Quiz
EASA ATP QATAR YELLOW 3
Perguntas do quiz (200)
140.2.1.2 (2618)
Through which part of the ear does the equalization of pressure take place, when
altitude is changed?- AEustachian tube
- BExternal auditory canal
- CTympanic membrane
- DCochlea
240.2.1.2 (2625)
The time between inadequate oxygen supply and incapacitation is called TUC
(Time of Useful Consciousness). It
a)
b)c) is not dependent on physical or psychological pressure
d) varies individually and does not depend on altitude- Ais the same amount of time for every person
- Bvaries individually and depends on cabin pressure altitude
- Cis not dependent on physical or psychological pressure
- Dvaries individually and does not depend on altitude
340.2.1.2 (2626)
After a decompression to 43 000 FT the TUC (Time of Useful Consciousness) will be
approximately:- A5-15 seconds
- B30-45 seconds
- C45-60 seconds
- D60-90 seconds
440.2.1.2 (2628)
Pain in the Joints (""bends""), which suddenly appear during a flight , are
symptoms of- Adecompression sickness
- Bbarotrauma
- Chypoxia
- Dair-sickness
540.2.1.2 (2642)
Hypoxia effects visual performance.A pilot may:
a) get blurred and/or tunnel vision
b)
c)
d)- Ahave a reduction of 25% in visual acuity at 8000 FT AGL
- Bbe unable to maintain piercing vision below 5000 FT AGL
- Cget colour blindness accompanied by severe headache
- Dget blurred and/or tunnel vision
640.2.1.2 (2644)
In relation to hypoxia, which of the following paraphrase(s) is (are) correct?- AThis is a physical condition caused by a lack of oxygen to meet the needs of the
body tissues, leading to mental and muscular disturbances, causing impaired
thinking, poor judgement and slow reactions - BThis is a condition of lacking oxygen in the brain causing the circulatory system to
compensate by decreasing the heart rate. - CThis is a physical condition caused by a lack of oxygen saturation in the blood while
hyperventilating.ma=259200 - DHypoxia is often produced during steep turns when pilots turn their heads in a direction
opposite to the direction in which the aircraft is turning
- AThis is a physical condition caused by a lack of oxygen to meet the needs of the
740.2.1.2 (2645)
Hyperventilation is due to an excessive rate of breathing and can produce the
following symptoms:- Adizziness, tingling sensation in the fingers and toes, nausea and blurred vision
- Ba state of overconfidence and reduced heart rate
- Creduced heart rate and increase in visual acuity
- Dblue finger-nails and lips
840.2.1.2 (2647)
The cabin pressure in airline operation is- Anormally not exceeding 2 000 to 3 000 feet
- Bnormally not exceeding 6 000 to 8 000 feet
- Cnormally not exceeding 4 000 to 5 000 feet
- Dalways equivalent to sea level
940.2.1.2 (2651)
Anxiety and fear can cause- Ahyperventilation
- Bspatial disorientation
- Chypoxia
- Dhypoglycemia
1040.2.1.2 (2655)
The normal rate of breathing is- A12 to 16 cycles a minute
- B20 to 30 cycles a minute
- C32 to 40 cycles a minute
- D60 to 100 cycles a minute
1140.2.1.2 (2657)
Altitude-hypoxia, when breathing ambient air, should not occur (indifferent phase)- Abelow 3 000 m
- Bup to 5 000 m
- Cbetween 3 000 m and 5 000 m
- Dbetween 5 000 m and 7 000 m
1240.2.1.2 (2658)
""The Bends"" as a symptom of decompression sickness consists of:- Apain in the joints
- Bpain in the thorax and a backing cough
- CCNS-disturbances
- Dloss of peripheral vision
1340.2.1.2 (2664)
What is hypoxia ?- AThe total absence of oxygen in the air
- BThe respiratory symptom associated with altitude decompression sickness
- CAny condition where the oxygen concentration of the body is below normal
limits or where the oxygen available to the body cannot be used due to some
pathological condition - DA state charcterised by an excessive supply of oxygen which may be due to maladjustment
of the masko
1440.2.1.2 (2665)
What could be symptoms of hypoxia (when flying without oxygen) above 12,000
ft?- AHeadache, thirst, somnolence, collapse
- BHeadache, fatigue, dizziness, lack of coordination
- CEuphoria, headache, improvement in judgement, loss of consciousness
- DTrembling, increase in body temperature, convulsions,slowing of the rate of breathing
1540.2.1.2 (2668)
Air at an altitude of 18.000 feet contains, approximately :- A21% oxygen
- B5% oxygen
- C15% oxygen
- D10% oxygen
1640.2.1.2 (2669)
Dry air is a mixture of gases. Their volume percentage is about:- A18% oxygen, 80% nitrogen, 2% other gases
- B19% oxygen, 80% nitrogen, 1% other gases
- C21% oxygen,78% nitrogen, 1% other gases
- D25% oxygen, 74% nitrogen, 1% other gases
1740.2.1.2 (2674)
What is decompression sickness ?- AA frequent disorder in commercial aviation due to the pressurisation curve of modern
aircraft - BAn sickness resulting from the formation of nitrogen bubbles in bodily tissues
and fluids after a cabin pressure loss at high altitude - CThe formation of air bubbles in bodily tissues, with no consequences for people's
capabilities - DA disorder which is solely encountered below 18,000 ft
- AA frequent disorder in commercial aviation due to the pressurisation curve of modern
1840.2.1.2 (2677)
Healthy people are usually capable to compensate for a lack of oxygen up to- A10.000 - 12.000feet
- B15.000 feet
- C20.000 feet
- D25.000 feet
1940.2.1.2 (2680)
Hypoxia is a situation in which the cells- Ahave a shortage of oxygen
- Bare saturated with nitrogen
- Care saturated with oxygen
- Dhave a shortage of carbon dioxide
2040.2.1.2 (2684)
One of the most dangerous symptoms of hypoxia concerning flight safety is:- Areduced coordination of limb movements, causing the pilot to spin
- Bcyanosis, reducing then pilots ability to hear
- Cimpaired judgement, disabling the pilot to recognize the symptoms
- Dhyperventilation, causing emotional stress
2140.2.1.2 (2685)
Which of the following symptoms can indicate the beginning of hypoxia?1. Blue
lips and finger nails.2. Euphoria.3. Flatulence.4 .Unconsciousness..- A1, 2 and 3 are correct.
- B1, 2 and 4 are correct.
- C1, 3 and 4 are correct.
- D2, 3 and 4 are correct.
2240.2.1.2 (2692)
Hypoxia can occur because:- Ayou are getting toomuch solar radiation
- Byou inhale too much nitrogen
- Cyou are hyperventilating
- Dthe percentage of oxygen is lower at altitude
2340.2.1.2 (2694)
Hyperventilation is:
- Aa too high percentage of nitrogen in the blood
- Ban increased lung ventilation
- Ca decreased lung ventilation
- Da too high percentage of oxygen in the blood.
2440.2.1.2 (2698)
What is the Time of Useful Consciouness ?- AThe time taken to become aware of hypoxia due to gradual decompression
- BThe length of time during which an individualcan act with both mental and
physical efficiency and alertness, measured from the moment at which he loses his
available oxygen supply - CThe pilot's reaction time when faced with hypoxia
- DThe period of time between the start of hypoxia and the moment that the pilot becomes
aware of it
2540.2.1.2 (2706)
Pain in the middle ear during descent may be eased by:- Ablocking the effected ear with the palm of your hand
- Bleveling off and possibly climbing
- Cincreasing the rate of descent
- Dusing an oxygen mask
2640.2.1.2 (2717)
Haemoglobin is:- Ain the red blood cells
- Bdissolved in the plasma
- Cin the platelets
- Din the white blood cells
2740.2.1.2 (2735)
The normal rate of breathing of an adult at rest is about:- A4 cycles per minute
- B16 cycles per minute
- C32 cycles per minute
- D72 cycles per minute
2840.2.1.2 (2745)
During a final approach under bad weather conditions, you feel dizzy, get tingling
sensations in your hands and a rapid heart rate. These symptoms could indicate:- Adisorientation
- Bhypoxia
- Chyperventilation
- Dcarbon monoxide poisoningt
2940.2.1.2 (2748)
You can overcome hyperventilation by breathing into a plastic or paper bag. The
intention is:- Ato raise the level of CO2 in the blood as fast as possible
- Bto prevent you from exhaling too much oxygen
- Cto increase the amount of nitrogen in the lung
- Dto reduce blood pressure
3040.2.1.2 (2759)
What is the TUC at 20 000 FT?- Aabout 30 minutes
- B1 to 2 minutes
- C1to 2 hours
- D5 to 10 minutes
3140.2.2.2 (2783)
What impression do you have when outside references are fading away (e.g. fog,
darkness, snow and vapor)?- AObjects seem to be closer than in reality
- BObjects seem to be much bigger than in reality
- CIt is difficult to determine the size and speed of objects
- DThere is no difference compared with flying on a clear and sunny daya
3240.2.2.2 (2784)
Hypoxia will effect night vision- Aless than day vision
- Bat 5000 FT
- Cand causes the autokinetic phenomena
- Dand causes hyperventilation
33
40.2.2.2 (2802)
the FOVEA- Ais sensitive to very low intensities of light
- Bis an area in which cones predominate
- CIs an area in which rods predominate
- Dis the area responsible for night vision
3440.2.2.2 (2825)
Glaucoma1. can lead to total blindness2. can lead to undetected reduction of the
visual field3. reduces visual acuity in its final stage
- A1, 2 and 3 are correct
- B1 and 3 are correct, 2 is false
- C2 and 3 are correct, 1 is false
- D1 is correct, 2 and 3 are false
3540.2.2.4 (2845)
The semicircular canals of the inner ear monitor- Amovements with constant speeds
- Brelative speed and linear accelerations
- Cangular accelerations
- Dgravity
3640.2.2.5 (2882)
The area in front of a threshold descends towards the threshold.Possible danger is:- Aapproach is higher than normal and may result in a long landing
- Bapproach is lower than normal and may result in a short landing
- Cto drop far below the glide path
- Dto misjudge the length of the runway
3740.2.2.5 (2884)
""Pilot's vertigo""- Ais the condition of dizziness and/or tumbling sensation caused by contradictory
impulses to the central nervous system (CNS) - Bis the sensation of climbing caused by a strong linear acceleration
- Cis the sensation to keep a rotation after completing a turn
- Dannounces the beginning of airsickness
- Ais the condition of dizziness and/or tumbling sensation caused by contradictory
3840.2.2.5 (2886)
What do you do, when you are affected by ""pilot`s vertigo""?1. Establis maintain an effective instrument cross-check.2. Believe the instruments.3. Ignore
illusions.4. Minimize head movements.- A1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
- B1 and 2 are correct, 3 and 4 are false
- C1, 2 and 3 are correct, 4 is false
- DOnly 4 is false
3940.2.2.5 (2899)
When stopping the rotation of a spin we have the sensation- Aof turning in the same direction
- Bof the sharp dipping of the nose of the aircraft
- Cthat we are starting a spin into the opposite direction
- Dof the immediate stabilization of the aircrafto
4040.2.2.5 (2905)
Visual disturbances can be caused by:1. hyperventilation2. hypoxia3.
hypertension4. fatigue- A1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
- B1, 2 and 3 are correct
- C2, 3 and 4 are correct
- D1, 2 and 4 are correct
4140.2.2.5 (2920)
How can spatial disorientation in IMC be avoided? By- Abelieving your body senses only.
- Bmaintaining a good instrument cross check.
- Cmoving the head into the direction of the resultant vertical.
- Dlooking outside whenever possible ignoring the attitude indicator.
4240.2.2.5 (2924)
If you are disorientated during night flying you must:- Alook outside
- Bdescend
- Crelay on instruments
- Dcheck your rate of breathing - do not breathe too fast
4340.2.3.0 (2926)
Our body takes its energy from :1: minerals2: protein3: carbonhydrates4:
vitamines- A2,3
- B1,4
- C1,2,3,4
- D1,3
4440.2.3.2 (2937)
Having a serious cold it is better not to fly, due to the extra risk of:1. flatulence2.
pain in the ear during descent3. pressure vertigo4. pain in the nasal sinuses- A1 and 2 are correct
- B2,3 and 4 are correct
- C1,3 and 4 are correct
- D1,2 and 4 are correct
4540.2.3.2 (2938)
Having a serious cold, you are going to fly. What can you expect:- Apain in the sinuses
- Bchokes
- Cbends
- Dhypoxia
4640.2.3.3 (2939)
Which of the following factors may have an influence on medical disqualification?- AHigh and low blood pressure as well as a poor condition of the circulatory
system - BBlood pressure problems cannot occur in aircrew because they always can be treated by inflight medication.
- CHigh blood pressure only.
- DLow blood pressure only.
- AHigh and low blood pressure as well as a poor condition of the circulatory
4740.2.3.3 (2942)
To reduce the risk of coronary artery disease, exercise should be- Aavoided since raising the heart rate shortens the life of the heart
- Bdouble the resting heart rate for at least 20 minutes, three times a week
- Ctriple the resting heart rate for 20 minutes, once a week
- Ddouble the resting heart rate for at least an hour, five times a week
4840.2.3.3 (2943)
Which of the following is most true?- ARegular exercise is an impediment to losing weight since it increases the metabolic rate
- BRegular exercise is beneficial to general health, and is the only effective way to lose weight
- CRegular exercise is beneficial to general health, but the most efficient way to
lose weight is by reducing caloric consumption - DRegular exercise and reduction in caloric consumption are both essential in order to lose
weight
4940.2.3.3 (2944)
Conductive hearing loss can be caused by: 1. damage to the ossicles in the middle
ear caused by infection or trauma 2. a damage of the auditory nerve 3. an
obstruction in the auditory duct 4. a ruptured tympanic membrane- A1,2,3 and 4 are correct
- B2,3 and 4 are correct, 1 is false
- C1,2 and 3 are correct, 4 is false
- D1,3 and 4 are correct, 2 is false
5040.2.3.4 (2951)
Concerning the effects of drugs and pilot´s performance- Athe side effects only have to be considered
- Bthe primary and the side effects have to be considered
- Cmedication has no influence on pilot´s performance
- Donly the primary effect has to be considered, side effects are negligable
5140.2.3.4 (2956)
Flying at pressure altitude of 10 000 ft, a pilot, being a moderate to heavy smoker,
has an oxygen content in the blood equal to an altitud- Aof 10 000 FT
- Babove 10 000 FT
- Cower than 10 000 FT
- Dof 15000 FT when breathing 100% oxygen
5240.2.3.4 (2959)
Alcohol metabolism (elimination rate)- Ais approx. 0.3% per hour
- Bis approx. 0.015% per hour and cannot be expedited
- Cdepends on wether you get some sleep in between drinks
- Ddefinitely depends on the amount and composition of food which has been eaten
5340.2.3.4 (2961)
The rate of absorption of alcohol depends on many factors. However, the rate of
metabolism or digestion of alcohol in the body is relatively constant. It is about- A0,02 - 0,05 mg % per hour
- B0,01 - 0,015 mg % per hour
- C0,2 - 0,25 mg % per hour
- D0,3 - 0,35 mg % per hour
5440.2.3.6 (2976)
Incapacitation is most dangerous when it is :- Asudden
- Binsinuating
- Cobvious
- Dintense
5540.3.1.0 (2979)
Many pilots think up systems to deal with affairs so they don't have to think up
every time what they have to do.- Athis has to be posetively appreciated for it increases consistency in action
- Bthis is dangerous for every situation is different
- Cthis has to be rejected for the company draws the rules and the procedures they have to
comply with - Dthis has to be advised against for it reduces flexibility at a moment a problem has to be
solved by improvisation.
5640.3.1.1 (2983)
The ability of detecting relevant information which is not presented in an actively
monitored input channel is known as
- Aperception
- Battention
- Csensation
- Dappreciation
5740.3.1.2 (3005)
Illusions of interpretation (cognitive illusions) are :- Adue mainly to a conflict between the various sensory systems
- Bdue mainly to a poor interpretation of instrumental data
- Cassociated with the task of mental construction of the environment
- Dsolely induced in the absence of external reference points
5840.3.1.3 (3009)
Information stays in the short-term memory- Aless than 1 second
- Babout 20 seconds
- Cfrom 5 to 10 minutes
- Daround 24 hourso
5940.3.2.0 (3047)
What is meant by the term 'complacency'?- ATo question possible solutions
- BCareless negligence or unjustified self-confidence
- CAn agreement between captain and co-pilot due to Crew Resources Management
- DPhysiological consequences on pilots because of fear of flying
6040.3.3.0 (3086)
Once a pilot has developed a certain way of thinking about a problem he will
probably- Afind it difficult to stick to his/her interpretation of the data
- Bfind it difficult to get out of that way of thinking and difficult to try a different
interpretation of the data - Cfind it impossible to get out of that way of thinking, whatever happens
- Dfind it easy to interpret the data in different ways
6140.3.3.1 (3093)
What strategy should be put in place when faced with an anticipated period of time
pressure ?- AA Laissez-faire strategy
- BA non-sequential strategy
- CA strategy of no commitment
- DA strategy of preparing decisions
6240.3.4.1 (3107)
You are transporting a passenger who has to be at a certain destination for a
meeting. The weather forcast at destination tends to be much worse than
expected, so you consider to divert. The businessman offers you money if you
manage to land there at any case.What is your appropriate way of action? You will- Acontinue and think about the nice things you can buy from the money
- Bdecide to divert if you think it is necessary.
- Cdivert in any case to demonstrate who' s the man in charge aboard
- Dsee what you can do and ask the copilot to tolerate any decision
6340.3.4.2 (3110)
The use of check lists must be carried out in such a way that:- Atheir execution may be done simultaneously with other actions
- Btheir execution must not be done simultaneously with other actions
- Ctheir execution is not lumped together with important tasks
- Dit may be rejected since redundancy in the following check list will serve as verification
6440.3.4.2 (3112)
In order to overcome an overload of work during the flight, it is necessary to:-1 :
know how to use one's own reserve of resources in order to ease the burden on the
crew.-2 : divide up tasks among the crew.-3 : abandon automatic mode and
instead process as much information as possible consciously.-4 : drop certain tasks
and stick to high-level priorities.The correct statement(s) is (are):- A1 and 3 are correct
- B1, 2 and 4 are correct
- C1, 2 and 3 are correct
- D3 and 4 are correct
6540.3.4.2 (3113)
Which of the following statements concerning check list is correct?- AThe most important items should be placed at the beginning of a check list since
attention is usually focused here - BThe most important items must be placed at the end of check list, allowing them to be kept
near at hand so that they are quickly available for any supplementary check - CAll the items of a check list are equally important, their sequence is of no importance
- DThe most important items must be placed in the middle of check list so that they come to
be examined once attention is focused but before concentration starts to wane
- AThe most important items should be placed at the beginning of a check list since
6640.3.4.2 (3115)
What are the advantages of coordination?- ARedundancy, synergy, clarification of responsibility.
- BInteraction, cognition, redundancy.
- CCooperation, cognition, redundancy
- DRedundancy, exploration, risky shift.
6740.3.4.2 (3116)
Coaction is a mode of coordination which recommends:- Aworking parallel to achieve individual objectives
- Bworking parallel to achieve one common objective
- Cthe application of procedural knowledge in the conduct of specific actions
- Dsustained cooperation on actions and the formulation of commitments concerning flight
situations
6840.3.4.2 (3118)
Action plans (SOP's) in a cockpit must :- Aonly be tailored to the type of aircraft, regardless of current MCC procedures
- Bbe shared by the members of the crew and updated at each modification in
order to maintain maximum synergy - Conly follow the manufacturers proposals and not reflect individual operators cockpit
philosophies - Dbe tailored to the individual pilot's needs in order to facilitate the normal operation of the
aircraft
6940.3.4.3 (3120)
Mark the two most important attributes for a positive leadership style:(1)
dominant behaviour(2) examplary role-behaviour(3) mastery of communication
skills(4) ""Laissez-faire"" behaviour- A1 and 4
- B1 and 3
- C2 and 3
- D2 and 4
7040.3.4.3 (3121)
During the preparational work in the cockpit the captain notices that his copilot on
the one hand is rather unexperienced and insecure but on the other hand highly
motivated. Which kind of leadership behaviour most likely is inappropriate?- AThe captain lets the copilot fly and gives him detailled instructions what to do
- BThe captain lets the copilot fly and observes his behaviour without any
comments - CThe captain lets the copilot fly and encourages him frankly to ask for any support that
needed - Dthe captain flies the first leg by himself and explains each action to the copilot in order to
keep him informed about his decisions
7140.3.4.3 (3122)
Which one of the following statements characterizes a democratic and cooperative
leadership style?If conflicts evolve, the leader- Amainly tries to reconcile all persons involved in the conflict and tries to reestablish a nice
and friendly atmosphere within the team - Bkeeps a neutral position and does not participate in arguing
- Cdecides what to do and pushes his own opinion through
- Dtries to clarify the reasons and causes of the conflict with all persons involved
- Amainly tries to reconcile all persons involved in the conflict and tries to reestablish a nice
7240.3.4.3 (3123)
Which of the following sentences concerning crew-performance is correct?- AMistakes can always be detected and corrected faster by the individual
- BTo be a member of a team can not increase one's own motivation to succeed in coping with
task demands - CThe quality of crew-performance depends on the social-competence of
individual team members - DThe quality of crew-performance is not dependent on social-competence of individual team
members
7340.3.4.3 (3126)
Which behaviour does most likely promote a constructive solution of interpersonal
conflicts?- AStaying to the own point of view.
- BResponding with counter-arguments.
- CActive listening.
- DGiving up the own point of view
7440.3.4.3 (3127)
The team spirit of a cockpit-crew most likely depends on- Aboth pilots respecting each other and striving for the same goals
- Bboth pilots wearing the same uniform
- Cboth pilots having the same political and ideological attitude
- Dboth pilots flying together very often for a long period
7540.3.4.3 (3131)
The ""ideal professional pilot"" is, in his behaviour,- Arather ""person"" than ""goal"" oriented
- B""person"" and ""goal"" oriented
- Crather ""goal"" than ""person"" oriented
- Dneither ""person"" nor ""goal"" oriented
7640.3.4.3 (3134)
What elements establish synergy within the crew ?- ASynergy must be built up from the start of the mission (briefing) and be
maintained until it comes to an end (debriefing) - BSynergy is independent of the natural individual characteristics of the group members
(communication, mutual confidence, sharing of tasks, etc.) - CSynergy establishes itself automatically within the crew, right through from briefing to
debriefing - DIt is only the captain's status which allows the establishment of synergy within the crew
- ASynergy must be built up from the start of the mission (briefing) and be
7740.3.4.3 (3137)
What may become the main risk of a ""laissez-faire""(liberalismo) cockpit ?- ALack of communication
- BInversion of authority
- CDisengagement of the co-pilot
- DAppearance of agressiveness
7840.3.4.3 (3138)
What is characterized by a ""laissez-faire"" cockpit ?
- AEach member carries out actions and makes choices without explicity informing the other
members about them - BA passive approach by the captain allows decisions, choices and actions by other
crew members - CThe high level of independence granted to eachoding:
- DThe captain's authority rules all the actions or decisions associated with the situation
- AEach member carries out actions and makes choices without explicity informing the other
7940.3.4.3 (3145)
What is synergy in a crew ?- AA behavioural expedient associated with the desynchronisation of the coordinated actions
- BThe coordinated action of unrelated individual performances in achieving a non-standard
task - CThe coordinated action of all members towards a common objective, in which
collective performance is proving to be more than the sum of the individual
performances - DThe uncoordinated action of the crewmembers towards a common objective
8040.3.4.3 (3147)
An efficient flight deck (synergetic cockpit) will be observed when:- Athe Captain delegates the decision making process to other crew members
- Bdecisions are taken by the Captain with the help and participation of the other
crew members - Cdecisions do not need to be discussed because of a common synergy between the crew
- Dthe plan of action is defined by the Captain because of his experience level
8140.3.4.3 (3149)
CRM (Crew Resource Management) training is:- Aintended solely to alter an individual's personality,
- Bintended to develop effectiveness of crew performance by improving attitudes
towards flight safety and human relationship management - Cis mainly of relevance to pilots with personality disorders or inappropriate attitudes
- Dnot intended to change the individual's attitude at all
8240.3.5.1 (3180)
Which of the following behaviours is most disruptive to teamwork under high
workload conditions in the cockpit?- AMentally absent.
- BSensitive.
- CDisciplined.
- DJovial.
8340.3.6.2 (3198)
In case of in-flight stress, one should :- Aonly trust in oneself, beeing sure to know the own limits
- Buse all available resources of the crew
- Calways carry out a breathing exercise
- Ddemonstrate aggressiveness to stimulate the crew
8440.3.6.2 (3205)
What is the most decisive factor in regard to a very demanding stress situation?
- AThe subjective evaluation of the situation by the individual.
- BThe objective threat of the situation.
- CThe time available to cope with the situation.
- DThe unexpected outcome of the situation.
8540.3.6.2 (3209)
Which of the following statements concerning stress is correct?- AStress always creates a state of high tension which decreases cognitive and behavioural
performance. - BStress will be evaluated differently depending on whether it improves or
reduces performance. - CStress is evaluated as a positiv mechanism only in connection with precise tasks of the kind
encountered in aeronautics - DStress is a necessary way of demonstrating one's own work.
- AStress always creates a state of high tension which decreases cognitive and behavioural
8640.3.6.2 (3223)
Stress is above all :- Aa psychosomatic disease that one can learn to control
- Bthe best adaptation phenomenon that man possesses for responding to the
various situation which he may have to face - Ca response by man to his problems, which automatically leads to a reduction in his
performance - Da phenomenon which is specific to modern man
8740.3.6.2 (3229)
A person being exposed to extreme or prolonged stress factors can perceive:- Acoping stress
- Beustress
- Cdistress (stress reactions)
- Dstressors
8840.3.6.3 (3238)
A fatigued pilot
- Ais acting similar as when encountering a state of depression
- Bwill get precordial pain
- Cconsiderably increases the ability to concentrate
- Dwill show signs of increased irritability
8940.3.6.5 (3261)
What are the main strategies for adapting to time constraints ?- AThe preparation of action and time management
- BThe preparation of action and the prioritisation of tasks
- CThe prioritisation of tasks and the application of procedures
- DThe preparation of action and the application of procedures
9050.1.1.1 (3273)
What, approximately, is the average height of the tropopause over the equator ?- A16 km
- B8 km
- C11 km
- D40 km
9150.1.1.1 (3274)
In which layer is most of the atmospheric humidity concentrated ?- ATropopause.
- BStratosphere
- CTroposphere.
- DStratopause.
9250.1.1.1 (3276)
Which of the following cloud types can project up into the stratosphere?- AAltocumulus
- BCumulonimbus
- CCirrostratus
- DAltostratus
9350.1.1.1 (3278)
Which layer of the atmosphere contains more than 90 per cent of all water vapour?- ALower stratosphere
- BTroposphere
- CUpper stratosphere
- DIonosphere
9450.1.1.1 (3280)
What is the approximate composition of the dry air by volume in the troposphere ?- A10 % oxygen, 89 % nitrogen, and the rest other gasses
- B21 % oxygen, 78 % nitrogen, and the rest other gasses
- C50 % oxygen, 40 % nitrogen, and the rest other gasses
- D88 % oxygen, 9 % nitrogen, and the rest other gasses
9550.1.1.1 (3284)
The tropopause is a level at which- Awater vapour content is greatest
- Btemperature ceases to fall with increasing height
- Cpressure remains constant
- Dvertical currents are strongest
9650.1.1.1 (3287)
The height and the temperature of the tropopause are respectively in the order of- A8 km and - 75°C over the poles
- B16 km and -75°C over the equator
- C8 km and -40°C over the equator
- D16 km and -40°C over the poles
9750.1.2.1 (3289)
The temperature at FL 140 is -12°C. What will the temperature be at FL 110 if the
ICAO standard lapse rate is applied ?- A-6°C.
- B-9°C.
- C-18°C.
- D-15°C.
9850.1.2.1 (3290)
At a certain position, the temperature on the 300 hPa chart is -48°C, according to
the tropopause chart, the tropopause is at FL 330. What is the most likely
temperature at FL 350 ?- A-54°C.
- B-58°C.
- C-50°C.
- D-56,5°C.
9950.1.2.1 (3291)
An outside air temperature of -35°C is measured while cruising at FL 200. What is
the temperature deviation from the ISA at this level?- A10°C colder than ISA
- B10°C warmer than ISA
- C5°C warmer than ISA.
- D5°C colder than ISA.
10050.1.2.1 (3292)
What is the most likely temperature at the tropical tropopause?- A-75°C.
- B-35°C.
- C-55°C.
- D-25°C
10150.1.2.1 (3294)
The temperature at FL 80 is +6°C. What will the temperature be at FL 130 if the
ICAO standard lapse rate is applied ?- A-4°C
- B0°C
- C-6°C
- D+2°C
10250.1.2.1 (3296)
The temperature at FL 160 is -22°C. What will the temperature be at FL 90 if the
ICAO standard lapse rate is applied ?- A-4°C
- B-8°C
- C0°C
- D+4°C
10350.1.2.1 (3301)
In the lower part of the stratosphere the temperature- Adecreases with altitude
- Bis almost constant
- Cincreases with altitude
- Dincreases at first and decreases afterward
10450.1.2.3 (3309)
In an air mass with no clouds the surface temperature is 15°C and 13°C at 1000m.
This layer of air is:- Astable
- Bunstable
- Ca layer of heavy turbulence
- Dconditionally unstable
10550.1.2.3 (3315)
An inversion is a layer of air which is- Aabsolutely unstable
- Babsolutely stable
- Cconditionally unstable
- Dconditionally stable
10650.1.2.3 (3317)
The dry adiabatic lapse rate has a value of- A1°C/100m
- B2°C/1000FT
- C0.65°C/100m
- D0.5°C/100m
10750.1.2.4 (3326)
An isothermal layer is a layer of air in which the temperature- Aincreases with height
- Bremains constant with height
- Cdecreases with height at a constant rate
- Dincreases with height at a constant rate
10850.1.2.4 (3327)
An inversion is- Aan increase of temperature with height
- Ban increase of pressure with height
- Ca decrease of temperature with height
- Da decrease of pressure with height
10950.1.3.1 (3332)
The station pressure used in surface weather charts is- AQFF
- BQFE
- CQNH
- DQNE
11050.1.3.1 (3334)
Isobars on a surface chart are lines of equal- AQFF
- BQNE
- CQFE
- DQNH
11150.1.3.2 (3339)
Which of the following is true concerning atmospheric pressure ?- AIt is higher at night than during the day
- BIt decreases with height
- CIt is higher in winter than in summer
- DIt always decreases with height at a rate of 1 hPa per 8m
11250.1.3.3 (3341)
In order to calculate QFE from QNH, which of the following must be known ?- ATemperature at the airfield.
- BElevation of the airfield.
- CElevation and the temperature at the airfield.
- DElevation of the airfield and the temperature at MSL.
11350.1.3.3 (3349)
If the QFE at Locarno (200 metres above sea level) is 980 hPa, what is the
approximate QNH ?- A1000 hPa
- B1005 hPa
- C1010 hPa
- D1015 hPa
11450.1.3.3 (3350)
If the QFE at Locarno (200 metres above sea level) is 1000 hPa, what is the
approximate QNH?- A985 hPa
- B990 hPa
- C1025 hPa
- D1035 hPa
11550.1.3.3 (3353)
QNH is defined as- Apressure at MSL in the standard atmosphere
- BQFE reduced to MSL using the values of the standard atmosphere
- CQFE reduced to MSL using the values of the actual atmosphere
- Dpressure at MSL in the actual atmosphere
11650.1.3.3 (3354)
In order to reduce QFE to QNH, which of the following item(s) must be known ?- ATemperature at the airfield
- BElevation of the airfield and the temperature at MSL
- CElevation of the airfield
- DElevation of the airfield and the temperature at the airfield
11750.1.4.1 (3355)
At FL 180, the air temperature is -35°C.The air density at this level is:- AGreater than the density of the ISA atmosphere at FL 180.
- BLess than the density of the ISA atmosphere at FL 180.
- CUnable to be determined without knowing the QNH.
- DEqual to the density of the ISA atmosphere at FL 180.
11850.1.5.1 (3363)
A 850 hPa pressure level can vary in height. In temperate regions which of the
following average heights is applicable ?
- AFL 50
- BFL100
- CFL 300
- DFL 390
11950.1.5.1 (3364)
If you are flying at FL 300 in an air mass that is 15°C warmer than a standard
atmosphere, what is the outside temperature likely to be?
- A-15°C
- B-30°C
- C-45°C
- D-60°C
12050.1.5.1 (3367)
How does temperature vary with increasing altitude in the ICAO standard
atmosphere below the tropopause?- ADecreases
- BIncreases
- CRemains constant
- DAt first it increases and higher up it decreases
12150.1.5.1 (3368)
What is the vertical temperature lapse rate, up to 11 km, in the standard ICAO
atmosphere ?- A2°C per 1000 m
- B3°C per 1000 m
- C4.5°C per 1000 m
- D6.5°C per 1000 m
12250.1.5.1 (3369)
In the International Standard Atmosphere the decrease in temperature with height
below 11 km is- A0.65°C per 100m
- B0.5°C per 100m
- C1°C per 100m
- D0.6°C per 100m
12350.1.5.1 (3370)
Which statement is correct regarding the International Standard Atmosphere ?- AAt MSL temperature is 10°C and the decrease in temperature with height is 1°C per 100m
- BAt MSL temperature is 15°C and pressure is 1013.25hPa
- CAt MSL pressure is 1013.25 hPa and the decrease of temperature with height is 1°C per
100m - DAt MSL temperature is 15°C and the decrease in temperature with height is 1°C per 100m
12450.1.5.1 (3372)
The temperature at 10000 FT in the International Standard Atmosphere is :- A0°C
- B-5°C
- C-20°C
- D-35°C
12550.1.6.1 (3374)
The QNH of an airport at sea level is 983 hPa and the temperature deviation from
ISA is -15°C below FL 100.What is the true altitude of FL 100?- A8590 FT.
- B10210 FT
- C9790 FT.
- D11410 FT.
12650.1.6.1 (3382)
During a flight over the sea at FL 135, the true altitude is 13500 feet, local QNH is
1019 hPa. What information, if any, can be gained about the air mass in which the
aircraft is flying?- AIts average temperature is the same as ISA
- BIt is colder than ISA
- CIt is warmer than ISA
- DThere is insufficient information to make any assumption
12750.1.6.1 (3384)
An aircraft is flying over the sea at FL 120, with a true altitude of 12000 feet, local
QNH is 1013 hPa. What assumption, if any, can be made about the air mass in
which the aircraft is flying ?- AIt is colder than ISA
- BIts average temperature is the same as ISA
- CThere is insufficient information to come to any conclusion
- DIt is warmer than ISA
12850.1.6.1 (3385)
An aircraft is flying over the sea at FL 100, with a true altitude of 10000 feet, local
QNH is 1003 hPa. What assumption, if any, can be made about the air mass in
which the aircraft is flying ?- AIt is warmer than ISA
- BIts average temperature is about ISA
- CIt is colder than ISA
- DThere is insufficient information to come to any conclusion
12950.1.6.1 (3392)
You are flying at FL 200. Outside air temperature is -40°C, and the pressure at sea
level is 1033 hPa. What is the true altitude?- A19340 feet
- B18260 feet
- C21740 feet
- D20660 feet
13050.1.6.1 (3395)
Which of the following conditions would cause the altimeter to indicate a lower
altitude than that actually flown ?- APressure altitude the same as indicated altitude.
- BAtmospheric pressure lower than standard
- CAir temperature higher than standard
- DAir temperature lower than standard.(Aÿÿ8E¹)@5)
13150.1.6.1 (3396)
The pressure altitude is equal to the true altitude if- Athe outside air temperature is standard for that height
- Bstandard atmospheric conditions occur
- Cthe indicated altitude is equal to the pressure altitude
- Dthe air pressure is 1013.25 hPa at the surface
13250.1.6.3 (3400)
What is the relationship, if any, between QFE and QNH at an airport situated 50 FT
below sea level?- AQFE is greater than QNH.
- BQFE equals QNH.
- CQFE is smaller than QNH.
- DNo clear relationship exist
13350.1.6.3 (3403)
An aircraft is descending to land under IFR. If the local QNH is 1009 hPa, what will
happen to the altitude reading when the altimeter is reset at the transition level ?- AIt will increase
- BIt will decrease
- CIt will remain the same
- DIt will not be affected
13450.1.6.3 (3404)
After landing at an aerodrome (QNH 993 hPa) it is noticed that the altimeter is still
set to 1013,2 hPa and that it reads 1200 feet. What is the elevation of the
aerodrome above mean sea level ?- A660 feet.
- B1200 feet.
- C1740 feet.
- D2280 feet.
13550.1.6.3 (3406)
During the climb after takeoff, the altimeter setting is adjusted at the transition
altitude. If the local QNH is 966 hPa, what will happen to the altimeter reading
during the resetting procedure?- AIt will increase
- BIt is not possible to give a definitive answer
- CIt will decrease
- DIt will remain the same
13650.1.6.3 (3408)
What pressure is defined as QFE?- AThe pressure at field elevation
- BThe pressure reduced to sea level using actual temperatures
- CThe pressure of the altimeter
- DThe pressure reduced to sea level using ISA temperatures
13750.1.6.3 (3409)
An altimeter adjusted to 1013 hPa indicates an altitude of 3600 FT. Should this
altimeter be adjusted to the local QNH value of 991 hPa, the altitude indicated
would be- A2922 FT.
- B3006 FT.
- C4278 FT.
- D4194 FT.
13850.1.6.3 (3411)
An aircraft is flying at FL 80. The local QNH is 1000 hPa. After the second altimeter
has been adjusted to the local QNH, the reading will be approximately
- A7650 FT.
- B8000 FT
- C8600 FT.
- D8350 FT.
13950.1.6.3 (3413)
Which of the following statements is true ?- AQNH is always equal to QFE
- BQNH can be equal to QFE
- CQNH is always higher than QFE
- DQNH is always lower than QFE
14050.1.6.4 (3422)
What information is required to convert a minimum safe altitude into a lowest
usable flight level?- AHighest value of QNH and the highest negative temperature deviation from ISA.
- BHighest value of QNH and the highest positive temperature deviation from ISA
- CLowest value of QNH and the highest negative temperature deviation from ISA.
- DLowest value of QNH and the lowest negative temperature deviation from ISA
14150.1.6.4 (3423)
Which weather condition lowers true altitude as compared to pressure altitude to a
position where flight over mountains could be dangereous?- ACold high.
- BCold low
- CWarm high.
- DWarm depression.
14250.1.6.4 (3424)
A vertical spacing of 1000 FT, is the standard required separation between two FL.
Under conditions of cold air advection (ISA -15°C), what would the true vertical
separation be?- AIt remains 1000 FT
- BLess than 1000 FT
- CWithout QNH information, it can not be determined
- DMore than 1000 FT
14350.2.1.1 (3426)
What is the approximate speed of a 25-knot wind, expressed in kilometres per
hour?- A35 km/h
- B45 km/h
- C5 km/h
- D60 km/h
14450.2.1.1 (3427)
What is the approximate speed of a 90 km/h wind, expressed in knots?- A50 kt
- B55 kt
- C60 kt
- D70 kt
14550.2.1.1 (3428)
What is the approximate speed of a 40-knot wind, expressed in m/sec?- A15 m/sec
- B20 m/sec
- C25 m/sec
- D30 m/sec
14650.2.1.1 (3429)
What values are used for the forecasted wind at higher levels?
- ADirection relative to true north and speed in knots
- BDirection relative to grid north and speed in kmh
- CDirection relative to magnetic north and speed in knots
- DDirection relative to magnetic north and speed in kmh
14750.2.2.1 (3431)
Which forces are balanced with geostrophic winds?- AFriction force, pressure gradient force, Coriolis force.
- BPressure gradient force, Coriolis force.
- CPressure gradient force, centrifugal force, friction force.
- DPressure gradient force, Coriolis force, centrifugal force.
14850.2.2.1 (3437)
What prevents air from flowing directly from high-pressure areas to low-pressure
areas ?- ASurface friction
- BKatabatic force
- CCoriolis force
- DThe pressure gradient force
14950.2.2.1 (3439)
Wind is caused by- Afriction between the air and the ground
- Bthe movements of fronts
- Cthe rotation of the earth
- Dhorizontal pressure differences
15050.2.2.2 (3454)
When isobars, for an area in the mid-latitudes on a weather map, are close
together, the wind is most likely to be- Alight
- Bchanging direction rapidly
- Cstrong
- Dblowing perpendicular to the isobars
151Which degree of aircraft turbulence is determined by the following ICAO
description?""There may be moderate changes in aircraft attitude and/or altitude
but the aircraft remains in positive control at all times. Usually, small variations in
air speed. Changes in accelerometer readings of 0.5 to 1.0 g at the aircraft's center
of gravity. Occupants feel strain against seat belts. Loose objects move about.
Food service and walking are difficult.""- ALight.
- BModerate
- CSevere.
- DViolent.
15250.2.4.2 (3472)
Which cloud type may indicate the presence of severe turbulence ?- AAltocumulus lenticularis
- BNimbostratus
- CStratocumulus
- DCirrocumulus
15350.2.4.2 (3473)
Fair weather cumulus often is an indication of- Aturbulence at and below the cloud level
- Bsmooth flying conditions below the cloud level
- Cpoor visibility at surface
- Da high risk of thunderstorms
15450.2.5.1 (3485)
In the northern hemisphere the wind at the surface blows- Acounter-clockwise around, and toward the centre of, a low pressure area
- Bclockwise around, and away from the centre of, a low pressure area
- Cfrom a low pressure area to a high pressure area
- Dcounter-clockwise around, and away from the centre of, a high pressure area.
15550.2.6.1 (3493)
In a land- and sea-breeze circulation the land-breeze blows :- Aduring the day and is stronger than the sea-breeze.
- Bduring the night and is weaker than the sea-breeze.
- Cduring the night and is stronger than the sea-breeze.
- Dduring the day and is weaker than the sea-breeze.
15650.2.6.1 (3494)
A high pressure area (shallow pressure gradient) covers an area of the
Mediterranean Sea and its nearby airport. What surface wind direction is likely at
the airport on a sunny afternoon?- ALand to sea.
- BVariable.
- CSea to land.
- DParallel to the coastline.
15750.2.6.1 (3495)
A mountain breeze (katabatic wind) blows- Aup the slope during the day.
- Bdown the slope during the night.
- Cdown the slope during the day.
- Dup the slope during the night.
15850.2.6.1 (3496)
Which of the following is true of a land breeze?- AIt blows from land to water
- BIt blows from water to land
- CIt blows only at noon
- DIt blows by day
15950.2.6.1 (3498)
The most frequent wind direction in a valley caused by thermal effects is toward
the :- Amountain at night.
- Bvalley during daylight hours.
- Cmountain during daylight hours.
- Dvalley during daylight as much as at night.
16050.2.6.1 (3500)
When otherwise calm and clear conditions exist a station on the shore of a large
body of water will experience wind- Afrom the water in daytime and from the land at night
- Bfrom the land in daytime and from the water at night
- Ccontinually from land to water
- Dcontinually from water to the land
16150.2.6.1 (3502)
In a mountain-valley wind circulation, the mountain wind blows- Aduring the day down from the mountains
- Bat night up from the valley
- Cat night down from the mountains
- Dduring the day up from the valley
16250.2.7.2 (3504)
An aircraft is flying through the polar front jet stream from south to north, beneath
the core. How would the OAT change, in the northern hemisphere, during this
portion of the flight?- AIt decreases.
- BIt remains constant.
- CIt first increases, then decreases.
- DIt increases.
16350.2.7.2 (3510)
Which jet stream is connected with a surface front system?- AThe arctic jet stream
- BThe polar front jet stream
- CThe equatorial jet stream
- DThe subtropical jet stream
164What is the minimum speed for a wind to be classified as a jet stream?
- A50 kt.
- B60 kt.
- C70 kt.
- D100 kt.
16550.2.7.5 (3533)
In which zone of a jet stream is the strongest CAT to be expected ?
- AExactly in the centre of the core.
- BThe cold air side of the core.
- CThe warm air side of the core.
- DAbout 12000 FT above the core
16650.2.8.1 (3537)
At the top of orographic waves, in mountainous regions, the cloud most likely to be
encountered is- Aaltocumulus lenticularis.
- Bcirrostratus.
- Ccirrus.
- Dcumulus mediocris.
16750.3.1.1 (3538)
What of the following is the most important constituent in the atmosphere from a
weather stand-point ?- ANitrogen
- BOxygen
- CWater vapour
- DHydrogen
16850.3.1.2 (3549)
The maximum amount of water vapour that the air can contain depends on the- Arelative humidity
- Bair temperature
- Cdewpoint
- Dstability of the air
16950.3.1.2 (3551)
The difference between temperature and dewpoint is greater in- Adry air
- Bmoist air
- Cair with low temperature
- Dair with high temperature
17050.3.1.2 (3552)
The dewpoint temperature- Ais always lower than the air temperature
- Bcan not be equal to the air temperature
- Ccan be equal to the air temperature
- Dis always higher than the air temperature
17150.3.1.2 (3553)
Relative humidity depends on- Amoisture content and pressure of the air
- Bmoisture content and temperature of the air
- Ctemperature of the air only
- Dmoisture content of the air only
17250.3.2.1 (3557)
Clouds, fog or dew will always be formed when:- Awater vapour is present.
- Bwater vapour condenses.
- Ctemperature and dew point are nearly equal
- Drelative humidity reaches 98%.
17350.3.2.1 (3558)
In which of the following changes of state is latent heat released ?- ASolid to liquid
- BGas to liquid
- CLiquid to gas
- DSolid to gas
17450.3.2.1 (3560)
Supercooled droplets can occur in- Aprecipitation but not in clouds
- Bclouds, fog and precipitation
- Cclouds but not in precipitation
- Dclouds but not in fog
17550.3.2.1 (3564)
The process by which water vapour is transformed directly into ice is known as- Asupercooling
- Bsublimation
- Cradiation cooling
- Dsupersaturation
17650.3.3.1 (3567)
What is the dry adiabatic lapse rate per 1000 FT ?- A2.0°C
- B3.0°C.
- C3.5°C
- D1.5°C
17750.3.3.1 (3575)
A layer is absolutely unstable if the temperature decrease with height is- Abetween 1°C per 100m and 0.65°C per 100m
- Bmore than 1°C per 100m
- Cless than 0.65°C per 100m
- D0.65°C per 100m
17850.3.3.1 (3576)
A layer in which the temperature remains constant with height is- Aneutral
- Bconditionally unstable
- Cunstable
- Dabsolutely stable
17950.3.3.1 (3581)
In a layer of air the decrease in temperature per 100 metres increase in height is
more than 1°C. This layer can be described as being- Aconditionally stable
- Babsolutely stable
- Cabsolutely unstable
- Dconditionally unstable
18050.3.3.1 (3583)
The stability in a layer is increasing if- Awarm air is advected in the upper part and cold air in the lower part
- Bwarm and moist air is advected in the lower part
- Ccold and dry air is advected in the upper partd
- Dwarm air is advected in the lower part and cold air in the upper part
18150.4.1.1 (3590)
Which of the following processes within a layer of air may lead to the building of
CU and CB clouds?- AConvection.
- BSubsidence.
- CRadiation.
- DFrontal lifting within stable layers.
18250.4.1.1 (3593)
Convective clouds are formed- Ain stable atmosphere
- Bin summer during the day only
- Cin unstable atmosphere
- Din mid-latitudes only
18350.4.1.2 (3599)
What is the main composition of clouds classified as ""high level clouds""?- ASupercooled water droplets.
- BIce crystals.
- CWater vapour
- DWater droplets.
18450.4.1.2 (3601)
Which of the following cloud is classified as low level cloud ?- ACS
- BST
- CAS
- DCC
18550.4.1.2 (3602)
Which types of clouds are typical evidence of stable air conditions?
- ACU, CB
- BNS, CU
- CST, AS
- DCB, CC
18650.4.1.2 (3605)
Which of the following types of cloud can extend over the low, medium and high
cloud levels ?- ACB
- BST
- CAC
- DCI
18750.4.1.2 (3608)
Which of the following cloud types is found at high levels?- ACU
- BCI
- CAS
- DSC
18850.4.1.2 (3614)
Clouds, classified as being low level are considered to have bases from- A1000 to 2000 FT
- Bthe surface to 6500 FT
- C100 to 200 FT
- D500 to 1000 FT
18950.4.1.2 (3615)
Which of the following are medium level clouds ?- AAltostratus and altocumulus
- BAll convective clouds
- CCirrocumulus and cirrostratus
- DCumulonimbus
19050.4.1.2 (3616)
What type of cloud is being described ?A generally grey cloud layer with fairly
uniform base and uniform appearance, which may give drizzle or snow grains.
When the sun is visible through the cloud, the outline is clearly discernible.
Sometimes it appears in the form of ragged patches.- AAltostratus
- BNimbostratus
- CStratus
- DCirrostratus
19150.4.1.2 (3617)
The presence of altocumulus castellanus indicates- Astrong convection at low height
- Bsubsidence in a large part of the troposphere
- Cinstability in the middle troposphere
- Dstability in the higher troposphere
19250.4.1.4 (3619)
What are the characteristics of cumuliform clouds?- ASmall water droplets, stability, no turbulence and extensive areas of rain.
- BLarge water droplets, stability, no turbulence, showers and mainly rime ice.
- CLarge water droplets, instability, turbulence, showers and mainly clear ice.
- DSmall water droplets, instability, turbulence, extensive areas of rain and rime ice.
19350.4.1.4 (3620)
In which of the following conditions is moderate to severe airframe icing most
likely to be encountered?- AIn Nimbostratus cloud
- Bin clear air above the freezing level
- CBelow the freezing level in clear air
- DWithin cloud of any type
19450.4.1.4 (3622)
Cumulus clouds are an indication for- Astability
- Bup and downdrafts
- Cthe approach of a cold front
- Dthe approach of a warm front
19550.4.2.1 (3624)
What is the average vertical extent of radiation fog?- A500 FT.
- B2 000 FT.
- C5 000 FT.
- D10 000 FT.
19650.4.2.1 (3629)
What are the differences between radiation fog and advection fog ?- ARadiation fog forms only on the ground, advection fog only on the sea.
- BRadiation fog forms due to surface cooling at night in a light wind. Advection fog
forms when warm humid air flows over a cold surface. - CRadiation fog forms due to night cooling and advection fog due to daytime cooling.
- DRadiation fog is formed by surface cooling in a calm wind. Advection fog is formed by
evaporation over the sea.
19750.4.2.1 (3630)
What type of fog is most likely to form over flat land during a clear night, with calm
or light wind conditions ?- AAdvection.
- BRadiation.
- CSteam.
- DOrographic.
19850.4.2.1 (3631)
Under which of these conditions is radiation fog most likely to form?- AVery dry air
- BStrong surface winds
- CLittle or no cloud
- DVery low temperature
19950.4.2.1 (3633)
When the temperature and dew point are less than one degree apart the weather
conditions are most likely to be- Aclear and cool
- Bfog or low cloud
- Cunlimited visibility
- Dhigh scattered clouds
20050.4.2.1 (3634)
The morning following a clear, calm night when the temperature has dropped to
the dewpoint, is likely to produce- Aradiation fog
- Ba cold front
- Cadvection fog
- Dgood clear weather
Informações
- Descrição
- Aviacion (Examen ) Quiz sobre EASA ATP QATAR YELLOW 3, criado por Alejandro Castillo em 23-05-2018.
- Autor
- Alejandro Castillo
- Idioma
- Español
- Visualizações
- 90
- Etiquetas
- Avaliação
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