

The best type of fire extinguisher to use on a live electrical fire is a:

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • pressurized water extinguisher

  • dry chemical extinguisher

  • purple K extinguisher

  • carbon dioxide extinguisher

Explicação

Questão 8 de 142

1

The temperature of the carbon dioxide leaving the extinguisher horn can be as low as:

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • 0 degrees C

  • -30 degrees C

  • -60 degrees C

  • -80 degrees C

Explicação

Questão 9 de 142

1

During annual turnaround of a facility it is highly recommended that:

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • all fuses in the electrical system be replaced

  • aluminium wiring be replaced

  • all electrical panels be checked for tightness and corrosion

  • all circuit breakers be disassembled and cleaned

Explicação

Questão 10 de 142

1

According to the Canadian Electrical Code, hazardous locations, for electrical equipment, are divided into three classes, depending on:

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • the type of hazardous material involved.

  • the capacity of electrical equipment involved.

  • the type of fire extinguishers available

  • pressure

Explicação

Questão 11 de 142

1

Dry chemical can form a conducting path to ground if:

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • the air is dry.

  • any moisture is present.

  • it is directed at the base of the flame.

  • it is non-conductive.

Explicação

Questão 12 de 142

1

Switches and circuit breakers which are to be installed in an atmosphere where flammable vapours may continually exist shall be:

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • installed in a sealed compartment.

  • be explosion proof.

  • electrically insulated.

  • of an ABSA approved design.

Explicação

Questão 13 de 142

1

A fire may be caused by an electrical arc, which may originate due to:

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Closing an electrical breaker.

  • Shutting down a motor too quickly.

  • Low voltage at a generator.

  • A loose electrical connection.

Explicação

Questão 14 de 142

1

According to the Canadian Electrical Code, an area in which easily ignited material fibers, capable of producing combustible flyings, are handled or manufactured is designated as:

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Class 1, Division 1

  • Class 1, Division 2

  • Class 2, Division 2

  • Class 3, Division 1

Explicação

Questão 15 de 142

1

Under the Canadian Electrical Code, if an area contains hazardous concentrations of flammable gases or vapours under normal operating conditions, electrical equipment must be designed for use in the area, which is designated as:

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Class 1, Division 1

  • Class 1, Division 2

  • Class 2, Division 2

  • Class 3, Division 1

Explicação

Questão 16 de 142

1

Under the Canadian Electrical Code, an area in which the atmosphere contains dust in concentrations high enough to produce explosive or ignitable mixtures, is designated as:

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Class 1, Division 1

  • Class 2, Division 1

  • Class 1, Division 2

  • Class 3, Division 1

Explicação

Questão 17 de 142

1

Under the Canadian Electrical Code, if an area contains hazardous concentrations of flammable gases or vapours but are normally confined in containers, electrical equipment must be designed for use in the area, which is designated as:

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Class 1, Division 1

  • Class 1, Division 2

  • Class 2, Division 2

  • Class 3, Division 2

Explicação

Questão 18 de 142

1

Under the Canadian Electrical Code, an area in which the atmosphere contains dust not normally in suspension in the air in quantities sufficient to produce explosive or ignitable mixtures, is designated as:

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Class 2, Division 2

  • Class 2, Division 1

  • Class 1, Division 2

  • Class 3, Division 1

Explicação

Questão 19 de 142

1

According to the Canadian Electrical Code, an area in which easily ignited material fibers, are stored or handled, but are not processed is designated as:

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Class 3, Division 1

  • Class 3, Division 2

  • Class 1, Division 2

  • Class 2, Division 2

Explicação

Questão 20 de 142

1

Heat produced by a current is calculated by:

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • I*R

  • R^2*I

  • I^2*R

  • I^2*R^2

Explicação

Questão 21 de 142

1

When the power has been cut off from an electrical fire, it becomes what class?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Class A

  • Class B

  • Class C

  • Class A, B or a combination of both

Explicação

Questão 22 de 142

1

Hand held models of carbon dioxide extinguishers range from __ to __ kg

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • 2.2 to 9

  • 2.1 to 9

  • 2.2 to 10

  • 2.1 to 10

Explicação

Questão 23 de 142

1

When did Alberta enacted the boiler and pressure vessel safety act?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • 1898

  • 1951

  • 1942

  • 1899

Explicação

Questão 24 de 142

1

When did Saskatchewan enacted the boiler and pressure vessel safety act?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • 1898

  • 1952

  • 1941

  • 1899

Explicação

Questão 25 de 142

1

When did Northwest Territories enacted the boiler and pressure vessel safety act?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • 1898

  • 1951

  • 1942

  • 1899

Explicação

Questão 26 de 142

1

When did Nova Scotia enacted the boiler and pressure vessel safety act?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • 1898

  • 1951

  • 1942

  • 1899

Explicação

Questão 27 de 142

1

When did British Columbia enacted the boiler and pressure vessel safety act?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • 1898

  • 1951

  • 1942

  • 1899

Explicação

Questão 28 de 142

1

The equivalent of 103 kPa in psi is ____.

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • 15

  • 30

  • 60

  • 22

Explicação

Questão 29 de 142

1

A "power plant" may mean one or more boilers in which steam or other vapour is generated at a pressure greater than ____.

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • 103 kpa

  • 30 psi

  • 1034 kpa

  • 121 psi

Explicação

Questão 30 de 142

1

A "power plant" may mean one or more boilers containing liquid at a working pressure greater than ____ and/or a temperature exceeding ____.

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • 1100 kPa, 121 degrees C

  • 103 kPa, 121 degrees C

  • 1034 kPa, 130 degrees C

  • 103 kPa, 230 degrees C

Explicação

Questão 31 de 142

1

A Fourth Class power engineer may act as chief steam engineer in a power plant of capacity not more than ______.

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • 1000 kW

  • 100 kW

  • 5000 kW

  • 10,000 kW

Explicação

Questão 32 de 142

1

A Fourth Class power engineer may act as chief steam engineer in a power plant consisting of one or more coil-type drumless boilers, of aggregate capacity not more than ______, when used for the sole purpose of underground thermal flooding of oil fields.

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • 1000 kW

  • 5000 kW

  • 10,000 kW

  • 500 kW

Explicação

Questão 33 de 142

1

A Fourth Class power engineer may act as shift engineer in a power plant of capacity not more than ______.

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • 1000 kW

  • 5000 kW

  • 10,000 kW

  • 100 kW

Explicação

Questão 34 de 142

1

A Fourth Class power engineer may act as shift engineer in a power plant consisting of one or more coil-type drumless boilers, of aggregate capacity not more than ______, when used for the sole purpose of underground thermal flooding of oil fields.

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • 1000 kW

  • 10,000 kW

  • 5000 kW

  • 200 kW

Explicação

Questão 35 de 142

1

A Fourth Class power engineer may act as assistant engineer, under supervision of the shift engineer, in a power plant of capacity not more than ______.

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • 1000 kW

  • 10,000 kW

  • 5000 kW

  • 500 kW

Explicação

Questão 36 de 142

1

A Fourth Class power engineer may take charge of the general care and operation of a power plant having a capacity of not more than ________ and operating at a pressure not more than _______.

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • 5000 kW, 140 kPa

  • 1000 kW, 103 kPa

  • 10,000 kW, 30 psi

  • 500 kW, 15 psi

Explicação

Questão 37 de 142

1

Which code regulates mechanical refrigeration?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • CSA B52

  • CSA B51

  • ASME Section II

  • ASME Section VI

Explicação

Questão 38 de 142

1

Which CSA code is entitled Boiler, Pressure Vessel and Pressure Piping Code?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • CSA B52

  • CSA B51

  • ASME Section III

  • ASME Section VI

Explicação

Questão 39 de 142

1

Which ASME code section relates to power boilers?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Section I

  • Section IV

  • Section VI

  • Section II

Explicação

Questão 40 de 142

1

Which ASME code section relates to materials?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Section II

  • Section I

  • Section III

  • Section V

Explicação

Questão 41 de 142

1

Which ASME code section relates to construction of nuclear power components?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Section VI

  • Section III

  • Section IV

  • Section I

Explicação

Questão 42 de 142

1

Which ASME code section relates to construction of heating boilers?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Section V

  • Section VII

  • Section IV

  • Section I

Explicação

Questão 43 de 142

1

Which ASME code section relates to nondestructive examination?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Section V

  • Section III

  • Section II

  • Section VI

Explicação

Questão 44 de 142

1

Which ASME code section relates to care and operation of heating boilers?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Section VII

  • Section II

  • Section IV

  • Section VI

Explicação

Questão 45 de 142

1

Which ASME code section relates to care of power boilers?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Section VII

  • Section XI

  • Section VIII

  • Section V

Explicação

Questão 46 de 142

1

Which ASME code section relates to construction of pressure vessels?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Section V

  • Section III

  • Section VIII

  • Section I

Explicação

Questão 47 de 142

1

Which ASME code section relates to welding and brazing qualifications?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Section IX

  • Section X

  • Section II

  • Section VI

Explicação

Questão 48 de 142

1

This committee was formed in 1911.

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Boiler and Pressure Vessel Committee

  • ASME

  • ABSA

  • CRN

Explicação

Questão 49 de 142

1

This organization was responsible for forming the Boiler and Pressure Vessel Committee.

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • ASME

  • ABSA

  • CSA

  • CRN

Explicação

Questão 50 de 142

1

This body was formed in 1919.

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • The National Board of Boiler and Pressure Vessel Inspectors.

  • ASME

  • CRN

  • ISO

Explicação

Questão 51 de 142

1

The first province to pass laws relating to boilers and pressure vessels was _________.

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Quebec

  • Alberta

  • Ontario

  • Newfoundland

Explicação

Questão 52 de 142

1

What are the different grades of Pressure Welder's Certificates of Competency?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • A, B and C

  • 1, 2 and 3

  • L, A, J

  • None of the above

Explicação

Questão 53 de 142

1

This critical temperature is the cutoff for a class A compressed gas under WHMIS.

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • 50 Deg C

  • 100 Deg C

  • 0 Deg C

  • -40 Deg C

Explicação

Questão 54 de 142

1

Class A substances in WHMIS are ______________.

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • compressed gas

  • flammable gas

  • flammable liquid

  • combustible liquid

Explicação

Questão 55 de 142

1

Class B substances in WHMIS are ______________.

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • flammable

  • toxic

  • oxidizing

  • all of the above

Explicação

Questão 56 de 142

1

In WHMIS, this is a Class C substance

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • oxidizing

  • flammable

  • toxic

  • compressed gas

Explicação

Questão 57 de 142

1

In WHMIS, this is a Class D substance is

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Oxidizing

  • Toxic

  • flammable

  • compressed gas

Explicação

Questão 58 de 142

1

A liquid is flammable under WHMIS if its flash point is

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • <37.8 Deg C

  • >37.8 Deg C

  • between 37.8 & 93.3 Deg C

  • None of the above

Explicação

Questão 59 de 142

1

A liquid is combustible under WHMIS if its flash point is

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • <37.8 Deg C

  • > 37.8 Deg C

  • between 37.8 and 93.3 Deg C

  • None of the above

Explicação

Questão 60 de 142

1

In WHMIS, a Class E substance is ________.

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • corrosive

  • toxic

  • flammable

  • oxidizing

Explicação

Questão 61 de 142

1

In WHMIS, a Class F substance is _______.

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • hazardously reactive

  • oxidizing

  • flammable

  • compressed gas

Explicação

Questão 62 de 142

1

What is the purpose of HMIRA?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • to protect the secrecy of a manufacturer's formula

  • safety for workers and employers

  • to set legal precedent on hazardous materials

  • all of the above

Explicação

Questão 63 de 142

1

How long does an exemption under HMIRA last?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • 3 years

  • 2 years

  • 1 year

  • 10 years

Explicação

Questão 64 de 142

1

The "fire tetrahedron" includes the four requirements for the _________ mode of combustion.

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • flaming

  • combustion

  • flameless

  • spontaneous

Explicação

Questão 65 de 142

1

The "fire triangle" includes the three requirements for the _________ mode of combustion.

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • flameless

  • flaming

  • oxidizing

  • spontaneous

Explicação

Questão 66 de 142

1

For hydrocarbon gases, flaming combustion will cease if oxygen concentration is lowered to less than _______.

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • 10%

  • 5%

  • 20%

  • 15%

Explicação

Questão 67 de 142

1

Wood may continue to burn in the flameless (glowing) mode, even if oxygen levels drop as low as ___________.

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • 5%

  • 15%

  • 25%

  • 10%

Explicação

Questão 68 de 142

1

The oxygen concentration in air is ________.

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • 21%

  • 20%

  • 10%

  • 100%

Explicação

Questão 69 de 142

1

At an oxygen concentration of 17%, a person will experience ____________.

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • impaired motor coordination

  • death

  • possible unconsiousness

  • difficulty breathing

Explicação

Questão 70 de 142

1

At oxygen concentrations of 10-14%, a person will experience _____________ and ___________________.

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • impaired judgement, fatigue

  • impaired motor coordination, difficulty breathing

  • loss of consciousness, death

  • all of the above

Explicação

Questão 71 de 142

1

At oxygen concentration less than 10%, and individual will __________________.

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • lose consciousness

  • die

  • become sick

  • lose sight

Explicação

Questão 72 de 142

1

How is the vapour density of a product determined?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • It is the ratio of the weight of a product's vapour to the weight of air.

  • It is the ratio of the weight of a product's vapour to the specifc gravity.

  • It is the ratio of the weight of a product's vapour to the molar mass.

  • It is the ratio of the weight of a product's vapour to oxygen.

Explicação

Questão 73 de 142

1

How is the rate of evaporation of a product determined?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • It is the ratio of the evaporation rate of a product to the evaporation rate of normal air.

  • It is the ratio of the evaporation rate of a product to the evaporation rate of hydrogen.

  • It is the ratio of the evaporation rate of a product to the evaporation rate of normal Butyl acetate.

  • It is the ratio of the evaporation rate of a product to the evaporation rate of isopropol alcohol.

Explicação

Questão 74 de 142

1

How is the specific gravity of a product determined?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • It is the ratio of the weight of a volume of a controlled product to the weight of an equal volume of air at a specified temperature.

  • It is the ratio of the weight of a volume of a controlled product to the weight of an equal volume of hydrogen at a specified temperature.

  • It is the ratio of the weight of a volume of a controlled product to the weight of an equal volume of oxygen at a specified temperature.

  • It is the ratio of the weight of a volume of a controlled product to the weight of air at a specified temperature.

Explicação

Questão 75 de 142

1

What is the vapour density of propane?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • 1.6 (it falls in air)

  • 1.6 (it rises in air)

  • 0.8 (it falls in air)

  • 0.8 (it rises in air)

Explicação

Questão 76 de 142

1

What is the specific gravity of iron?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • 7.5 (it will sink in water)

  • 10 (it will sink in water)

  • 0.75 (it will rise in water)

  • 75 (it will sink in water)

Explicação

Questão 77 de 142

1

What is the specific gravity of gasoline?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • 0.8 (it will float on water)

  • 8 (it will float on water)

  • 80 (it will sink on water)

  • 8 (it will sink on water)

Explicação

Questão 78 de 142

1

A self-contained breathing apparatus has a cylinder charged to a pressure of _______________.

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • 31.03 MPa

  • 5 MPa

  • 103 MPa

  • 62.06 MPa

Explicação

Questão 79 de 142

1

Early government involvement in certification of power engineers became more important for the following reasons
except:

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • efficiency

  • labour mobility

  • safety

  • pollution

Explicação

Questão 80 de 142

1

When oil mixes with water in the boiler the resultant effect

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • foaming

  • filming

  • an interface

  • scaling

Explicação

Questão 81 de 142

1

Committees which establish standards are composed primarily
of which of the following elements?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • experts from the industry, professional and insurance
    groups and all levels of government

  • only multi-National power corporations

  • one independent safety and standardisation board

  • only experts from the industry and government

Explicação

Questão 82 de 142

1

Which of the following duties is a holder of a Fourth Class
Engineer's Certificate of Competency not qualified to
perform?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Take charge of the general care and operation of a power
    plant consisting of one or more coil type drumless boilers having an aggregate capacity not over 5,000 kW,when only in use for the purpose of subterranean thermal flooding in oil fields, as chief engineer.

  • Take charge of a shift in a power plant having a capacity
    of MORE than 10,000 kW, as shift engineer.

  • Take charge of the general care and operation of a powerplant having a capacity of not more than 1,000 kW as
    chief steam engineer, and to supervise the engineers in that plant.

  • Take charge of a shift in a power plant consisting of one or more coil type drumless boilers having an aggregate capacity of not more than 10,000 kW, when used only for underground thermal flooding in oil fields, as shift engineer.

Explicação

Questão 83 de 142

1

Which of the following is a symbol for a unit of luminous intensity?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • au

  • lux

  • cd

  • lumen

Explicação

Questão 84 de 142

1

A pascal is equal to

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • 1 joule

  • 1 N/ m^2

  • 1 kg/ cm^2

  • 1 kg/ m^2

Explicação

Questão 85 de 142

1

One watt is equal to

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • 1 pascal/m2

  • 1 N/m2

  • 1 joule/second

  • 1 kilojoule/minute

Explicação

Questão 86 de 142

1

A gear wheel 65 cm in diameter revolving at 225 r/min drives a wheel 85 cm in diameter. What is the speed of the second
gear?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • 172.06 r/min

  • 344 r/min

  • 294 r/min

  • 1.1 r/min

Explicação

Questão 87 de 142

1

Washing steam should enter a tank car or tank truck slowly so as to

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • prevent injury to the worker

  • prevent massive condensation of the steam within the tank

  • flush the tank gradually

  • reduce the risk of static electricity spark

Explicação

Questão 88 de 142

1

The explosion of a flammable mixture that occurred at the exact time a valve was opened was likely due to the

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • pyrophoric effect

  • static electric charge buildup

  • catalytic effect of the fresh metallic surface

  • temperature of the mixture

Explicação

Questão 89 de 142

1

What is Methane's lower and upper flammable limits?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • 5.0 to 15.0 %

  • 2.2 to 9.5 %

  • 1.9 to 8.5 %

  • 1.1 to 7.5 %

Explicação

Questão 90 de 142

1

What is Propane's lower and upper flammable limits?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • 5.0 to 15.0 %

  • 2.2 to 9.5 %

  • 1.9 to 8.5 %

  • 1.1 to 7.5 %

Explicação

Questão 91 de 142

1

What is Butane's lower and upper flammable limits?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • 5.0 to 15.0 %

  • 2.2 to 9.5 %

  • 1.9 to 8.5 %

  • 1.1 to 7.5 %

Explicação

Questão 92 de 142

1

What is Gasoline's lower and upper flammable limits?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • 5.0 to 15.0 %

  • 2.2 to 9.5 %

  • 1.9 to 8.5 %

  • 1.1 to 7.5 %

Explicação

Questão 93 de 142

1

What is Kerosene's lower and upper flammable limits?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • 0.7 to 5.0 %

  • 2.2 to 9.5 %

  • 1.9 to 8.5 %

  • 1.1 to 7.5 %

Explicação

Questão 94 de 142

1

What is Hydrogen Sulphide's lower and upper flammable limits?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • 0.7 to 5.0 %

  • 4.3 to 45.5 %

  • 1.9 to 8.5 %

  • 1.1 to 7.5 %

Explicação

Questão 95 de 142

1

What is butane's flash point?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • -60 Deg

  • -45 Deg

  • 58 Deg

  • 49 Deg

Explicação

Questão 96 de 142

1

What is gasoline's flash point?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • -60 Deg C

  • -45 Deg C

  • 54 Deg C

  • 49 Deg C

Explicação

Questão 97 de 142

1

What is 2-D diesel fuel's flash point?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • -60 Deg C

  • -45 Deg C

  • 58 Deg C

  • 49 Deg C

Explicação

Questão 98 de 142

1

What is Denatured alcohol's flash point?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • -60 Deg C

  • -45 Deg C

  • 58 Deg C

  • 49 Deg C

Explicação

Questão 99 de 142

1

What is Methane's Ignition Temperature?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • 650 Deg C

  • 480 Deg C

  • 490 Deg C

  • 295 Deg C

Explicação

Questão 100 de 142

1

What is Propane's Ignition Temperature?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • 650 Deg C

  • 490 Deg C

  • 480 Deg C

  • 295 Deg C

Explicação

Questão 101 de 142

1

What is Natural gasoline's Ignition Temperature?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • 650 Deg C

  • 490 Deg C

  • 480 Deg C

  • 295 Deg C

Explicação

Questão 102 de 142

1

What is Kerosene's Ignition Temperature?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • 650 Deg C

  • 490 Deg C

  • 480 Deg C

  • 295 Deg C

Explicação

Questão 103 de 142

1

What is Fuel oil's Ignition Temperature?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • 340 Deg C

  • 490 Deg C

  • 480 Deg C

  • 295 Deg C

Explicação

Questão 104 de 142

1

What is Hydrogen Sulphide's Ignition Temperature?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • 650 Deg C

  • 260 Deg C

  • 480 Deg C

  • 295 Deg C

Explicação

Questão 105 de 142

1

What is Gasoline's Autoignition Temperature?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • 257 Deg C

  • 210 Deg C

  • 571 Deg C

  • 500 Deg C

Explicação

Questão 106 de 142

1

What is Diesel's Autoignition Temperature?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • 257 Deg C

  • 210 Deg C

  • 571 Deg C

  • 500 Deg C

Explicação

Questão 107 de 142

1

What is Jet Fuel's Autoignition Temperature?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • 257 Deg C

  • 210 Deg C

  • 571 Deg C

  • 500 Deg C

Explicação

Questão 108 de 142

1

What is Hydrogen's Autoignition Temperature?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • 257 Deg C

  • 210 Deg C

  • 571 Deg C

  • 500 Deg C

Explicação

Questão 109 de 142

1

What is Butane's Autoignition Temperature?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • 257 Deg C

  • 210 Deg C

  • 571 Deg C

  • 500 Deg C

Explicação

Questão 110 de 142

1

Before pouring a flammable liquid from a dispensing container into a receiving container, the containers must be?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • At equal temperatures

  • Bonded together

  • The same size

  • All of the above

Explicação

Questão 111 de 142

1

Loading a product having a high flash point after a load of a product having a low flash point is called?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • High to low loading

  • Flash point loading

  • Switch loading

  • None of the above

Explicação

Questão 112 de 142

1

Which one is NOT a procedure of loading and unloading hydrocarbon fluids?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Hand brake and wheels must be chocked on the railway car

  • Washing steam should enter the tank slowly to reduce the risk

  • Grounding connections must be in good condition

  • Trucks don't need to be grounded when the loading spout is inserted.

Explicação

Questão 113 de 142

1

Which one is NOT a procedure of loading and unloading hydrocarbon fluids?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Compartments don't need to be inspected if the product being loaded is different from the previous load

  • To prevent switch loading compartments should be purged with carbon dioxide

  • Deflector should be installed on a loading spout

  • One minute before withdrawing the spout after loading a tank.

Explicação

Questão 114 de 142

1

One minute before withdrawing the spout after loading a tank.

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Deflector should be installed on a loading spout

  • At least five minutes after loading samples must not be obtained

  • One minute before withdrawing the spout after loading a tank.

  • Compartments need to be inspected if the product being loaded is different from the previous load

Explicação

Questão 115 de 142

1

Which one is NOT a procedure of handling LPG?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Truck or Tank car must contain air before being loaded

  • Containers must be designed for the right type of LPG product being transported

  • Before loading a check should be made to ensure liquids from a previous load are not present

  • LPG containers should never be filled completely.

Explicação

Questão 116 de 142

1

Which one is NOT a procedure of handling LPG?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Outages left in LPG containers must conform to local regulations.

  • Loading hoses must be hydro statically tested every two years.

  • Container must be not over pressured

  • Before loading LPG the correct type of product must be verified

Explicação

Questão 117 de 142

1

Transport tanks carrying LPG should be level before loading and unloading because?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • It is easier to load and unload the LPG

  • Ensure relief valve connection is not flooded

  • Both of the above

  • None of the above

Explicação

Questão 118 de 142

1

Which one is NOT a procedure of Tank Gaugers?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • If hydrogen sulphide might be present, three workers should be assigned to the job

  • Tanks should not be gauged when thunderstorms are approaching

  • Defects in ladders and stairways should be reported

  • Thief ropes or cords, may be allowed in some situations

Explicação

Questão 119 de 142

1

In gauging procedures allow how much time for the static charge to be reduced after a tank has been filled?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • 10 minutes

  • 20 minutes

  • 30 minutes

  • 40 minutes

Explicação

Questão 120 de 142

1

In gauging procedures how much should you open the hatch to allow pressurized vapour to escape?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • 1 cm

  • 1.5 cm

  • 2 cm

  • 2.5 cm

Explicação

Questão 121 de 142

1

In mobile storage tanks, a vapour space must be left because?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Liquid expands due to a temperature increase

  • Liquid explodes due to a temperature increase

  • Both of the above

  • None of the above

Explicação

Questão 122 de 142

1

What method is used to determine the quantity loaded into the transport?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Read the rotary gauge on the side of the tank

  • Weighing the unit before and after filling

  • Using temperature - corrected meters

  • All of the above

Explicação

Questão 123 de 142

1

What is an outage in reference to LPG?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Space left above the surface of the liquid

  • Amount of liquid left

  • Temperature of the liquid

  • None of the above

Explicação

Questão 124 de 142

1

The term LD50 refers to:

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • lethal dose which results in death of 50% of the test population

  • lethal concentration which resulted in death of 50% of the test population

  • lethal concentration diluted to half strength and supplied to the test population

  • legal exposure in which 50% of the test population survived

Explicação

Questão 125 de 142

1

The CEL of H2S is

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • 100 ppm

  • 20 ppm

  • 10 ppm

  • 15 ppm

Explicação

Questão 126 de 142

1

A factor that has a large impact on the outcome of a worker's post accident recovery is

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • pre-accident safety record

  • attitude before and after the accident

  • lifestyle off the job

  • support received from the immediate family

Explicação

Questão 127 de 142

1

Individual responsibilities for health and safety must be borne by

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • management only

  • employees only

  • owners only

  • all persons in the workplace

Explicação

Questão 128 de 142

1

The highest proportion of injuries are reported by employees in the age group of

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • 26 to 35 years

  • 16 to 25 years

  • 36 to 45 years

  • 46 to 55 years

Explicação

Questão 129 de 142

1

When contractors are involved at the site of an incident the contractor with the most control is called the

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • principle contractor

  • general contractor

  • sub-contractor

  • building contractor

Explicação

Questão 130 de 142

1

During an injury related investigation by an Occupational Health and Safety officer, work being done at the site may be suspended:

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • indefinitely

  • until the officer arrives at the scene

  • for a maximum of 48 hours

  • until any serious safety hazards are corrected

Explicação

Questão 131 de 142

1

The maximum penalty for an OH&S offence is

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • $150,000.00 fine

  • one year in jail

  • 500,000.00 fine and/or one year in jail

  • $300,000.00 fine and one year in jail

Explicação

Questão 132 de 142

1

Confined space entry rules apply where the work in progress may cause

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • too much noise to withstand

  • equipment being used to become a hazard

  • the worker to refuse to perform his job

  • moisture vapours to be released in the atmosphere

Explicação

Questão 133 de 142

1

A confined space may easily become a

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • difficult place in which to maneuver

  • breeding ground for biohazardous infectious substances

  • life threatening environment

  • healthy environment

Explicação

Questão 134 de 142

1

Before entering any confined space, it is good practice to

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • verify the operator's isolation points though the Plant Safety Committee

  • estimate how long you will be there

  • inform the Plant Manager of your whereabouts

  • plan the entry using a confounded entry space check list

Explicação

Questão 135 de 142

1

Which of the following is not an item that must be considered when vessel entry permits are prepared?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Is the required oxygen level measured and assured (minimum level of 20% O2 by volume)?

  • Is the temperature in the space within tolerable working limits?

  • Is the confined space structurally safe to enter?

  • Has the head of the plant safety department been notified?

Explicação

Questão 136 de 142

1

Confined space means any enclosed or partially enclosed space having:

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • harmful gases, vapours, mist, or dust

  • no way out

  • limited room for tools and equipment

  • restricted entry and exit

Explicação

Questão 137 de 142

1

Confined space entry will apply to areas which lack:

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • ambient air temperatures

  • proper lighting

  • proper air ventilation

  • a simple means of entry

Explicação

Questão 138 de 142

1

The minimum level of oxygen in a confined space area is:

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • 8%

  • 10%

  • 15%

  • 20%

Explicação

Questão 139 de 142

1

Requirements for entry into confined spaces is governed by the:

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Occupational Health and Safety Act

  • Boiler and Pressure Vessels Regulation

  • Workers' Compensation Act

  • Provincial Firemans Regulation

Explicação

Questão 140 de 142

1

A worker in a confined space that is being ventilated also requires:

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • a self-contained breathing apparatus

  • an approved fire extinguisher

  • permission from OH&S to be there

  • to be in communication with another worker nearby

Explicação

Questão 141 de 142

1

A person attending to a worker in a confined space may leave his or her station:

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • to retrieve tools or equipment for the worker

  • only long enough to go to the washroom

  • only when properly relieved by another qualified person

  • for ten minutes every hour

Explicação

Questão 142 de 142

1

When tests indicate harmful gases are present in a confined space where a worker must enter, he or she must:

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • wear approved respiratory protective equipment

  • wait until the gases dissipate

  • receive special permission from OH&S before entering

  • wear a safety belt and lifeline

Explicação