Quiz
Last min mental revision
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Perguntas do quiz (60)
1Susan is a secondary school nurse. She has received a referral about Wendy from the guidance officer. Prior to meeting Wendy, Susan reads the school report and meets with Wendy's home room teacher. Susan is currently in what phase of the therapeutic relationship with Wendy?
- APre-orientation
- BOrientation
- CTermination
- DWorking
2A patient’s unresolved feelings related to loss would be MOST LIKELY observed during which phase of the therapeutic nurse-patient relationship?
- APre-orientation
- BWorking
- COrientation
- DTermination
3During which phase of the nurse-patient relationship can the nurse anticipate that identified patient issues will be explored and resolved?
- APreorientation
- BOrientation
- CWorking
- DTermination
4At what point in the nurse-patient relationship should a nurse plan to first address termination?
- ADuring the orientation phase
- BAt the end of the working phase
- CNear the beginning of the termination phase
- DWhen the patient initially brings up the topic
5You are assessing Deepak and you ask him what he might do if he was in a shop and heard a fire alarm. You are assessing which of the following?
- APerception
- BJudgement
- CMemory
- DConcentration
6Which of the following cognitive tasks is NOT an assessment of short term or long term
memory?- AAsk the patient to tell you his or her address and later, you check the answer with patient’s medical record.
- BAsk the patient to name as many animals as possible that can be found in the Zoo.
- CAsk the patient to name the current day/month/year.
- DInform the patient 3 objects (e.g. Apple, Newspaper and Train) and ask the patient to name the 3 objects immediately.
7Which of the below are examples of questions to screen for perception abnormalities:
- ADo you ever see, hear, smell, feel, or taste things that are not really there?
- BDid you think this was real at the time?
- CDo you still believe it was real?
- DAll of the above.
8Lisa is admitted with a tentative diagnosis of anorexia nervosa. The nurse should advise Lisa`s family that Lisa`s fear of being overweight can be equated to her desire to?
- ACalm her euphoria
- BMaintain a sense of control
- CBecome a model
- DPlease her partner
9Bulimia nervosa is characterised by recurrent binge eating and inappropriate use of compensatory behaviours. The most common example of a compensatory behaviour is:
Select the MOST CORRECT answer- ASelf-induced vomiting.
- BUse of laxatives.
- CExcessive exercising.
- DAll of the above.
10In Schizophrenia, the term anhedonia refers to?
- AAn inability to enjoy food
- BAn inability to express empathy
- CAn inability to react to enjoyable or pleasurable events
- DAn inability to react appropriately to social cues
11What? occurs most commonly in schizophrenia, depression, and bipolar disorder?
- ADecreased need to sleep
- BParanoid delusions
- CAvolition
- DLow self esteem
12Visual hallucinations are seen in:
- ADelirium tremens
- BPhobia
- CDepression
- DMania
13FRAMES is a model for conducting brief interventions within substance use settings. Which of the following relates to `F` in FRAMES acronym?
- AFliight of ideas
- BFeedback
- CFlashback
- DFrotteurism
14FRAMES is a model for conducting brief interventions within substance use settings. Which of the following relates to `R` in FRAMES acronym?
- AReliability
- BReinforcement
- CResponsibility
- DResistance
15FRAMES is a model for conducting brief interventions within substance use settings. Which of the following relates to `A` in FRAMES acronym?
- AAbulia
- BAffect
- CAnalysis
- DAdvice
16FRAMES is a model for conducting brief interventions within substance use settings. Which of the following relates to `M` in FRAMES acronym?
- AMenu Options
- BMania
- CMood
- DMemory
17FRAMES is a model for conducting brief interventions within substance use settings. Which of the following relates to `S` in FRAMES acronym?
- ASomatic hallucination
- BSomatic delusion
- CSelf-Efficacy
- DStupor
18When considering a client's risk of violence, a nurse might use the acronym STAMP for their assessment. The S in STAMP stands for?
- AStaring and eye contact
- BSign
- CSignal anxiety
- DSocial adaptation
19When considering a client's risk of violence, a nurse might use the acronym STAMP for their assessment. The T in STAMP stands for?
- AThought broadcasting
- BTone and volume of voice
- CTolerance
- DTemperament
20When considering a client's risk of violence, a nurse might use the acronym STAMP for their assessment. The M in STAMP stands for?
- AMood
- BMirroring
- CMumbling
- DMemory
21When considering a client's risk of violence, a nurse might use the acronym STAMP for their assessment. The P in STAMP stands for?
- APanic attack
- BParanoia
- CPhobia
- DPacing
22Which is not one of the five stages within the trans-theoretical (stages of change) model
- AMaintenance
- BPre-contemplation
- CBehavioural engagement
- DPreparation
23You smell something that no one else can and that has no physical source.
- Aan olfactory hallucination
- Ba tactile hallucination
- Ca gustatory hallucination
- Da visual hallucination
24You have a taste in your mouth that has no source.
- Aan olfactory hallucination
- Ba tactile hallucination
- Ca gustatory hallucination
- Da visual hallucination
25Delusion – a belief or impression maintained despite being contradicted by reality or rational argument, typically as a symptom of mental disorder.
- AVerdadeiro
- BFalso
26A significant risk factor for the development of an eating disorder is which if the following?
- ALow self-esteem
- BA very thin parent
- CHigh self esteem
- DHigh personal regard
27Which of the following is a diagnostic criterion for anorexia nervosa in DSMV?
- AA refusal to maintain a minimal body weight
- BA pathological fear of gaining weight
- CA distorted body image in which, even when clearly emaciated, sufferers continue to insist they are overweight
- DAll of the above
28Steven would experience panic if he goes to a shopping centre. He finds crowded places are difficult to escape. Steve may have:
- AAntlophobia
- BAgoraphobia
- CChronophobia
- DUrophobia
29Mania involves:
- ABoundless, frenzied energy.
- BFeelings of euphoria.
- CIdeas coming too fast and too many.
- DAll of the above.
30Which of the following is NOT true for someone experiencing a panic attack?
- Athey should be considered to have a respiratory problem until this is ruled out
- Bthe first step to treatment is to slow down their breathing
- Cthey will respond better if you raise your voice when talking to them
- Dthey are likely to present to an Emergency Department
31Jo is admitted to an acute adult mental health ward. Two days after her admission, Jo expresses suicidal ideation. Jo tells the nurse she feels at peace and is fine. Jo informs the nurse that she would like to be discharged. The nurse understands that:
- AJo's condition is improving and therefore home leave or discharge would be helpful
- BJo remains at risk of suicide and requires further assessment
- CJo is ready for discharge as she now feels well again
- DJo has resolved her negative affect and now feels hopeful for the future. Jo can be discharged
32The term suicidal ideation is defined as which of the following?
- AThe accidental act of taking one's own life
- BThinking about and planning one's own death
- CAn unintentional overdose
- DPlanning another's death
33Which of the following is not an antidepressant drug?
- ATricyclic antidepressants.
- BMonoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs).
- CSelective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs).
- DAntinoamine tritase rehibitor (ATRs).
34Anxiolytic drugs are used to treat:
- AThe symptoms of depression and mood disorder.
- BThe symptoms of anxiety and stress.
- CThe symptoms of psychosis and schizophrenia.
- DLoss of sexual desire.
35 Antipsychotics do which of the following?
- AAlleviate Major positive symptoms (such as thought disorder and hallucinations).
- BAlleviate Major negative symptoms (such as social withdrawal).
- CReducing the burden of institutional care.
- DPromote personal growth and productivity.
36Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs) are effective for the treatment of:
- ASchizophrenia.
- BMajor depression.
- CObsessive compulsive disorder.
- DGeneralized anxiety disorder.
37Jason tells you that he is being spied on by the Government and that as a result he needed to quit his job so that the spies could not find him. This is an example of which of the following?
- AIdeas of reference
- BVisual hallucination
- CTangential thinking
- DPersecutory delusion
38Generalised Anxiety Disorder (GAD) is a pervasive condition in which the sufferer experiences:
- AFear of fear.
- BContinual apprehension and anxiety about future events.
- CContinual flashbacks to past events.
- DA desire to check that the environment is safe.
39Tim has been diagnosed with schizophrenia and whilst experiencing a psychotic episode is hospitalised. Which of the following are likely to be Tim's negative symptoms?
- AAbsent, blunted or incongruous emotional responses.
- BSuicidal ideation, introversion, poor hygiene
- CDisorganised behaviours, pressure of speech, social isolation
- DAnhedonia, lethargy, social isolation
40In relation to alcohol use all of the following are symptoms of delirium tremens EXCEPT?
- AConfusion
- BVisual hallucination
- CDisorientation
- DInsomnia
41In Bipolar II Disorder, major depressive episodes alternate with periods of:
- AHyperventilation.
- BHypomania.
- CHypothermia.
- DHypoxia.
42The nurse working with a client with an antisocial personality disorder would expect which of the following behaviours?
- Awithdrawal from social activities
- Bcompliance with expectations and rules
- Cutilisation of rituals to allay anxiety
- Dexploitation of other clients
43In Schizophrenia psychotic symptoms such as hallucinations delusions, disorganised speech and grossly disorganised or catatonic behaviours are known as:
- ANegative symptoms
- BPositive symptoms
- CMediating symptoms
- DCatastrophic symptoms
44Misinterpretation of perceptions or experiences in Schizophrenia are known as:
- AHallucinations
- BMisperceptions
- CDelusions
- DAvolition
45A normal or stable mental state is described as
- ADysthymic
- BEuthymic
- CEuphoric
- DDysphoric
46A persistent mild depression is described as
- ADysthymic
- BEuthymic
- CEuphoric
- DDysphoric
47A feeling of intense excitement and happiness is described as
- ADysthymic
- BEuthymic
- CEuphoric
- DDysphoric
48A state of mental discomfort or suffering is described as
- ADysthymic
- BEuphoric
- CEuthymic
- DDysphoric
49Which of the following is an important factor in substance abuse?
- AWhether the substances are regularly used by other family members
- BWhether the family environment is rural or urban
- CWhether you are a twin
- DWhether you are born in the winter
50Alcohol Dependence is supported specifically by evidence of tolerance effects and withdrawal symptoms that develop within:
- A1-2 hours of restricted consumption
- B3-6 hours of restricted consumption
- C4-12 hours of restricted consumption
- D12-24 hours of restricted consumption
51Which of the following is not a hallucinogenic?
- ACannabis
- BMDMA
- CLSD
- DAntibiotics
52Which of the following are the consequences of vitamin and mineral deficiencies which can lead to dementia and memory disorders in alcohol abuse?
- ASmirnoff's syndrome
- BKorsakoff's syndrome
- CHelmert syndrome
- DHuynh-Feldt syndrome
53An outdoor education program for adolescents who have been identified as 'at risk' of mental health problems is considered:
- ARehabilitation
- BPrevention
- CTreatment
- DEarly intervention
54Which of the following is a subtype of Dramatic/Emotional Personality Disorders (Cluster B)
- AParanoid Personality Disorder
- BSchizotypical Personality Disorder
- CHistrionic Personality Disorder
- DSchizoid Personality Disorder
55Which of the following is NOT considered to be a risk factors for personality disorders ?
- Aliving in inner cities
- Blow socioeconomic class
- Cgender
- Dbeing a young adult
56A sixty-year-old client visits the mental health outpatient clinic, and tells the nurse that she "worries all the time and sometimes life just seems hopeless". The nurse suspects that the client is most likely experiencing
- Aobsessive-compulsive disorder
- Bpanic disorder without agoraphobia
- Cgeneralised anxiety disorder
- Dborderline personality disorder
57Jason is in hospital having experienced delusions and acute psychosis. He is now prescribed antipsychotic medications. You notice that he is pacing the hospital corridor and is unable to stay still even when you are trying to engage him in conversation. You assess Jason as most likely to be experiencing which of the following?
- AOculogyric crisis
- BAkinesia
- CAkathisia
- DDystonia
58Jason is in hospital having experienced a state of abnormal muscle tone resulting in muscular spasm and abnormal posture, typically due to neurological disease or a side effect of drug therapy. You assess Jason as most likely to be experiencing which of the following?
- AOculogyric crisis
- BAkinesia
- CAkathisia
- DDystonia
59Jason is in hospital having experienced bilateral elevation of the visual gaze. You assess Jason as most likely to be experiencing which of the following?
- AOculogyric crisis
- BDystonia
- CAkathisia
- DAkinesia
60Jason is in hospital having experienced a loss or an impairment of the power of voluntary movement. You assess Jason as most likely to be experiencing which of the following?
- AOculogyric crisis
- BAkinesia
- CAkathisia
- DDystonia
Informações
- Descrição
- Trimester 2 Quiz sobre Last min mental revision, criado por Kathleen Jackson em 12-10-2018.
- Autor
- Kathleen Jackson
- Idioma
- English
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- 403
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