Quiz
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Perguntas do quiz (157)
1In which form of attack is alternate encoding, such as hexadecimal representation, most often observed?
- ASmurf
- Bdistributed denial of service
- Ccross-site scripting
- Drootkit exploita Telec
2Which flaw does an attacker leverage when exploiting SQL injection vulnerabilities?
- Auser input validation in a web page or web application
- BLinux and Windows operating systems
- Cdatabase
- Dweb page images
3Which two prevention techniques are used to mitigate SQL injection attacks? (Choose two)
- ACheck integer, float, or Boolean string parameters to ensure accurate values.
- BUse prepared statements and parameterized queries.
- CSecure the connection between the web and the app tier.
- DWrite SQL code instead of using object-relational mapping libraries.
- EBlock SQL code execution in the web application database login.
4Which two endpoint measures are used to minimize the chances of falling victim to phishing and social engineering attacks? (Choose two)
- APatch for cross-site scripting.
- BPerform backups to the private cloud.
- CProtect against input validation and character escapes in the endpoint.
- DInstall a spam and virus email filter.
- EProtect systems with an up-to-date antimalware program.
5Which two mechanisms are used to control phishing attacks? (Choose two)
- AEnable browser alerts for fraudulent websites.
- BRevoke expired CRL of the websites.
- CImplement email fitering techniques
- DDefine security group memberships.
- EUse antispyware software.
6Which two behavioral patterns characterize a ping of death attack? (Choose two)
- AThe attack is fragmented into groups of 16 octets before transmission.
- BThe attack is fragmented into groups of 8 octets before transmission.
- CShort synchronized bursts of traffic are used to disrupt TCP connections.
- DMalformed packets are used to crash systems.
- EPublicly accessible DNS servers are typically used to execute the attack.
7Which two preventive measures are used to control cross-site scripting? (Choose two)
- AEnable client-side scripts on a per-domain basis.
- BIncorporate contextual output encoding/escaping.
- CDisable cookie inspection in the HTML inspection engine.
- DRun untrusted HTML input through an HTML sanitization engine
- ESame Site cookie attribute should not be used.
8What is the difference between deceptive phishing and spear phishing?
- ADeceptive phishing is an attacked aimed at a specific user in the organization who holds a C-level role.
- BA spear phishing campaign is aimed at a specific person versus a group of people.
- CSpear phishing is when the attack is aimed at the C-level executives of an organization.
- DDeceptive phishing hijacks and manipulates the DNS server of the victim and redirects the user to a false webpage.
9Which attack is commonly associated with C and C++ programming languages?
- Across-site scripting
- Bwater holing
- CDDoS
- Dbuffer overflow
10What is a language format designed to exchange threat intelligence that can be transported over the TAXII protocol?
- ASMTP
- BpxGrid
- CXMPP
- DSTIX
11Which two capabilities does TAXII support? (Choose two)
- AExchange
- BPull messaging
- CBinding
- DCorrelation
- EMitigating
12Which two risks is a company vulnerable to if it does not have a well-established patching solution for endpoints? (Choose two)
- Aexploits
- BARP spoofing
- Cdenial-of-service attacks
- Dmalware
- Eenviedrogings
13Which PKI enrollment method allows the user to separate authentication and enrollment actions and also provides an option to specify HTTP/TFTP commands to perform file retrieval from the server?
- Aurl
- Bterminal
- Cprofile
- Dsexfigned
14What are two rootkit types? (Choose two)
- Aregistry
- Bvirtual
- Cbootloader
- Duser mode
- Ebuffer mode
15Which form of attack is launched using botnets?
- AEIDDOS
- Bvirus
- CDDOS
- DTCP flood
16Which threat involves software being used to gain unauthorized access to a computer system?
- Avirus
- BNTP amplification
- Cping of death
- DHTTP flood
17Which type of attack is social engineering?
- Atrojan
- Bphishing
- Cmalware
- DMITM
18Which two key and block sizes are valid for AES? (Choose two)
- A64-bit block size, 112-bit key length
- B64-bit block size, 168-bit key length
- C128-bit block size, 192-bit key length
- D128-bit block size, 256-bit key length
- E192-bit block size, 256-bit key length
19Which two descriptions of AES encryption are true? (Choose two)
- AAES is less secure than 3DES.
- BAES is more secure than 3DES.
- CAES can use a 168-bit key for encryption.
- DAES can use a 256-bit key for encryption.
- EAES encrypts and decrypts a key three times in sequence.
20Which algorithm provides encryption and authentication for data plane communication?
- AAES-GCM
- BSHA-96
- CAES-256
- DSHA-384a
21Elliptic curve cryptography is a stronger more efficient cryptography method meant to replace which current encryption technology?
- A3DES
- BRSA
- CDES
- DAES
22What is the result of running the crypto isakmp key ciscXXXXXXXX address 172.16.0.0 command?
- Aauthenticates the IKEv2 peers in the 172.16.0.0/16 range by using the key ciscXXXXXXXX
- Bauthenticates the IP address of the 172.16.0.0/32 peer by using the key ciscXXXXXXXX
- Cauthenticates the IKEv1 peers in the 172.16.0.0/16 range by using the key ciscXXXXXXXX
- Dsecures all the certificates in the IKE exchange by using the key ciscXXXXXXXX
23Which technology must be used to implement secure VPN connectivity among company branches over a private IP cloud with any- to-any scalable connectivity?
- ADMVPN
- BFlexVPN
- CIPsec DVTI
- DGET VPN
24Which two conditions are prerequisites for stateful failover for IPsec? (Choose two)
- AOnly the IKE configuration that is set up on the active device must be duplicated on the standby device; the IPsec configuration is copied automatically
- BThe active and standby devices can run different versions of the Cisco IOS software but must be the same type of device.
- CThe IPsec configuration that is set up on the active device must be duplicated on the standby device
- DOnly the IPsec configuration that is set up on the active device must be duplicated on the standby device; the IKE configuration is copied automatically.
- EThe active and standby devices must run the same version of the Cisco IOS software and must be the same type of device.
25Which VPN technology can support a multivendor environment and secure traffic between sites?
- ASSL VPN
- BFlexVPN
- CGET VPN
- DDMVPN
26A network engineer is configuring DMVPN and entered the crypto isakmp key cisc0380739941 address 0.0.0.0 command on hostA. The tunnel is not being established to hostB. What action is needed to authenticate the VPN?
- AChange isakmp to ikev2 in the command on hosta.
- BEnter the command with a different password on hostB.
- CEnter the same command on hostB.
- DChange the password on hostA to the default password.
27A network administrator configured a site-to-site VPN tunnel between two Cisco IOS routers, and hosts are unable to communicate between two sites of VPN. The network administrator runs the debug crypto isakmp sa command to track VPN status. What is the problem according to this command output?
- Ahashing algorithm mismatch
- Bencryption algorithm mismatch
- Cauthentication key mismatch
- Dinteresting traffic was not applied
28What is a difference between FlexVPN and DMVPN?
- ADMVPN uses IKEv1 or IKEv2, FlexVPN only uses IKEv1
- BDMVPN uses only IKEv1 FlexVPN uses only IKEv2
- CFlexVPN uses IKEv2, DMVPN uses IKEv1 or IKEv2
- DFlexVPN uses IKEv1 or IKEv2, DMVPN uses only IKEv2
29Which protocol provides the strongest throughput performance when using Cisco AnyConnect VPN?
- ATLSv1.2
- BTLSv1.1
- CBJTLSv1
- DDTLSv1
30What is a commonality between DMVPN and FlexVPN technologies?
- AFlexVPN and DMVPN use IS-IS routing protocol to communicate with spokes
- BFlexVPN and DMVPN use the new key management protocol
- CFlexVPN and DMVPN use the same hashing algorithms
- DIOS routers run the same NHRP code for DMVPN and FlexVPN
31The main function of northbound APIs in the SDN architecture is to enable communication between which two areas of a network?
- ASDN controller and the cloud
- Bmanagement console and the SDN controller
- Cmanagement console and the cloud
- DSDN controller and the management solution
32Which two features of Cisco DNA Center are used in a Software Defined Network solution? (Choose two)
- Aaccounting
- Bassurance
- Cautomation
- Dauthentication
- Eencryption
33Which functions of an SDN architecture require southbound APIs to enable communication?
- Amanagement console and the SDN controller
- Bmanagement console and the cloud
- CSDN controller and the network elements
- DSDN controller and the cloud
34Which API is used for Content Security?
- ANX-OS API
- BIOS XR API
- COpenVuln API
- DAsyncOS API
35Which two request of REST API are valid on the Cisco ASA Platform? (Choose two)
- Aput
- Boptions
- Cget
- Dpush
- Econnect
36What is the result of this Python script of the Cisco DNA Center API?
- Aadds authentication to a switch
- Badds a switch to Cisco DNA Center
- Creceives information about a switch
- Ddeletes a switch from Cisco DNA Center
37What does the API do when connected to a Cisco security appliance?
- Aget the process and PID information from the computers in the network
- Bcreate an SNMP pull mechanism for managing AMP
- Cgather network telemetry information from AMP for endpoints
- Dgather the network interface information about the computers AMP sees
38Which feature requires a network discovery policy on the Cisco Firepower Next Generation Intrusion Prevention System?
- ASecurity Intelligence
- BImpact Flags
- CHealth Monitoring
- DURL Filtering
39Which two deployment model configurations are supported for Cisco FTDv in AWS? (Choose two)
- ACisco FTDv configured in routed mode and managed by an FMCv installed in AWS
- BCisco FTDv with one management interface and two traffic interfaces configured
- CCisco FTDv configured in routed mode and managed by a physical FMC appliance on premises
- DCisco FTDv with two management interfaces and one traffic interface configured
- ECisco FTDv configured in routed mode and IPv6 configured
40Which option is the main function of Cisco Firepower impact flags?
- AThey alert administrators when critical events occur.
- BThey highlight known and suspected malicious IP addresses in reports.
- CThey correlate data about intrusions and vulnerability.
- DThey identify data that the ASA sends to the Firepower module.
41On Cisco Firepower Management Center, which policy is used to collect health modules alerts from managed devices?
- Ahealth policy
- Bsystem policy
- Ccorrelation policy
- Daccess control policy
- Ehealth awareness policy
42Which license is required for Cisco Security Intelligence to work on the Cisco Next Generation Intrusion Prevention System?
- Acontrol
- Bmalware
- CURL filtering
- Dprotect
43Which two are valid suppression types on a Cisco Next Generation Intrusion Prevention System? (Choose two)
- APort
- BRule
- CSource
- DApplication
- EProtocol
44Which feature is configured for managed devices in the device platform settings of the Firepower Management Center?
- Aquality of service
- Btime synchronization
- Cnetwork address translations
- Dintrusion policy
45Which information is required when adding a device to Firepower Management Center?
- Ausername and password
- Bencryption method
- Cdevice serial number
- Dregistration key
46Which two deployment modes does the Cisco ASA FirePower module support? (Choose two)
- Atransparent mode
- Brouted mode
- Cinline mode
- Dactive mode
- Epassive monitor-only mode
47The Cisco ASA must support TLS proxy for encrypted Cisco Unified Communications traffic, Where must the ASA be added on the Cisco UC Manager platform?
- ACertificate Trust List
- BEndpoint Trust List
- CEnterprise Proxy Service
- DSecured Collaboration Proxy
48Which statement about the configuration of Cisco ASA NetFlow v9 Secure Event Logging is true?
- ATo view bandwidth usage for NetFlow records, the 005 feature must be enabled
- BA sysopt command can be used to enable NSEL on a specific interface
- CNSEL can be used without a collector configured
- DA flow-export event type must be defined under a policy
49Which feature is supported when deploying Cisco ASAv within AWS public cloud?
- Amultiple context mode
- Buser deployment of Layer 3 networks
- CIPv6
- Dclustering
50Which statement describes a traffic profile on a Cisco Next Generation Intrusion Prevention System?
- AIt allows traffic if it does not meet the profile
- BIt defines a traffic baseline for traffic anomaly deduction
- CIt inspects hosts that meet the profile with more intrusion rules
- DIt blocks traffic if it does not meet the profile
51Which statement about IOS zone-based firewalls is true?
- AAn unassigned interface can communicate with assigned interfaces
- BOnly one interface can be assigned to a zone
- CAn interface can be assigned to multiple zones
- DAn interface can be assigned only to one zone
52What is a characteristic of Cisco ASA Netflow v9 Secure Event Logging?
- AIt tracks flow-create, flow-teardown, and flow-denied events.
- BIt provides stateless IP flow tracking that exports all records of a specific flow.
- CIt tracks the flow continuously and provides updates every 10 seconds.
- DIts events match all traffic classes in parallel
53Which CLI command is used to register a Cisco FirePower sensor to Firepower Management Center?
- Aconfigure system add <host><key>
- Bconfigure manager <key> add host
- Cconfigure manager delete
- Dconfigure manager add <host><key>
54 Which policy is used to capture host information on the Cisco Firepower Next Generation Intrusion Prevention System?
- ACorrelation
- BIntrusion
- CAccess Control
- DNetwork Discovery
55Which ASA deployment mode can provide separation of management on a shared appliance?
- ADMZ multiple zone mode
- Btransparent firewall mode
- Cmultiple context mode
- Drouted mode
56Refer to the exhibit. What is a result of the configuration?
- ATraffic from the DMZ network is redirected
- BTraffic from the inside network is redirected
- CAll TCP traffic is redirected
- DTraffic from the inside and DMZ networks is redirected
57Which policy represents a shared set of features or parameters that define the aspects of a managed device that are likely to be similar to other managed devices in a deployment?
- AGroup Policy
- BAccess Control Policy
- CDevice Management Policy
- DPlatform Service Policy
58Which two tasks allow NetFlow on a Cisco ASA 5500 Series firewall? (Choose two)
- AEnable NetFlow Version 9
- BCreate an ACL to allow UDP traffic on port 9996
- CApply NetFlow Exporter to the outside interface in the inbound direction.
- DCreate a class map to match interesting traffic.
- EDefine a NetFlow colector by using the flow-export command.
59A mall provides security services to customers with a shared appliance. The mall wants separation of management on the shared appliance. Which ASA deployment mode meets these needs?
- Arouted mode
- Btransparent mode
- Cmultiple context mode
- Dmultiple zone mode
60What is a characteristic of Firepower NGIPS inline deployment mode?
- AASA with Firepower module cannot be deployed
- BIt cannot take actions such as blocking traffic
- CIt is out-of-band from traffic
- DIt must have inline interface pairs configured
61An engineer wants to generate NetFlow records on traffic traversing the Cisco ASA. Which Cisco ASA command must be used?
- Aflow-export destination inside 1.1.1.1 2055
- Bip flow monitor input
- Cip flow-export destination 1.1.1.1 2055
- Dflow exporter
62How many interfaces per bridge group does an ASA bridge group deployment support?
- Aup to 2
- Bup to 4
- Cup to 8
- Dup to 16
63Which two application layer preprocessors are used by Firepower Next Generation Intrusion Prevention System? (Choose two)
- Apacket decoder
- BSIP
- Cmodbus
- Dinline normalization
- ESSL
64Which two features of Cisco Email Security can protect your organization against email threats? (Choose two)
- ATime-based one-time passwords
- BData loss prevention
- CHeuristic-based filtering
- DGeolocation-based filtering
- ENetFlow
65Why would a user choose an on-premises ESA versus the CES solution?
- ASensitive data must remain onsite,
- BDemand is unpredictable
- CThe server team wants to outsource this service
- DESA is deployed inline
66Which two features are used to configure Cisco ESA with a multilayer approach to fight viruses and malware? (Choose two)
- ASophos engine
- Bwhite list
- CRAT
- Doutbreak filters
- EDLP
67What is the purpose of the Decrypt for Application Detection feature within the WSA Decryption options?
- AIt decrypts HTTPS application traffic for unauthenticated users
- BIt alerts users when the WSA decrypts their traffic
- CIt decrypts HTTPS application traffic for authenticated users
- DIt provides enhanced HTTPS application detection for AsyncOSs
68Which two statements about a Cisco WSA configured in Transparent mode are true? (Choose two)
- AIt can handle explicit HTTP requests.
- BIt requires a PAC file for the client web browser.
- CIt requires a proxy for the client web browser.
- DWCCP v2-enabled devices can automatically redirect traffic destined to port 80.
- ELayer 4 switches can automatically redirect traffic destined to port 80.
69Which action controls the amount of URL text that is stored in Cisco WSA logs files?
- AConfigure the datasecurityconfig command
- BConfigure the advancedproxyconfig command with the HTTPS subcommand
- CConfigure a small log-entry size
- DConfigure-a maximum packet size
70An engineer is configuring a Cisco ESA and wants to control whether to accept or reject email messages to a recipient address. Which list contains the allowed recipient addresses?
- ASAT
- BBAT
- CHAT
- DRAT
71Which two services must remain as on-premises equipment when a hybrid email solution is deployed? (Choose two)
- ADDoS
- Bantispam
- Cantivirus
- Dencryption
- EDLP
72Which Talos reputation center allows you to track the reputation of IP addresses for email and web traffic?
- AIP Blacklist Center
- BFile Reputation Center
- CAMP Reputation Center
- DIP and Domain Reputation Center
73Which proxy mode must be used on Cisco WSA to redirect TCP traffic with WCCP?
- Atransparent
- Bredirection
- Cforward
- Dproxy gateway
74After deploying a Cisco ESA on your network, you notice that some messages fail to reach their destinations. Which task can you perform to determine where each message was lost?
- AConfigure the trackingconfig command to enable message tracking.
- BGenerate a system report.
- CReview the log files.
- DPerform a trace.
75What is the primary benefit of deploying an ESA in hybrid mode?
- AYou can fine-tune its settings to provide the optimum balance between security and performance for your environment
- BIt provides the lowest total cost of ownership by reducing the need for physical appliances
- CIt provides maximum protection and control of outbound messages
- DIt provides email security while supporting the transition to the cloud
76What is the primary role of the Cisco Email Security Appliance?
- AMail Submission Agent
- BMail Transfer Agent
- CMail Delivery Agent
- DMail User Agent
77Which technology is used to improve web traffic performance by proxy caching?
- AWSA
- BFirepower
- CFireSIGHT
- DASA
78In which two ways does a system administrator send web traffic transparently to the Web Security Appliance? (Choose two)
- Aconfigure Active Directory Group Policies to push proxy settings
- Bconfigure policy-based routing on the network infrastructure
- Creference a Proxy Auto Config file
- Dconfigure the proxy IP address in the web-browser settings
- Euse Web Cache Communication Protocol
79Which technology reduces data loss by identifying sensitive information stored in public computing environments?
- ACisco SDA
- BCisco Firepower
- CCisco HyperFlex
- DCisco Cloudlock
80Which deployment model is the most secure when considering risks to cloud adoption?
- APublic Cloud
- BHybrid Cloud
- CCommunity Cloud
- DPrivate Cloud
81In which cloud services model is the tenant responsible for virtual machine OS patching?
- AlaaS
- BUCaas
- CPaaS
- DSaas
82Which cloud service model offers an environment for cloud consumers to develop and deploy applications without needing to manage or maintain the underlying cloud infrastructure?
- APaas
- BXaas
- ClaaS
- DSaas
83What does the Cloudlock Apps Firewall do to mitigate security concerns from an application perspective?
- AIt allows the administrator to quarantine malicious files so that the application can function, just not maliciously.
- BIt discovers and controls cloud apps that are connected to a company's corporate environment.
- CIt deletes any application that does not belong in the network.
- DIt sends the application information to an administrator to act on
84Which solution protects hybrid cloud deployment workloads with application visibility and segmentation?
- ANexus
- BStealthwatch
- CFirepower
- DTetration
85In a PaaS model, which layer is the tenant responsible for maintaining and patching?
- Ahypervisor
- Bvirtual machine
- Cnetwork
- Dapplication
86On which part of the IT environment does DevSecOps focus?
- Aapplication development
- Bwireless network
- Cdata center
- Dperimeter network
87What is the function of Cisco Cloudlock for data security?
- Adata loss prevention
- Bcontrols malicious cloud apps
- Cdetects anomalies
- Duser and entity behavior analytics
88An administrator wants to ensure that all endpoints are compliant before users are allowed access on the corporate network. The endpoints must have the corporate antivirus application installed and be running the latest build of Windows 10. What must the administrator implement to ensure that all devices are compliant before they are allowed on the network?
- ACisco Identity Services Engine and AnyConnect Posture module
- BCisco Stealthwatch and Cisco Identity Services Engine integration
- CCisco ASA firewall with Dynamic Access Policies configured
- DCisco Identity Services Engine with PxGrid services enabled
89An engineer must force an endpoint to re-authenticate an already authenticated session without disrupting the endpoint to apply a new or updated policy from ISE. Which CoA type achieves this goal?
- APort Bounce
- BCoA Terminate
- CCoA Reauth
- DCoA Session Query
90Which two probes are configured to gather attributes of connected endpoints using Cisco Identity Services Engine? (Choose two)
- ARADIUS
- BTACACS+
- CDHCP
- DsFlow
- ESMTP
91Which ID store requires that a shadow user be created on Cisco ISE for the admin login to work?
- ARSA SecurelD
- BInternal Database
- CActive Directory
- DLDAP
92An engineer used a posture check on a Microsoft Windows endpoint and discovered that the MS17-010 patch was not installed
Which left the endpoint vulnerable to WannaCry ransomware. Which two solutions mitigate the risk of this ransom ware infection? (Choose two)- AConfigure a posture policy in Cisco Identity Services Engine to install the MS17-010 patch before allowing access on the network
- BSet up a profiling policy in Cisco Identity Service Engine to check and endpoint patch level before allowing access on the network.
- CConfigure a posture policy in Cisco Identity Services Engine to check that an endpoint patch level is met before allowing access on the network.
- DConfigure endpoint firewall policies to stop the exploit traffic from being allowed to run and replicate throughout the network.
- ESet up a well-defined endpoint patching strategy to ensure that endpoints have critical vulnerabilities patched in a timely fashion.
93Which feature of Cisco ASA allows VPN users to be postured against Cisco ISE without requiring an inline posture node?
- ARADIUS Change of Authorization
- Bdevice tracking
- CDHCP snooping
- DVLAN hopping
94What two mechanisms are used to redirect users to a web portal to authenticate to ISE for guest services? (Choose two)
- Amultiple factor auth
- Blocal web auth
- Csingle sign-on
- Dcentral web auth
- ETACACS+
95For which two conditions can an endpoint be checked using ISE posture assessment? (Choose two)
- AWindows service
- Bcomputer identity
- Cuser identity
- DWindows firewall
- Edefault browser
96Which compliance status is shown when a configured posture policy requirement is not met?
- Acompliant
- Bunknown
- Cauthorized
- Dnoncompliant
97Which benefit is provided by ensuring that an endpoint is compliant with a posture policy configured in Cisco ISE?
- AIt allows the endpoint to authenticate with 802.1x or MAB
- BIt verifies that the endpoint has the latest Microsoft security patches installed
- CIt adds endpoints to identity groups dynamically
- DIt allows CoA to be applied if the endpoint status is compliant
98Which IPS engine detects ARP spoofing?
- AAtomic ARP Engine
- BService Generic Engine
- CARP Inspection Engine
- DAIC Engine
99What is a characteristic of Dynamic ARP Inspection?
- ADAI determines the validity of an ARP packet based on valid IP to MAC address bindings from the DHCP snooping binding database.
- BIn a typical network, make all ports as trusted except for the ports connecting to switches, which are untrusted
- CDAI associates a trust state with each switch
- DDAI intercepts all ARP requests and responses on trusted ports only.
100What is a characteristic of traffic storm control behavior?
- ATraffic storm control drops all broadcast and multicast traffic if the combined traffic exceeds the level within the interval.
- BTraffic storm control cannot determine if the packet is unicast or broadcast.
- CTraffic storm control monitors incoming traffic levels over a 10-second traffic storm control interval
- DTraffic storm control uses the Individual/Group bit in the packet source address to determine if the packet is unicast or broadcast
101A malicious user gained network access by spoofing printer connections that were authorized using MAB on four different switch ports at the same time. What two catalyst switch security features will prevent further violations? (Choose two)
- ADHCP Snooping
- B802.1AE MacSec
- CPort security
- DIP Device track
- EDynamic ARP inspection
- FPrivate VLANs
102Which command enables 802.1X globally on a Cisco switch?
- Adot1x system-auth-control
- Bdot1x pae authenticator
- Cauthentication port-control aut
- Daaa new-model
103Which RADIUS attribute can you use to filter MAB requests in an 802.1 x deployment?
- A1
- B2
- C6
- D31
104A network administrator configures Dynamic ARP Inspection on a switch. After Dynamic ARP Inspection is applied, all users on that switch are unable to communicate with any destination. The network administrator checks the interface status of all interfaces, and there is no err-disabled interface. What is causing this problem?
- ADHCP snooping has not been enabled on all VLANs
- BThe ip arp inspection limit command is applied on all interfaces and is blocking the traffic of all users.
- CDynamic ARP Inspection has not been enabled on all VLANS
- DThe no ip arp inspection trust command is applied on all user host interfaces
105Refer to the exhibit. An engineer configured wired 802.1x on the network and is unable to get a laptop to authenticate. Which port configuration is missing?
- Aauthentication open
- Bdot1x reauthentication
- Ccisp enable
- Ddot1x pae authenticator
106Which SNMPv3 configuration must be used to support the strongest security possible?
- Aasa-host(config)*snmp-server group myv3 v3 priv
asa-host(config)+*snmp-server user andy myv3 auth sha cisco priv des ciscxXXXXXXXX
asa-host(config)*snmp-server host inside 10.255.254,1 version 3 andy - Basa-host(config)*snmp-server group myv3 v3 noauth
asa-host(config)+*snmp-server user andy myv3 auth sha cisco priv aes 256 ciscxXXXXXXXX
asa-host(config)*snmp-server host inside 10.255.254.1 version 3 andy - Casa-host(config)*snmpserver group myv3 v3 noauth
asa-host(config)*snmp-server user andy myv3 auth sha cisco priv 3des ciscxx00000X
asa-host(config)+*snmp-server host inside 10.255.254.1 version 3 andy - Dasa-host(config)+*snmp-server group myv3 v3 priv
asa-host(config)*+snmp-server user andy myv3 auth sha cisco priv aes 256 ciscxXXXXXXX
asa-host(config)+snmp-server host inside 10.255.254.1 version 3 andy
- Aasa-host(config)*snmp-server group myv3 v3 priv
107Refer to the exhibit. Which command was used to generate this mab?
- Ashow authentication registrations
- Bshow authentication method
- Cshow dot1x all
- DShow authentication sessions
108What Cisco command shows you the status of an 802,1X connection on interface gi0/1?
- Ashow authorization status
- Bshow authen sess int gi0/1
- Cshow connection status gi0/1
- Dshow ver.qi0/1
109Refer to the exhibit. What does the number 15 represent in this configuration?
snmp-server group SNMP v3 auth access 15- Aprivilege level for an authorized user to this router
- Baccess list that identifies the SNMP devices that can access the router
- Cinterval in seconds between SNMPy3 authentication attempts
- Dnumber of possible failed attempts until the SNMPv3 user is locked out
110Under which two circumstances is a CoA issued? (Choose two)
- AA new authentication rule was added to the policy on the Policy Service node.
- BAn endpoint is deleted on the Identity Service Engine server
- CA new Identity Source Sequence is created and referenced in the authentication policy.
- DAn endpoint is profiled for the first time.
- EA new Identity Service Engine server is added to the deployment with the Administration persona
111 Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator configures command authorization for the admin5 user. What is the admin5 user able to do on HQ_Router after this configuration?
- Aset the IP address of an interface
- Bcomplete no configurations
- Ccomplete all configurations
- Dadd subinterfaces
112A network engineer has entered the snmp-server user andy myv3 auth sha cisco priv aes 256 cisc0380739941 command and needs to send SNMP information to a host at 10.255.254.1. Which command achieves this goal?
- Asnmp-server host inside 10.255.254.1 version 3 andy
- Bsnmp-server host inside 10.255.254.1 version 3 myv3
- Csnmp-server host inside 10.255.254.1 snmpv3 andy
- Dsnmp-server host inside 10.255.254,1 snmpv3 myv3
113Which telemetry data captures variations seen within the flow, such as the packets TTL, IP/TCP flags, and payload length?
- Ainterpacket variation
- Bsoftware package variation
- Cflow insight variation
- Dprocess details variation
114How is ICMP used an exfiltration technique?
- Aby flooding the destination host with unreachable packets
- Bby sending large numbers of ICMP packets with a targeted hosts source IP address using an IP broadcast address
- Cby encrypting the payload in an ICMP packet to carry out command and control tasks on a compromised host
- Dby overwhelming a targeted host with ICMP echo-request packets
115Which exfiltration method does an attacker use to hide and encode data inside DNS requests and queries?
- ADNS tunneling
- BDNSCrypt
- CDNS security
- DDNSSEC
116How is DNS tunneling used to exfiltrate data out of a corporate network?
- AIt corrupts DNS servers by replacing the actual IP address with a rogue address to collect information or start other attacks.
- BIt encodes the payload with random characters that are broken into short strings and the DNS server rebuilds the exfiltrated data.
- CIt redirects DNS requests to a malicious server used to steal user credentials, which allows further damage and theft on the network
- DIt leverages the DNS server by permitting recursive lookups to spread the attack to other DNS servers.
117Which two characteristics of messenger protocols make data exfiltration difficult to detect and prevent? (Choose two)
- AOutgoing traffic is allowed so users can communicate with outside organizations.
- BMalware infects the messenger application on the user endpoint to send company data.
- CTraffic is encrypted, which prevents visibility on firewalls and IPS systems.
- DAn exposed API for the messaging platform is used to send large amounts of data.
- EMessenger applications cannot be segmented with standard network controls.
118Which Cisco AMP file disposition valid?
- Apristine
- Bmalware
- Cdirty
- Dnon malicious
119When using Cisco AMP for Networks which feature copies a file to the Cisco AMP cloud for analysis?
- ASpero analysis
- Bdynamic analysis
- Csandbox analysis
- Dmalware analysis
120Which Cisco Advanced Malware protection for Endpoints deployment architecture is designed to keep data within a network perimeter?
- Acloud web services
- Bnetwork AMP
- Cprivate cloud
- Dpublic cloud
121Which capability is exclusive to a Cisco AMP public cloud instance as compared to a private cloud instance?
- ARBAC
- BETHOS detection engine
- CSPERO detection engine
- DTETRA detection engine
122An engineer is configuring Secure Endpoint and wants to block certain files from executing. Which outbreak control method is used to accomplish this task?
- Adevice flow correlation
- Bsimple detections
- Capplication blocking list
- Dadvanced custom detections
123Which function is the primary function of Cisco AMP threat Grid?
- Aautomated email encryption
- Bapplying a real-time URL blacklist
- Cautomated malware analysis
- Dmonitoring network traffic
124What are two list types within Cisco Secure Endpoint Outbreak Control? (Choose two)
- Ablocked ports
- Bsimple custom detections
- Ccommand and control
- Dallowed applications
- EURL
125What is a required prerequisite to enable malware file scanning for the Secure Internet Gateway?
- AEnable IP Layer enforcement.
- BActivate the Advanced Malware Protection license
- CActivate SSL decryption
- DEnable Intelligent Proxy
126When wired 802.1X authentication is implemented, which two components are required? (Choose two)
- Aauthentication server: Cisco Identity Service Engine
- Bsupplicant: Cisco AnyConnect ISE Posture module
- Cauthenticator: Cisco Catalyst switch
- Dauthenticator; Cisco Identity Services Engine
- Eauthenticatiorun server: Cisco Prime Infrastcture
127Refer to the exhibit. Which command was used to display this output?
- Ashow dot1x all
- Bshow dot1x
- Cshow dot1x all summary
- Dshow dot1x interface gi1/0/12
128Refer to the exhibit. Which statement about the authentication protocol used in the configuration is true?
aaa new-model
radius-server host 10.0.0.12 key secret12- AThe authentication request contains only a password
- BThe authentication request contains only a username
- CThe authentication and authorization requests are grouped in a single packet
- DThere are separate authentication and authorization request packets
129An engineer needs a solution for TACACS+ authentication and authorization for device administration.
The engineer also wants to enhance wired and wireless network security by requiring users and endpoints to use 802.1X, MAB, or WebAuth. Which product meets all of these requirements?- ACisco Prime Infrastructure
- BCisco Identity Services Engine
- CCisco Stealthwatch
- DCisco AMP for Endpoints
130Which Cisco command enables authentication, authorization, and accounting globally so that CoA is supported on the device?
- Aaaa server radius dynamic-author
- Baaa new-model
- Cauth-type all
- Dip device-tracking
131An MDM provides which two advantages to an organization with regards to device management? (Choose two)
- Aasset inventory management
- Ballowed application management
- CActive Directory group policy management
- Dnetwork device management
- Ecritical device management
132Which Cisco product provides proactive endpoint protection and allows administrators to centrally manage the deployment?
- ANGFW
- BAMP
- CWSA
- DESA
133Which benefit does endpoint security provide the overall security posture of an organization?
- AIt streamlines the incident response process to automatically perform digital forensics on the endpoint
- BIt allows the organization to mitigate web-based attacks as long as the user is active in the domain
- CIt allows the organization to detect and respond to threats at the edge of the network
- DIt allows the organization to detect and mitigate threats that the perimeter security devices do not detect
134What are the two most commonly used authentication factors in multifactor authentication? (Choose two)
- Abiometric factor
- Btime factor
- Cconfidentiality factor
- Dencryption factor
- EKnowledge factor
135Which two kinds of attacks are prevented by multifactor authentication? (Choose two)
- Aphishing
- Bbrute force
- Cman-in-the-middle
- DDDOS
- Eteardrop
136What is the primary difference between an Endpoint Protection Platform and an Endpoint Detection and Response?
- AEPP focuses on prevention, and EDR focuses on advanced threats that evade perimeter defenses
- BEDR focuses on prevention, and EPP focuses on advanced threats that evade perimeter defenses
- CEPP focuses on network security, and EDR focuses on device security
- DEDR focuses on network security, and EPP focuses on device security
137An engineer wants to automatically assign endpoints that have a specific OUI into a new endpoint group. Which probe must be enabled for this type of profiling to work?
- ANetFlow
- BNMAP
- CSNMP
- DDHCP
138What are two reasons for implementing a multifactor authentication solution such as Duo Security provide to an organization? (Choose two)
- Aflexibility of different methods of 2FA such as phone callbacks, SMS passcodes, and push notifications
- Bsingle sign-on access to on-premises and cloud applications
- Cintegration with 802.1x security using native Microsoft Windows supplicant
- Dsecure access to on-premises and cloud applications
- Eidentification and correction of application vulnerabilities before allowing access to resources
139An engineer configured a new network identity in Cisco Umbrella but must verify that traffic is being routed through the Cisco Umbrella network. Which action tests the routing?
- AEnsure that the client computers are pointing to the on-premises DNS servers.
- BEnable the Intelligent Proxy to validate that traffic is being routed correctly.
- CAdd the public IP address that the client computers are behind to a Core Identity.
- DBrowse to http://welcome.umbrella.com/ to validate that the new identity is working.
140Which feature within Cisco Umbrella allows for the ability to inspect secure HTTP traffic?
- AFile Analysis
- BSafeSearch
- CSSL Decryption
- DDestination Lists
141How is Cisco Umbrella configured to log only security events?
- Aper policy
- Bin the Reporting settings
- Cin the Security Settings section
- Dper network in the Deployments section
142How does Cisco Umbrella archive logs to an enterprise owned storage?
- Aby using the Application Programming Interface to fetch the logs
- Bby sending logs via syslog to an on-premises or cloud-based syslog server
- Cby the system administrator downloading the logs from the Cisco Umbrella web portal
- Dby being configured to send logs to a self-managed AWS S3 bucket
143When web policies are configured in Cisco Umbrella, what provides the ability to ensure that domains are blocked when they host malware, command and control, phishing, and more threats?
- AApplication Control
- BSecurity Category Blocking
- CContent Category Blocking
- DFile Analysis
144Which Cisco solution does Cisco Umbrella integrate with to determine if a URL is malicious?
- AAMP
- BAnyConnect
- CDynDNS
- DTalos
145Where are individual sites specified to be blacklisted in Cisco Umbrella?
- Aapplication settings
- Bcontent categories
- Csecurity settings
- Ddestination lists
146Which Cisco security solution protects remote users against phishing attacks when they are not connected to the VPN?
- ACisco Stealthwatch
- BCisco Umbrella
- CCisco Firepower
- DNGIPS
147How does Cisco Stealthwatch Cloud provide security for cloud environments?
- AIt delivers visibility and threat detection.
- BIt prevents exfiltration of sensitive data.
- CIt assigns Internet-based DNS protection for clients and servers.
- DIt facilitates secure connectivity between public and private networks.
148What are two Detection and Analytics Engines of Cognitive Threat Analytics? (Choose two)
- Adata exfiltration
- Bcommand and control communication
- Cintelligent proxy
- Dsnort
- EURL categorization
149Which network monitoring solution uses streams and pushes operational data to provide a near real-time view of activity?
- ASNMP
- BSMTP
- Csyslog
- Dmodel-driven telemetry
150What provides visibility and awareness into what is currently occurring on the network?
- ACMX
- BWMI
- CPrime Infrastructure
- DTelemetry
151What can be integrated with Cisco Threat Intelligence Director to provide information about security threats, which allows the SOC to proactively automate responses to those threats?
- ACisco Umbrella
- BExternal Threat Feeds
- CCisco Threat Grid
- DCisco Stealthwatch
152Which solution combines Cisco IOS and 10S XE components to enable administrators to recognize applications, collect and send network metrics to Cisco Prime and other third-party management tools, and prioritize application traffic?
- ACisco Security Intelligence
- BCisco Application Visibility and Control
- CCisco Model Driven Telemetry
- DCisco DNA Center
153Which two activities can be done using Cisco DNA Center? (Choose two)
- ADHCP
- BDesign
- CAccounting
- DDNS
- EProvision
154What must be used to share data between multiple security products?
- ACisco Rapid Threat Containment
- BCisco Platform Exchange Grid
- CCisco Advanced Malware Protection
- DCisco Stealthwatch Cloud
155Which Cisco product is open, scalable, and built on IETF standards to allow multiple security products from Cisco and other vendors to share data and interoperate with each other?
- AAdvanced Malware Protection
- BPlatform Exchange Grid
- CMultifactor Platform Integration
- DD. Firepower Threat Defense
156What is a feature of the open platform capabilities of Cisco DNA Center?
- Aintent-based APIs
- Bautomation adapters
- Cdomain integration
- Dapplication-adapters
157What is the function of the Context Directory Agent?
- Amaintains users group memberships
- Brelays user authentication requests from Web Security Appliance to Active Directory
- Creads the Active Directory logs to map IP addresses to usernames
- Daccepts user authentication requests on behalf of Web Security Appliance for user identification
Informações
- Descrição
- Ingeniería Quiz sobre CCNP SCOR, criado por Fernando Mayorga em 18-06-2024.
- Autor
- Fernando Mayorga
- Idioma
- Español
- Visualizações
- 20
- Etiquetas
- Avaliação
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