Quiz
scor1
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Perguntas do quiz (48)
1Which feature requires a network discovery policy on the Cisco Firepower Next Generation Intrusion
Prevention System?- Asecurity intelligence
- Bimpact flags
- Chealth monitoring
- DURL filtering
2Which statement about the authentication protocol used in the configuration is true?
- AThe authentication request contains only a password
- BThe authentication request contains only a username
- CThe authentication and authorization requests are grouped in a single packet.
- DThere are separate authentication and authorization request packets.
3Which two preventive measures are used to control cross-site scripting? (Choose two.)
- AEnable client-side scripts on a per-domain basis.
- BIncorporate contextual output encoding/escaping.
- CDisable cookie inspection in the HTML inspection engine.
- DRun untrusted HTML input through an HTML sanitization engine.
- ESameSite cookie attribute should not be used.
4Which policy is used to capture host information on the Cisco Firepower Next Generation Intrusion
Prevention System?- Acorrelation
- Bintrusion
- Caccess control
- Dnetwork discovery
5Which command was used to generate this output and to show which ports are authenticating with dot1x
or mab?
- Ashow authentication registrations
- Bshow authentication method
- Cshow dot1x all
- Dshow authentication sessions
6An engineer is configuring a Cisco ESA and wants to control whether to accept or reject email messages to a recipient address.
Which list contains the allowed recipient addresses?- ASAT
- BBAT
- CHAT
- DRAT
7Which two capabilities does TAXII support? (Choose two.)
- Aexchange
- Bpull messaging
- Cbinding
- Dcorrelation
- Emitigating
8Which policy represents a shared set of features or parameters that define the aspects of a managed device that are likely to be similar to other managed devices in a deployment?
- Agroup policy
- Baccess control policy
- Cdevice management policy
- Dplatform service policy
9An administrator wants to ensure that all endpoints are compliant before users are allowed access on the corporate network. The endpoints must have the corporate antivirus application installed and be running the latest build of Windows 10.
What must the administrator implement to ensure that all devices are compliant before they are allowed on the network?- ACisco Identity Services Engine and AnyConnect Posture module
- BCisco Stealthwatch and Cisco Identity Services Engine integration
- CCisco ASA firewall with Dynamic Access Policies configured
- DCisco Identity Services Engine with PxGrid services enabled
10What are two Detection and Analytics Engines of Cognitive Threat Analytics? (Choose two.)
- Adata exfiltration
- Bcommand and control communication
- Cintelligent proxy
- Dsnort
- EURL categorization
11In which form of attack is alternate encoding, such as hexadecimal representation, most often observed?
- Asmurf
- Bdistributed denial of service
- Ccross-site scripting
- Drootkit exploit
12Which two conditions are prerequisites for stateful failover for IPsec? (Choose two.)
- AOnly the IKE configuration that is set up on the active device must be duplicated on the standby device; the IPsec configuration is copied automatically.
- BThe active and standby devices can run different versions of the Cisco IOS software but must be the same type of device.
- CThe IPsec configuration that is set up on the active device must be duplicated on the standby device.
- DOnly the IPsec configuration that is set up on the active device must be duplicated on the standby device; the IKE configuration is copied automatically.
- EThe active and standby devices must run the same version of the Cisco IOS software and must be the same type of device.
13When web policies are configured in Cisco Umbrella, what provides the ability to ensure that domains are blocked when they host malware, command and control, phishing, and more threats?
- AApplication Control
- BSecurity Category Blocking
- CContent Category Blocking
- DFile Analysis
14What two mechanisms are used to redirect users to a web portal to authenticate to ISE for guest services? (Choose two.)
- ATACACS+
- Bcentral web auth
- Csingle sign-on
- Dmultiple factor auth
- Elocal web auth
15What two mechanisms are used to redirect users to a web portal to authenticate to ISE for guest services? (Choose two.)
- ATACACS+
- Bcentral web auth
- Csingle sign-on
- Dmultiple factor auth
- Elocal web auth
16Which flaw does an attacker leverage when exploiting SQL injection vulnerabilities?
- Auser input validation in a web page or web application
- BLinux and Windows operating systems
- Cdatabase
- Dweb page images
17Which deployment model is the most secure when considering risks to cloud adoption?
- Apublic cloud
- Bhybrid cloud
- Ccommunity cloud
- Dprivate cloud
18What does the Cloudlock Apps Firewall do to mitigate security concerns from an application perspective?
- AIt allows the administrator to quarantine malicious files so that the application can function, just not maliciously.
- BIt discovers and controls cloud apps that are connected to a company’s corporate environment.
- CIt deletes any application that does not belong in the network.
- DIt sends the application information to an administrator to act on.
19Which exfiltration method does an attacker use to hide and encode data inside DNS requests and queries?
- ADNS tunneling
- BDNSCrypt
- CDNS security
- DDNSSEC
20Which algorithm provides encryption and authentication for data plane communication?
- AAES-GCM
- BSHA-96
- CAES-256
- DSHA-384
21Which technology reduces data loss by identifying sensitive information stored in public computing environments?
- ACisco SDA
- BCisco Firepower
- CCisco HyperFlex
- DCisco Cloudlock
22What does the number 15 represent in this configuration?
- Aprivilege level for an authorized user to this router
- Baccess list that identifies the SNMP devices that can access the router
- Cinterval in seconds between SNMPv3 authentication attempts
- Dnumber of possible failed attempts until the SNMPv3 user is locked out
23Which network monitoring solution uses streams and pushes operational data to provide a near real-time view of activity?
- ASNMP
- BSMTP
- Csyslog
- Dmodel-driven telemetry
24What is the result of running the crypto isakmp key ciscXXXXXXXX address 172.16.0.0 command?
- Aauthenticates the IKEv2 peers in the 172.16.0.0/16 range by using the key ciscXXXXXXXX
- Bauthenticates the IP address of the 172.16.0.0/32 peer by using the key ciscXXXXXXXX
- Cauthenticates the IKEv1 peers in the 172.16.0.0/16 range by using the key ciscXXXXXXXX
- Dsecures all the certificates in the IKE exchange by using the key ciscXXXXXXXX
25Which two probes are configured to gather attributes of connected endpoints using Cisco Identity Services Engine? (Choose two.)
- ARADIUS
- BTACACS+
- CDHCP
- DsFlow
- ESMTP
26Which solution protects hybrid cloud deployment workloads with application visibility and segmentation?
- ANexus
- BStealthwatch
- CFirepower
- DTetration
27What are the two most commonly used authentication factors in multifactor authentication? (Choose two)
- Abiometric factor
- Btime factor
- Cconfidentiality factor
- Dknowledge factor
- Eencryption factor
28Which two key and block sizes are valid for AES? (Choose two.)
- A64-bit block size, 112-bit key length
- B64-bit block size, 168-bit key length
- C128-bit block size, 192-bit key length
- D128-bit block size, 256-bit key length
- E192-bit block size, 256-bit key length
29How does Cisco Umbrella archive logs to an enterprise-owned storage?
- Aby using the Application Programming Interface to fetch the logs
- Bby sending logs via syslog to an on-premises or cloud-based syslog server
- Cby the system administrator downloading the logs from the Cisco Umbrella web portal
- Dby being configured to send logs to a self-managed AWS S3 bucket
30In which cloud services model is the tenant responsible for virtual machine OS patching?
- AIaaS
- BUCaaS
- CPaaS
- DSaaS
31Which two descriptions of AES encryption are true? (Choose two.)
- AAES is less secure than 3DES.
- BAES is more secure than 3DES.
- CAES can use a 168-bit key for encryption.
- DAES can use a 256-bit key for encryption.
- EAES encrypts and decrypts a key three times in sequence.
32Which technology is used to improve web traffic performance by proxy caching?
- AWSA
- BFirepower
- CFireSIGHT
- DASA
33Which statement about the configuration of Cisco ASA NetFlow v9 Secure Event Logging is true?
- ATo view bandwidth usage for NetFlow records, the QoS feature must be enabled.
- BA sysopt command can be used to enable NSEL on a specific interface.
- CNSEL can be used without a collector configured.
- DA flow-export event type must be defined under a policy.
34Which benefit does endpoint security provide the overall security posture of an organization?
- AIt streamlines the incident response process to automatically perform digital forensics on the endpoint.
- BIt allows the organization to mitigate web-based attacks as long as the user is active in the domain.
- CIt allows the organization to detect and respond to threats at the edge of the network.
- DIt allows the organization to detect and mitigate threats that the perimeter security devices do not
detect.
35An engineer configured a new network identity in Cisco Umbrella but must verify that traffic is being routed through the Cisco Umbrella network.
Which action tests the routing?- AEnsure that the client computers are pointing to the on-premises DNS servers
- BEnable the Intelligent Proxy to validate that traffic is being routed correctly
- CAdd the public IP address that the client computers are behind to a Core Identity
- DBrowse to http://welcome.umbrella.com/to validate that the new identity is working
36What is a language format designed to exchange threat intelligence that can be transported over the TAXII protocol
- ASTIX
- BXMPP
- CpxGrid
- DSMTP
37What are two list types within AMP for Endpoints Outbreak Control? (Choose two.)
- Ablocked ports
- Bsimple custom detections
- Ccommand and control
- Dallowed applications
- EURL
38Which command enables 802.1X globally on a Cisco switch?
- Adot1x system-auth-control
- Bdot1x pae authenticator
- Cauthentication port-control auto
- Daaa new-model
39What is the function of Cisco Cloudlock for data security?
- Adata loss prevention
- Bcontrols malicious cloud apps
- Cdetects anomalies
- Duser and entity behavior analytics
40For which two conditions can an endpoint be checked using ISE posture assessment? (Choose two.)
- Acomputer identity
- BWindows service
- Cuser identity
- DWindows firewall
- Edefault browser
41What is a characteristic of Dynamic ARP Inspection?
- ADAI determines the validity of an ARP packet based on valid IP to MAC address bindings from the DHCP snooping binding database
- BIn a typical network, make all ports as trusted except for the ports connecting to switches, which are untrusted.
- CDAI associates a trust state with each switch.
- DDAI intercepts all ARP requests and responses on trusted ports only.
42Which Cisco product provides proactive endpoint protection and allows administrators to centrally manage the deployment?
- ANGFW
- BAMP
- CWSA
- DESA
43Where are individual sites specified to be blacklisted in Cisco Umbrella?
- Aapplication settings
- Bcontent categories
- Csecurity settings
- Ddestination lists
44Which statement about IOS zone-based firewalls is true?
- AAn unassigned interface can communicate with assigned interfaces
- BOnly one interface can be assigned to a zone.
- CAn interface can be assigned to multiple zones.
- DAn interface can be assigned only to one zone.
45Which two activities can be done using Cisco DNA Center? (Choose two.)
- ADHCP
- Bdesign
- Caccounting
- DDNS
- Eprovision
46Which ID store requires that a shadow user be created on Cisco ISE for the admin login to work?
- ARSA SecureID
- BInternal Database
- CActive Directory
- DLDAP
47How is ICMP used an exfiltration technique?
- Aby flooding the destination host with unreachable packets
- Bby sending large numbers of ICMP packets with a targeted hosts source IP address using an IP broadcast address
- Cby encrypting the payload in an ICMP packet to carry out command and control tasks on a compromised host
- Dby overwhelming a targeted host with ICMP echo-request packets
48What is the difference between deceptive phishing and spear phishing?
- ADeceptive phishing is an attacked aimed at a specific user in the organization who holds a C-level role
- BA spear phishing campaign is aimed at a specific person versus a group of people.
- CSpear phishing is when the attack is aimed at the C-level executives of an organization.
- DDeceptive phishing hijacks and manipulates the DNS server of the victim and redirects the user to a false webpage.
Informações
- Descrição
- Quiz sobre scor1, criado por Abd Ha em 21-04-2020.
- Autor
- Abd Ha
- Idioma
- English
- Visualizações
- 150
- Histórico
- Criado em 21 abr 2020 · atualizado em 21 abr 2020
- Avaliação
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