Pharmacology II Final: Practice Test

Which of the following are non-depolarizing NMBAs?

Which of the following is a long-acting NMBA?

Which of the following is a contraindication in the use of non-depolarizing neuromuscular blockers?

A patient with myotonic dystrophy who receives succinylcholine is at increased risk for which of the following?

Which of the following drugs has the longest duration of action in a patient with renal failure?

Which of the following best explains the failure of non-depolarizing neuromuscular blocking agents to produce fasciculation?

Excessive potassium release and subsequent elevated serum level would most likely occur following administration of succinylcholine to which of the following patients?

The characteristics of non-depolarizing NMBAs differ from that of depolarizing except that both exhibit ____________.

Pharmacologic and physiologic variables that enhance non-depolarizing NMBAs include all of the following EXCEPT:

A series of four twitches at 2Hz every half-second for two seconds: [blank_start]train-of-four[blank_end] Two short bursts of 50Hz tetanus separated by 0.75 seconds: [blank_start]double-burst simulation[blank_end] A supramaximal electrical stimulus ranging from 0.1-1.0hz: [blank_start]single twitch[blank_end] 50Hz tetanus for 5 seconds, a 3-second pause, then single twitches of 1Hz: [blank_start]posttetanic count[blank_end] Consists of rapid delivery of a 30-, 50-, or 100Hz stimulus for 5 seconds: [blank_start]tetanus[blank_end]

What term refers to the time from drug administration to its maximum effect?

The time from drug administration to 90% recovery of a twitch response is known as:

Correctly number the sequence during onset of paralysis from the first to the last. Abdominal muscles - [blank_start]4[blank_end] Chest (Intercostals) - [blank_start]3[blank_end] Diaphragm - [blank_start]5[blank_end] Extremities - [blank_start]2[blank_end] Eye lids - [blank_start]1[blank_end]

The brief duration of succinylcholine is due principally to its rapid hydrolysis in plasma by cholinesterase enzymes.

A low dibucaine number and normal enzyme activity indicates: (Select 2)

A dibucaine number of 78 with decreased enzyme activity indicates: (select 2)

Which of the following are related to Hofmann elimination and nonspecific esterases?

Plasma cholinesterase is the mechanism of elimination for which of the following:

Which of the following cause histamine release and may produce hypotension and tachycardia?

The administration of _____________ can cause sudden, abrupt bradycardia with repeat doses in adults and any dose in children.

Which of the following agents should be used together because of their rapid onset? (Select 2)

Sugammadex is classified as a selective relaxant binding agent.

Sugammadex is effective in reversing all of the following EXCEPT:

Which of the following local anesthetics are esters?

Amides tend to be shorter acting due to their rapid metabolism.

If a patient has an allergy to an ester drug, all other ester drugs should be avoided.

Match the max dose to the correct drug. Procaine - [blank_start]14[blank_end] Ropivacaine - [blank_start]3[blank_end] Chloroprocaine - [blank_start]14[blank_end] Tetracaine - [blank_start]1[blank_end] Mepivacaine - [blank_start]7[blank_end] Bupivacaine - [blank_start]3[blank_end] Lidocaine - [blank_start]7[blank_end]

Which of the following LAs has an increased risk of causing cardiotoxicity because of its greater electrophysiologic effects?

Which of the following agents is purely alpha?

The lower the pKa of a drug (closer to pH of 7.4), the faster the onset.

The maximum safe dose of lidocaine with epinephrine in tumescent anesthesia for liposuction is:

The following characteristics relate to which of the following agents? 1.) direct and indirect acting 2.) alpha and beta stimulating 3.) central and peripheral

Which of the following is the best choice to give to a pregnant patient?

In what classification of anti-arrhythmic drugs do beta blockers belong?

Match the classes of anti-arrhythmic drugs with their effects. [blank_start]Class III[blank_end] : block potassium channels [blank_start]Class II[blank_end] : beta-adrenergic blocking effects [blank_start]Class IV[blank_end] - calcium channel blocking effects [blank_start]Class I[blank_end] - block sodium channels

Which drug should you choose to treat torsades de pointes?

What drug should you choose to treat ventricular tachycardia or fibrillation?

A patient with a BP of 126/78 would be classified in what category?

A patient with a blood pressure of 138/89 would be classified under what category?

What drug should you choose to treat hypertension with a low heart rate?

In what classification of angina is a patient that has slight limitation of ordinary activity such as, walking or climbing stairs?

Exertional (stable) angina should be treated with:

Variant angina should be treated with:

Which drug decreases preload by causing venous dilation?

Renin release is the cause of rebound HTN following cessation of a nipride drip.

______________ is a PDE3 inhibitor; interferes with the second messenger system.

Match the effects seen with the following doses of dopamine. Low doses (2-5 mcg/kg/min) - [blank_start]dopamine agonist[blank_end] Medium doses (5-10 mcg/kg/min) - [blank_start]dopamine and beta stimulation[blank_end] High doses (>10 -15 mcg/kg/min) - [blank_start]alpha receptors cause vasoconstriction[blank_end]

Atropine causes mydriasis and loss of accommodation.

The more protein bound a local anesthetic is, the shorter the duration of action.

All of the following are true regarding the addition of vasoconstrictors to local anesthetics EXCEPT: