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4th Class Part A II

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SAIT 4th Class Power Eng Part A II
Brennan Brow
Quiz by Brennan Brow, updated more than 1 year ago
Brennan Brow
Created by Brennan Brow almost 8 years ago
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Resource summary

Question 1

Question
Electrical circuit insulation:
Answer
  • Will never break down or deteriorate
  • Requires replacement after 10 years
  • Will deteriorate due to high temperatures
  • Will not burn

Question 2

Question
Under the Canadian Electrical Code, if an area contains dust in the air, under normal operation conditions, in concentrations high enough to produce explosive or ignitable mixtures, the electrical equipment must be designed safe for use in an area classification of:
Answer
  • Class I, Division I
  • Class I, Division II
  • Class II, Division I
  • Class II, Division II

Question 3

Question
A common cause of an electrical fire is:
Answer
  • Allowing motors or conductors to stay dry, unless designed for wet locations
  • Prematurely replacing deteriorated wiring
  • Following too closely to the Electrical Code when installing electrical equipment
  • Replacing burned fuses with ones of a higher rating

Question 4

Question
Which one of the following maintenance procedures is not a concern with preventing fires in electrical equipment?
Answer
  • Allowing the accumulation of dust on a motor since this buildup will prevent heat from escaping, thus keeping the motor warm in cold ambient conditions
  • Keeping electrical equipment dry unless designed for wet locations
  • Using the equipment designed for the application
  • Checking any aluminum connections frequently for tightness and presence of corrosion

Question 5

Question
Electrical connections:
Answer
  • need only make contact, they need not be tight
  • will create large amounts of heat if not tight
  • can cause an arc if too tight
  • may operate on overload for specified duration

Question 6

Question
When an electrical fire is discovered:
Answer
  • the equipment may be left running if the fire is put out with a C type fire extinguisher
  • the equipment should be de-energized as quickly as possible
  • the equipment should be left running until a backup power supply is available
  • the equipment may be immediately restarted once the fire is extinguished

Question 7

Question
The best type of fire extinguisher to use on a live electrical fire is a:
Answer
  • pressurized water extinguisher
  • dry chemical extinguisher
  • purple K extinguisher
  • carbon dioxide extinguisher

Question 8

Question
The temperature of the carbon dioxide leaving the extinguisher horn can be as low as:
Answer
  • 0 degrees C
  • -30 degrees C
  • -60 degrees C
  • -80 degrees C

Question 9

Question
During annual turnaround of a facility it is highly recommended that:
Answer
  • all fuses in the electrical system be replaced
  • aluminium wiring be replaced
  • all electrical panels be checked for tightness and corrosion
  • all circuit breakers be disassembled and cleaned

Question 10

Question
According to the Canadian Electrical Code, hazardous locations, for electrical equipment, are divided into three classes, depending on:
Answer
  • the type of hazardous material involved.
  • the capacity of electrical equipment involved.
  • the type of fire extinguishers available
  • pressure

Question 11

Question
Dry chemical can form a conducting path to ground if:
Answer
  • the air is dry.
  • any moisture is present.
  • it is directed at the base of the flame.
  • it is non-conductive.

Question 12

Question
Switches and circuit breakers which are to be installed in an atmosphere where flammable vapours may continually exist shall be:
Answer
  • installed in a sealed compartment.
  • be explosion proof.
  • electrically insulated.
  • of an ABSA approved design.

Question 13

Question
A fire may be caused by an electrical arc, which may originate due to:
Answer
  • Closing an electrical breaker.
  • Shutting down a motor too quickly.
  • Low voltage at a generator.
  • A loose electrical connection.

Question 14

Question
According to the Canadian Electrical Code, an area in which easily ignited material fibers, capable of producing combustible flyings, are handled or manufactured is designated as:
Answer
  • Class 1, Division 1
  • Class 1, Division 2
  • Class 2, Division 2
  • Class 3, Division 1

Question 15

Question
Under the Canadian Electrical Code, if an area contains hazardous concentrations of flammable gases or vapours under normal operating conditions, electrical equipment must be designed for use in the area, which is designated as:
Answer
  • Class 1, Division 1
  • Class 1, Division 2
  • Class 2, Division 2
  • Class 3, Division 1

Question 16

Question
Under the Canadian Electrical Code, an area in which the atmosphere contains dust in concentrations high enough to produce explosive or ignitable mixtures, is designated as:
Answer
  • Class 1, Division 1
  • Class 2, Division 1
  • Class 1, Division 2
  • Class 3, Division 1

Question 17

Question
Under the Canadian Electrical Code, if an area contains hazardous concentrations of flammable gases or vapours but are normally confined in containers, electrical equipment must be designed for use in the area, which is designated as:
Answer
  • Class 1, Division 1
  • Class 1, Division 2
  • Class 2, Division 2
  • Class 3, Division 2

Question 18

Question
Under the Canadian Electrical Code, an area in which the atmosphere contains dust not normally in suspension in the air in quantities sufficient to produce explosive or ignitable mixtures, is designated as:
Answer
  • Class 2, Division 2
  • Class 2, Division 1
  • Class 1, Division 2
  • Class 3, Division 1

Question 19

Question
According to the Canadian Electrical Code, an area in which easily ignited material fibers, are stored or handled, but are not processed is designated as:
Answer
  • Class 3, Division 1
  • Class 3, Division 2
  • Class 1, Division 2
  • Class 2, Division 2

Question 20

Question
Heat produced by a current is calculated by:
Answer
  • I*R
  • R^2*I
  • I^2*R
  • I^2*R^2

Question 21

Question
When the power has been cut off from an electrical fire, it becomes what class?
Answer
  • Class A
  • Class B
  • Class C
  • Class A, B or a combination of both

Question 22

Question
Hand held models of carbon dioxide extinguishers range from __ to __ kg
Answer
  • 2.2 to 9
  • 2.1 to 9
  • 2.2 to 10
  • 2.1 to 10

Question 23

Question
When did Alberta enacted the boiler and pressure vessel safety act?
Answer
  • 1898
  • 1951
  • 1942
  • 1899

Question 24

Question
When did Saskatchewan enacted the boiler and pressure vessel safety act?
Answer
  • 1898
  • 1952
  • 1941
  • 1899

Question 25

Question
When did Northwest Territories enacted the boiler and pressure vessel safety act?
Answer
  • 1898
  • 1951
  • 1942
  • 1899

Question 26

Question
When did Nova Scotia enacted the boiler and pressure vessel safety act?
Answer
  • 1898
  • 1951
  • 1942
  • 1899

Question 27

Question
When did British Columbia enacted the boiler and pressure vessel safety act?
Answer
  • 1898
  • 1951
  • 1942
  • 1899

Question 28

Question
The equivalent of 103 kPa in psi is ____.
Answer
  • 15
  • 30
  • 60
  • 22

Question 29

Question
A "power plant" may mean one or more boilers in which steam or other vapour is generated at a pressure greater than ____.
Answer
  • 103 kpa
  • 30 psi
  • 1034 kpa
  • 121 psi

Question 30

Question
A "power plant" may mean one or more boilers containing liquid at a working pressure greater than ____ and/or a temperature exceeding ____.
Answer
  • 1100 kPa, 121 degrees C
  • 103 kPa, 121 degrees C
  • 1034 kPa, 130 degrees C
  • 103 kPa, 230 degrees C

Question 31

Question
A Fourth Class power engineer may act as chief steam engineer in a power plant of capacity not more than ______.
Answer
  • 1000 kW
  • 100 kW
  • 5000 kW
  • 10,000 kW

Question 32

Question
A Fourth Class power engineer may act as chief steam engineer in a power plant consisting of one or more coil-type drumless boilers, of aggregate capacity not more than ______, when used for the sole purpose of underground thermal flooding of oil fields.
Answer
  • 1000 kW
  • 5000 kW
  • 10,000 kW
  • 500 kW

Question 33

Question
A Fourth Class power engineer may act as shift engineer in a power plant of capacity not more than ______.
Answer
  • 1000 kW
  • 5000 kW
  • 10,000 kW
  • 100 kW

Question 34

Question
A Fourth Class power engineer may act as shift engineer in a power plant consisting of one or more coil-type drumless boilers, of aggregate capacity not more than ______, when used for the sole purpose of underground thermal flooding of oil fields.
Answer
  • 1000 kW
  • 10,000 kW
  • 5000 kW
  • 200 kW

Question 35

Question
A Fourth Class power engineer may act as assistant engineer, under supervision of the shift engineer, in a power plant of capacity not more than ______.
Answer
  • 1000 kW
  • 10,000 kW
  • 5000 kW
  • 500 kW

Question 36

Question
A Fourth Class power engineer may take charge of the general care and operation of a power plant having a capacity of not more than ________ and operating at a pressure not more than _______.
Answer
  • 5000 kW, 140 kPa
  • 1000 kW, 103 kPa
  • 10,000 kW, 30 psi
  • 500 kW, 15 psi

Question 37

Question
Which code regulates mechanical refrigeration?
Answer
  • CSA B52
  • CSA B51
  • ASME Section II
  • ASME Section VI

Question 38

Question
Which CSA code is entitled Boiler, Pressure Vessel and Pressure Piping Code?
Answer
  • CSA B52
  • CSA B51
  • ASME Section III
  • ASME Section VI

Question 39

Question
Which ASME code section relates to power boilers?
Answer
  • Section I
  • Section IV
  • Section VI
  • Section II

Question 40

Question
Which ASME code section relates to materials?
Answer
  • Section II
  • Section I
  • Section III
  • Section V

Question 41

Question
Which ASME code section relates to construction of nuclear power components?
Answer
  • Section VI
  • Section III
  • Section IV
  • Section I

Question 42

Question
Which ASME code section relates to construction of heating boilers?
Answer
  • Section V
  • Section VII
  • Section IV
  • Section I

Question 43

Question
Which ASME code section relates to nondestructive examination?
Answer
  • Section V
  • Section III
  • Section II
  • Section VI

Question 44

Question
Which ASME code section relates to care and operation of heating boilers?
Answer
  • Section VII
  • Section II
  • Section IV
  • Section VI

Question 45

Question
Which ASME code section relates to care of power boilers?
Answer
  • Section VII
  • Section XI
  • Section VIII
  • Section V

Question 46

Question
Which ASME code section relates to construction of pressure vessels?
Answer
  • Section V
  • Section III
  • Section VIII
  • Section I

Question 47

Question
Which ASME code section relates to welding and brazing qualifications?
Answer
  • Section IX
  • Section X
  • Section II
  • Section VI

Question 48

Question
This committee was formed in 1911.
Answer
  • Boiler and Pressure Vessel Committee
  • ASME
  • ABSA
  • CRN

Question 49

Question
This organization was responsible for forming the Boiler and Pressure Vessel Committee.
Answer
  • ASME
  • ABSA
  • CSA
  • CRN

Question 50

Question
This body was formed in 1919.
Answer
  • The National Board of Boiler and Pressure Vessel Inspectors.
  • ASME
  • CRN
  • ISO

Question 51

Question
The first province to pass laws relating to boilers and pressure vessels was _________.
Answer
  • Quebec
  • Alberta
  • Ontario
  • Newfoundland

Question 52

Question
What are the different grades of Pressure Welder's Certificates of Competency?
Answer
  • A, B and C
  • 1, 2 and 3
  • L, A, J
  • None of the above

Question 53

Question
This critical temperature is the cutoff for a class A compressed gas under WHMIS.
Answer
  • 50 Deg C
  • 100 Deg C
  • 0 Deg C
  • -40 Deg C

Question 54

Question
Class A substances in WHMIS are ______________.
Answer
  • compressed gas
  • flammable gas
  • flammable liquid
  • combustible liquid

Question 55

Question
Class B substances in WHMIS are ______________.
Answer
  • flammable
  • toxic
  • oxidizing
  • all of the above

Question 56

Question
In WHMIS, this is a Class C substance
Answer
  • oxidizing
  • flammable
  • toxic
  • compressed gas

Question 57

Question
In WHMIS, this is a Class D substance is
Answer
  • Oxidizing
  • Toxic
  • flammable
  • compressed gas

Question 58

Question
A liquid is flammable under WHMIS if its flash point is
Answer
  • <37.8 Deg C
  • >37.8 Deg C
  • between 37.8 & 93.3 Deg C
  • None of the above

Question 59

Question
A liquid is combustible under WHMIS if its flash point is
Answer
  • <37.8 Deg C
  • > 37.8 Deg C
  • between 37.8 and 93.3 Deg C
  • None of the above

Question 60

Question
In WHMIS, a Class E substance is ________.
Answer
  • corrosive
  • toxic
  • flammable
  • oxidizing

Question 61

Question
In WHMIS, a Class F substance is _______.
Answer
  • hazardously reactive
  • oxidizing
  • flammable
  • compressed gas

Question 62

Question
What is the purpose of HMIRA?
Answer
  • to protect the secrecy of a manufacturer's formula
  • safety for workers and employers
  • to set legal precedent on hazardous materials
  • all of the above

Question 63

Question
How long does an exemption under HMIRA last?
Answer
  • 3 years
  • 2 years
  • 1 year
  • 10 years

Question 64

Question
The "fire tetrahedron" includes the four requirements for the _________ mode of combustion.
Answer
  • flaming
  • combustion
  • flameless
  • spontaneous

Question 65

Question
The "fire triangle" includes the three requirements for the _________ mode of combustion.
Answer
  • flameless
  • flaming
  • oxidizing
  • spontaneous

Question 66

Question
For hydrocarbon gases, flaming combustion will cease if oxygen concentration is lowered to less than _______.
Answer
  • 10%
  • 5%
  • 20%
  • 15%

Question 67

Question
Wood may continue to burn in the flameless (glowing) mode, even if oxygen levels drop as low as ___________.
Answer
  • 5%
  • 15%
  • 25%
  • 10%

Question 68

Question
The oxygen concentration in air is ________.
Answer
  • 21%
  • 20%
  • 10%
  • 100%

Question 69

Question
At an oxygen concentration of 17%, a person will experience ____________.
Answer
  • impaired motor coordination
  • death
  • possible unconsiousness
  • difficulty breathing

Question 70

Question
At oxygen concentrations of 10-14%, a person will experience _____________ and ___________________.
Answer
  • impaired judgement, fatigue
  • impaired motor coordination, difficulty breathing
  • loss of consciousness, death
  • all of the above

Question 71

Question
At oxygen concentration less than 10%, and individual will __________________.
Answer
  • lose consciousness
  • die
  • become sick
  • lose sight

Question 72

Question
How is the vapour density of a product determined?
Answer
  • It is the ratio of the weight of a product's vapour to the weight of air.
  • It is the ratio of the weight of a product's vapour to the specifc gravity.
  • It is the ratio of the weight of a product's vapour to the molar mass.
  • It is the ratio of the weight of a product's vapour to oxygen.

Question 73

Question
How is the rate of evaporation of a product determined?
Answer
  • It is the ratio of the evaporation rate of a product to the evaporation rate of normal air.
  • It is the ratio of the evaporation rate of a product to the evaporation rate of hydrogen.
  • It is the ratio of the evaporation rate of a product to the evaporation rate of normal Butyl acetate.
  • It is the ratio of the evaporation rate of a product to the evaporation rate of isopropol alcohol.

Question 74

Question
How is the specific gravity of a product determined?
Answer
  • It is the ratio of the weight of a volume of a controlled product to the weight of an equal volume of air at a specified temperature.
  • It is the ratio of the weight of a volume of a controlled product to the weight of an equal volume of hydrogen at a specified temperature.
  • It is the ratio of the weight of a volume of a controlled product to the weight of an equal volume of oxygen at a specified temperature.
  • It is the ratio of the weight of a volume of a controlled product to the weight of air at a specified temperature.

Question 75

Question
What is the vapour density of propane?
Answer
  • 1.6 (it falls in air)
  • 1.6 (it rises in air)
  • 0.8 (it falls in air)
  • 0.8 (it rises in air)

Question 76

Question
What is the specific gravity of iron?
Answer
  • 7.5 (it will sink in water)
  • 10 (it will sink in water)
  • 0.75 (it will rise in water)
  • 75 (it will sink in water)

Question 77

Question
What is the specific gravity of gasoline?
Answer
  • 0.8 (it will float on water)
  • 8 (it will float on water)
  • 80 (it will sink on water)
  • 8 (it will sink on water)

Question 78

Question
A self-contained breathing apparatus has a cylinder charged to a pressure of _______________.
Answer
  • 31.03 MPa
  • 5 MPa
  • 103 MPa
  • 62.06 MPa

Question 79

Question
Early government involvement in certification of power engineers became more important for the following reasons except:
Answer
  • efficiency
  • labour mobility
  • safety
  • pollution

Question 80

Question
When oil mixes with water in the boiler the resultant effect
Answer
  • foaming
  • filming
  • an interface
  • scaling

Question 81

Question
Committees which establish standards are composed primarily of which of the following elements?
Answer
  • experts from the industry, professional and insurance groups and all levels of government
  • only multi-National power corporations
  • one independent safety and standardisation board
  • only experts from the industry and government

Question 82

Question
Which of the following duties is a holder of a Fourth Class Engineer's Certificate of Competency not qualified to perform?
Answer
  • Take charge of the general care and operation of a power plant consisting of one or more coil type drumless boilers having an aggregate capacity not over 5,000 kW,when only in use for the purpose of subterranean thermal flooding in oil fields, as chief engineer.
  • Take charge of a shift in a power plant having a capacity of MORE than 10,000 kW, as shift engineer.
  • Take charge of the general care and operation of a powerplant having a capacity of not more than 1,000 kW as chief steam engineer, and to supervise the engineers in that plant.
  • Take charge of a shift in a power plant consisting of one or more coil type drumless boilers having an aggregate capacity of not more than 10,000 kW, when used only for underground thermal flooding in oil fields, as shift engineer.

Question 83

Question
Which of the following is a symbol for a unit of luminous intensity?
Answer
  • au
  • lux
  • cd
  • lumen

Question 84

Question
A pascal is equal to
Answer
  • 1 joule
  • 1 N/ m^2
  • 1 kg/ cm^2
  • 1 kg/ m^2

Question 85

Question
One watt is equal to
Answer
  • 1 pascal/m2
  • 1 N/m2
  • 1 joule/second
  • 1 kilojoule/minute

Question 86

Question
A gear wheel 65 cm in diameter revolving at 225 r/min drives a wheel 85 cm in diameter. What is the speed of the second gear?
Answer
  • 172.06 r/min
  • 344 r/min
  • 294 r/min
  • 1.1 r/min

Question 87

Question
Washing steam should enter a tank car or tank truck slowly so as to
Answer
  • prevent injury to the worker
  • prevent massive condensation of the steam within the tank
  • flush the tank gradually
  • reduce the risk of static electricity spark

Question 88

Question
The explosion of a flammable mixture that occurred at the exact time a valve was opened was likely due to the
Answer
  • pyrophoric effect
  • static electric charge buildup
  • catalytic effect of the fresh metallic surface
  • temperature of the mixture

Question 89

Question
What is Methane's lower and upper flammable limits?
Answer
  • 5.0 to 15.0 %
  • 2.2 to 9.5 %
  • 1.9 to 8.5 %
  • 1.1 to 7.5 %

Question 90

Question
What is Propane's lower and upper flammable limits?
Answer
  • 5.0 to 15.0 %
  • 2.2 to 9.5 %
  • 1.9 to 8.5 %
  • 1.1 to 7.5 %

Question 91

Question
What is Butane's lower and upper flammable limits?
Answer
  • 5.0 to 15.0 %
  • 2.2 to 9.5 %
  • 1.9 to 8.5 %
  • 1.1 to 7.5 %

Question 92

Question
What is Gasoline's lower and upper flammable limits?
Answer
  • 5.0 to 15.0 %
  • 2.2 to 9.5 %
  • 1.9 to 8.5 %
  • 1.1 to 7.5 %

Question 93

Question
What is Kerosene's lower and upper flammable limits?
Answer
  • 0.7 to 5.0 %
  • 2.2 to 9.5 %
  • 1.9 to 8.5 %
  • 1.1 to 7.5 %

Question 94

Question
What is Hydrogen Sulphide's lower and upper flammable limits?
Answer
  • 0.7 to 5.0 %
  • 4.3 to 45.5 %
  • 1.9 to 8.5 %
  • 1.1 to 7.5 %

Question 95

Question
What is butane's flash point?
Answer
  • -60 Deg
  • -45 Deg
  • 58 Deg
  • 49 Deg

Question 96

Question
What is gasoline's flash point?
Answer
  • -60 Deg C
  • -45 Deg C
  • 54 Deg C
  • 49 Deg C

Question 97

Question
What is 2-D diesel fuel's flash point?
Answer
  • -60 Deg C
  • -45 Deg C
  • 58 Deg C
  • 49 Deg C

Question 98

Question
What is Denatured alcohol's flash point?
Answer
  • -60 Deg C
  • -45 Deg C
  • 58 Deg C
  • 49 Deg C

Question 99

Question
What is Methane's Ignition Temperature?
Answer
  • 650 Deg C
  • 480 Deg C
  • 490 Deg C
  • 295 Deg C

Question 100

Question
What is Propane's Ignition Temperature?
Answer
  • 650 Deg C
  • 490 Deg C
  • 480 Deg C
  • 295 Deg C

Question 101

Question
What is Natural gasoline's Ignition Temperature?
Answer
  • 650 Deg C
  • 490 Deg C
  • 480 Deg C
  • 295 Deg C

Question 102

Question
What is Kerosene's Ignition Temperature?
Answer
  • 650 Deg C
  • 490 Deg C
  • 480 Deg C
  • 295 Deg C

Question 103

Question
What is Fuel oil's Ignition Temperature?
Answer
  • 340 Deg C
  • 490 Deg C
  • 480 Deg C
  • 295 Deg C

Question 104

Question
What is Hydrogen Sulphide's Ignition Temperature?
Answer
  • 650 Deg C
  • 260 Deg C
  • 480 Deg C
  • 295 Deg C

Question 105

Question
What is Gasoline's Autoignition Temperature?
Answer
  • 257 Deg C
  • 210 Deg C
  • 571 Deg C
  • 500 Deg C

Question 106

Question
What is Diesel's Autoignition Temperature?
Answer
  • 257 Deg C
  • 210 Deg C
  • 571 Deg C
  • 500 Deg C

Question 107

Question
What is Jet Fuel's Autoignition Temperature?
Answer
  • 257 Deg C
  • 210 Deg C
  • 571 Deg C
  • 500 Deg C

Question 108

Question
What is Hydrogen's Autoignition Temperature?
Answer
  • 257 Deg C
  • 210 Deg C
  • 571 Deg C
  • 500 Deg C

Question 109

Question
What is Butane's Autoignition Temperature?
Answer
  • 257 Deg C
  • 210 Deg C
  • 571 Deg C
  • 500 Deg C

Question 110

Question
Before pouring a flammable liquid from a dispensing container into a receiving container, the containers must be?
Answer
  • At equal temperatures
  • Bonded together
  • The same size
  • All of the above

Question 111

Question
Loading a product having a high flash point after a load of a product having a low flash point is called?
Answer
  • High to low loading
  • Flash point loading
  • Switch loading
  • None of the above

Question 112

Question
Which one is NOT a procedure of loading and unloading hydrocarbon fluids?
Answer
  • Hand brake and wheels must be chocked on the railway car
  • Washing steam should enter the tank slowly to reduce the risk
  • Grounding connections must be in good condition
  • Trucks don't need to be grounded when the loading spout is inserted.

Question 113

Question
Which one is NOT a procedure of loading and unloading hydrocarbon fluids?
Answer
  • Compartments don't need to be inspected if the product being loaded is different from the previous load
  • To prevent switch loading compartments should be purged with carbon dioxide
  • Deflector should be installed on a loading spout
  • One minute before withdrawing the spout after loading a tank.

Question 114

Question
One minute before withdrawing the spout after loading a tank.
Answer
  • Deflector should be installed on a loading spout
  • At least five minutes after loading samples must not be obtained
  • One minute before withdrawing the spout after loading a tank.
  • Compartments need to be inspected if the product being loaded is different from the previous load

Question 115

Question
Which one is NOT a procedure of handling LPG?
Answer
  • Truck or Tank car must contain air before being loaded
  • Containers must be designed for the right type of LPG product being transported
  • Before loading a check should be made to ensure liquids from a previous load are not present
  • LPG containers should never be filled completely.

Question 116

Question
Which one is NOT a procedure of handling LPG?
Answer
  • Outages left in LPG containers must conform to local regulations.
  • Loading hoses must be hydro statically tested every two years.
  • Container must be not over pressured
  • Before loading LPG the correct type of product must be verified

Question 117

Question
Transport tanks carrying LPG should be level before loading and unloading because?
Answer
  • It is easier to load and unload the LPG
  • Ensure relief valve connection is not flooded
  • Both of the above
  • None of the above

Question 118

Question
Which one is NOT a procedure of Tank Gaugers?
Answer
  • If hydrogen sulphide might be present, three workers should be assigned to the job
  • Tanks should not be gauged when thunderstorms are approaching
  • Defects in ladders and stairways should be reported
  • Thief ropes or cords, may be allowed in some situations

Question 119

Question
In gauging procedures allow how much time for the static charge to be reduced after a tank has been filled?
Answer
  • 10 minutes
  • 20 minutes
  • 30 minutes
  • 40 minutes

Question 120

Question
In gauging procedures how much should you open the hatch to allow pressurized vapour to escape?
Answer
  • 1 cm
  • 1.5 cm
  • 2 cm
  • 2.5 cm

Question 121

Question
In mobile storage tanks, a vapour space must be left because?
Answer
  • Liquid expands due to a temperature increase
  • Liquid explodes due to a temperature increase
  • Both of the above
  • None of the above

Question 122

Question
What method is used to determine the quantity loaded into the transport?
Answer
  • Read the rotary gauge on the side of the tank
  • Weighing the unit before and after filling
  • Using temperature - corrected meters
  • All of the above

Question 123

Question
What is an outage in reference to LPG?
Answer
  • Space left above the surface of the liquid
  • Amount of liquid left
  • Temperature of the liquid
  • None of the above

Question 124

Question
The term LD50 refers to:
Answer
  • lethal dose which results in death of 50% of the test population
  • lethal concentration which resulted in death of 50% of the test population
  • lethal concentration diluted to half strength and supplied to the test population
  • legal exposure in which 50% of the test population survived

Question 125

Question
The CEL of H2S is
Answer
  • 100 ppm
  • 20 ppm
  • 10 ppm
  • 15 ppm

Question 126

Question
A factor that has a large impact on the outcome of a worker's post accident recovery is
Answer
  • pre-accident safety record
  • attitude before and after the accident
  • lifestyle off the job
  • support received from the immediate family

Question 127

Question
Individual responsibilities for health and safety must be borne by
Answer
  • management only
  • employees only
  • owners only
  • all persons in the workplace

Question 128

Question
The highest proportion of injuries are reported by employees in the age group of
Answer
  • 26 to 35 years
  • 16 to 25 years
  • 36 to 45 years
  • 46 to 55 years

Question 129

Question
When contractors are involved at the site of an incident the contractor with the most control is called the
Answer
  • principle contractor
  • general contractor
  • sub-contractor
  • building contractor

Question 130

Question
During an injury related investigation by an Occupational Health and Safety officer, work being done at the site may be suspended:
Answer
  • indefinitely
  • until the officer arrives at the scene
  • for a maximum of 48 hours
  • until any serious safety hazards are corrected

Question 131

Question
The maximum penalty for an OH&S offence is
Answer
  • $150,000.00 fine
  • one year in jail
  • 500,000.00 fine and/or one year in jail
  • $300,000.00 fine and one year in jail

Question 132

Question
Confined space entry rules apply where the work in progress may cause
Answer
  • too much noise to withstand
  • equipment being used to become a hazard
  • the worker to refuse to perform his job
  • moisture vapours to be released in the atmosphere

Question 133

Question
A confined space may easily become a
Answer
  • difficult place in which to maneuver
  • breeding ground for biohazardous infectious substances
  • life threatening environment
  • healthy environment

Question 134

Question
Before entering any confined space, it is good practice to
Answer
  • verify the operator's isolation points though the Plant Safety Committee
  • estimate how long you will be there
  • inform the Plant Manager of your whereabouts
  • plan the entry using a confounded entry space check list

Question 135

Question
Which of the following is not an item that must be considered when vessel entry permits are prepared?
Answer
  • Is the required oxygen level measured and assured (minimum level of 20% O2 by volume)?
  • Is the temperature in the space within tolerable working limits?
  • Is the confined space structurally safe to enter?
  • Has the head of the plant safety department been notified?

Question 136

Question
Confined space means any enclosed or partially enclosed space having:
Answer
  • harmful gases, vapours, mist, or dust
  • no way out
  • limited room for tools and equipment
  • restricted entry and exit

Question 137

Question
Confined space entry will apply to areas which lack:
Answer
  • ambient air temperatures
  • proper lighting
  • proper air ventilation
  • a simple means of entry

Question 138

Question
The minimum level of oxygen in a confined space area is:
Answer
  • 8%
  • 10%
  • 15%
  • 20%

Question 139

Question
Requirements for entry into confined spaces is governed by the:
Answer
  • Occupational Health and Safety Act
  • Boiler and Pressure Vessels Regulation
  • Workers' Compensation Act
  • Provincial Firemans Regulation

Question 140

Question
A worker in a confined space that is being ventilated also requires:
Answer
  • a self-contained breathing apparatus
  • an approved fire extinguisher
  • permission from OH&S to be there
  • to be in communication with another worker nearby

Question 141

Question
A person attending to a worker in a confined space may leave his or her station:
Answer
  • to retrieve tools or equipment for the worker
  • only long enough to go to the washroom
  • only when properly relieved by another qualified person
  • for ten minutes every hour

Question 142

Question
When tests indicate harmful gases are present in a confined space where a worker must enter, he or she must:
Answer
  • wear approved respiratory protective equipment
  • wait until the gases dissipate
  • receive special permission from OH&S before entering
  • wear a safety belt and lifeline
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