IHS Intro to Anesthesia Meds

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What is the most commonly administered pre-operative sedative category?

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is the most commonly administered benzo. Its therapeutic dose is to milligrams IV.

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Which of the following is NOT one of the actions of a benzodiazepine?

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What category of medications produces analgesia during anesthesia?

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Which of the following is the typical analgesic of choice?

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What is the pre-operative dose for Fentanyl?

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Which of the following is NOT an advantage of opioid administration?

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Select all that you would be concerned about when administering an opioid for analgesia:

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What is the recommended dose for morphine?

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is the typical anticholinergic given.

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Select all of the known side effects of Robinol.

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Select all of the side effects of scopolamine.

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is dilation of the pupil. can cause this.

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Medications that have an antisialogogue effect are particularly effective for what procedure types?

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What are the effects of atropine?

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are most commonly administered in pediatric patients due to their strong vagal reactions.

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Which anticholinergic is most commonly associated with producing CNS toxicity?

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What is the dose for atropine?

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The therapeutic dose for Robinol is mg IV.

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Anticholinergics don't have selective action to receptors. They can cause a blockade of receptors in the CNS. As a result, you need to administer an anticholinergic along with a medication like .

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What conditions should NOT give you pause in administering an anticholinergic?

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suppress acid secretion in response to all primary stimulants: histamine, gastrin, and acetylcholine.

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The three medications in the triple-threat aspiration prophylaxis are: , , and .

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What is the dose for Bicitra?

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What is the dose for Tagamet?

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What is the dose for Zantac IV?

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What is the dose for Pepcid?

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An counters the ability of histamine to induce secretion of gastric fluid with a high concentration of H* ions.

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Which of the following is not a proton pump inhibitor?

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is the most common H2 antagonist. The typical dose is to mg PO.

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are responsible for a decrease in gastric fluid volume.

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What is the dose for Raglan?

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and can work against each other as one can relax the LES and the other can increase LES.

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Prokinetics like Reglan alter gastric pH.

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What is an example of an alpha 2 agonist?

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What is the dose for Clonidine?

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Which of the following isn't an effect of clonidine?

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are recommended for pre-medication in patients undergoing high-risk procedures, like radiography dye studies.

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What is NOT an example of a case when you would administer a GI prophylaxis for N/V?

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Which of the following is not an induction agent?

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The is a polysynaptic pathway that travels from the brainstem to the cerebral cortex that is intimately concerned with the electrical activity of the cerebral cortex.

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It's likely most of the anesthetic agents exert depressant effects on the RAS.

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What is the induction dose of thiopental?

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What should you reconstitute thiopental with?

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Accidental intra-arterial injection is a serious concern for .

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works through the facilitation of inhibitory neurotransmission mediated by GABA receptor.

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The induction dose for Propofol is:

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The maintenance infusion for general anesthesia for Propofol is:

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The maintenance infusion for sedation for Propofol is:

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A person with an egg allergy can't receive Propofol.

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works by binding to a subunit of the GABA type A receptor. This increases its affinity for GABA, which causes depression of the RAS.

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What is the induction dosage for Etomidate?

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Etomidate has minimal effects on the CV system.

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Both and cause pain on injection. You can mix them with lidocaine.

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can cause myoclonus.

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The induction dose for Brevital is:

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Brevital is cleared by the liver at a rate than thiopental.

1

Sux increases the following:
1. pressure
2. pressure
3. pressure
4.

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The dosage for succinylcholine is:

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Succinylcholine is a agent.

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Name the four M's of succinylcholine:
1.
2.
3.
4.

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Medications like vecuronium, rocuronium, pancuronium, and cistracurium are blocking drugs.

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What is the incubation dose for vecuronium?

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How long does an intubating dose of vecuronium last?

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What type of patient wouldn't be a good candidate for vecuronium?

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What is the intubation dose for Rocuronium?

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Rocuronium has a longer duration of intubating dose than vecuronium.

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Intubating dose for Atracurium is to mg/kg.

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The intubation dose for Cisatracurium (Nimbex) is:

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Cisatracurium is less potent than atracurium.

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Which two neuromuscular agents are those that are eliminated via Hoffman elimination:

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Which of the following is NOT an action of inhaled anesthetics?

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MAC stands for .

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The MAC of nitrous oxide is percent.

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Nitrous oxide shouldn't be avoided in patients with the following:

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Nitrous oxide is more soluble than nitrogen in the blood.

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The MAC of isoflurane (Forane) is percent.

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Non depolarizing NMBAs are potentiated by .

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The MAC of desflurane is percent.

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The only difference between isoflurane and desflurane is the substitution of a atom for isoflurane's atom.

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Which anesthetic gas requires a special, electrically heated vaporizer?

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Wakeup times for are 50 percent less than those observed following isoflurane.

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The MAC of sevoflurane is percent.

1

is an excellent induction agent for pediatric patients because it is non-pungent.

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Which of the following is not a disadvantage of sevoflurane?

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❌ muscle relaxants act by competing with ACh for nicotinic cholinergic receptors for binding sites, which results in a blockade of neuromuscular transmission.

Non depolarizing

Depolarizing

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Quiz sobre IHS Intro to Anesthesia Meds, criado por Rachel Nall em 07-06-2016.

IHS Intro to Anesthesia Meds

What is the most commonly administered pre-operative sedative category?

is the most commonly administered benzo. Its therapeutic dose is to milligrams IV.

Which of the following is NOT one of the actions of a benzodiazepine?

What category of medications produces analgesia during anesthesia?

Which of the following is the typical analgesic of choice?

What is the pre-operative dose for Fentanyl?

Which of the following is NOT an advantage of opioid administration?

Select all that you would be concerned about when administering an opioid for analgesia:

What is the recommended dose for morphine?

is the typical anticholinergic given.

Select all of the known side effects of Robinol.

Select all of the side effects of scopolamine.

is dilation of the pupil. can cause this.

Medications that have an antisialogogue effect are particularly effective for what procedure types?

What are the effects of atropine?

are most commonly administered in pediatric patients due to their strong vagal reactions.

Which anticholinergic is most commonly associated with producing CNS toxicity?

What is the dose for atropine?

The therapeutic dose for Robinol is mg IV.