Micro LABMED

Question 1

Yeasts are microscopic multicellular organisms that reproduce by budding

Answer

true

Question 2

Dimorphic fungi are moulds in the environment, but behave as yeast in the human host

Answer

true

Question 3

Athlete's foot is caused by the pathogen candida glabrata

Answer

true

Question 4

Onchomycosis can be treated using either itraconazole or the allyamine terbinafine

Answer

true

Question 5

Candida albicans is the most prolific subtype of the species

Answer

true

Question 6

Candida infections are solely superficial

Answer

true

Question 7

Symptoms of vulvovaginal candidiasis include:
extreme vaginal itching, burning sensation during urination and a cottage-cheese-like vaginal discharge

Answer

true

Question 8

Vulvovaginal candidiasis can be managed with either a topical antifungal such as nystatin, or a systemic azole such as butoconazole

Answer

true

Question 9

Oropharyngeal candidiasis is associated with the development of a squamous cell carcinoma in the affected region

Answer

true

Question 10

Candida is the most common bloodstream pathogen

Answer

true

Question 11

Vascular catheters are an important risk factor in the development in candidaemia

Answer

true

Question 12

Candida parapsilosis is a new species of Candida that has been identified and has caused a significant number of fatalities while proving to be MDR

Answer

true

Question 13

Aspergillosis innoculation occurs via inhaling the spores into the lungs

Answer

true

Question 14

A presentation of pulmonary aspergillosis is associated with the halo sign on CXR

Answer

true

Question 15

COPD and sarcoidosis are lung conditions that are associated risk factors for the development of aspergillosis

Answer

true

Question 16

The recommended treatment for aspergillosis is the polyene Amophotericin B

Answer

true

Question 17

Cryptococcus can contracted from mouth-to-mouth resuscitation of an immunocompromised patient in the case of cardiac arrest if more than 52 consecutive cycles are performed without break

Answer

true

Question 18

A recognised complication of cryptococcosis is the development of subacute meningitis

Answer

true

Question 19

Cryptococcosis is infamous as an opportunistic infection contracted by patients suffering from AIDS

Answer

true

Question 20

A lumbar puncture is performed as part of the diagnosis of cryptococcus, and the sample of CSF obtained should display high WBC and elevated protein levels

Answer

true

Question 21

Solid organ transplant is a risk factor implicated in both aspergillosis and cryptococcosis infections

Answer

true

Question 22

Patients with haematological malignancies are at a statistically significant reduced risk of contracting a fungal infection

Answer

true

Question 23

PCP pneumonia is associated with the pathogen pneumocystis jirovecci

Answer

true

Question 24

Broncho-alveolar lavage is crucial in the diagnosis of PCP

Answer

true

Question 25

The recommended treatment for PCP is co-trimoxazole

Answer

true

Question 26

Mucormycosis is a smaller species than Aspergillosis

Answer

true

Question 27

In mucormycosis the hyphae that germinate grow in and around blood vessels

Answer

true

Question 28

Flucytosine is an example of an allyamine antifungal

Answer

true

Question 29

Amphotericin B can have nephrotoxic side effects

Answer

true

Question 30

Fluconazole is first line treatment for the flu

Answer

true

Question 31

Triazoles interfere with the synthesis of ergosterol via the inhibition of lanosterol 14alpha demethylase

Answer

true

Question 32

A new generation of antifungals, the candins, target cell glucan synthesis

Answer

true

Question 33

Terbinafine can cause a decrease in WBC along with GI and CNS disturbances

Answer

true

Question 34

Mutations in ERG11 increase azole efflux from the pathogen which contributes to acquired  resistance to these antifungals

Answer

true

Question 35

One of the necessary points in Koch's postulates is that the pathogen must be found in at least 80% of the cases of the disease

Answer

true

Question 36

H pylori is from the order Campylobacterales

Answer

true

Question 37

H pylori is a curved Gram negative bacillus

Answer

true

Question 38

LPS is found in the outer membrane of H pylori and is responsible for its inflammatory activity

Answer

true

Question 39

H pylori must be grown in a selective Skirrow medium for 2-5 days  at 37 degrees celsius

Answer

true

Question 40

H pylori is not urease positive

Answer

true

Question 41

H pylori has a particular fondness of gastric epithelium in the antrum of the stomach

Answer

true

Question 42

H pylori is highly motile with a number of polar flagellae

Answer

true

Question 43

cagA is protective in oesophageal carcinoma but causative in gastric carcinoma

Answer

true

Question 44

Urease is an enzyme that breaks down urea to form ammonia, allowing H pylori to adapt to the acidic environment

Answer

true

Question 45

H pylori is an invasive pathogen

Answer

true

Question 46

Virulence factors associated with H pylori include cagA and vacA

Answer

true

Question 47

Platelet activating factor causes an increase in gastric acid secretion

Answer

true

Question 48

Patients are delighted to be told they are cagA positive when being tested for H pylori

Answer

true

Question 49

vacA results in the vacuolation of tissue through interaction with the gastric epithelium

Answer

true

Question 50

H pylori is catalase positive, allowing it to evade the immune system through the degradation of hydrogen peroxide

Answer

true

Question 51

H pylori is scarcely seen in developing countries

Answer

true

Question 52

Individuals positive for H pylori have a 10-20% chance of developing gastric adenocarcinoma

Answer

true

Question 53

Patients who present with duodenal ulceration usually have a pre-existing antral non-atrophic gastritis from H pylori colonisation

Answer

true

Question 54

Stool antigen tests are the preferred diagnostic test in the management of suspected H pylori infection

Answer

true

Question 55

Triple therapy is the recommended treatment for H pylori infection

Answer

true

Question 56

The duration of triple therapy treatment for H pylori is 10 days

Answer

true

Question 57

Mycobacterium are acid-fast, aerobic and difficult to stain

Answer

true

Question 58

Mycobacterium are difficult to kill because they cause the production of interferon gamma which inhibits leukocyte recruitment

Answer

true

Question 59

The Mantoux test is based on the type III hypersensitivity reaction

Answer

true

Question 60

For the diagnosis of pulmonary TB, three early morning sputum samples are needed to send to the lab for analysis, along with a bronchoalveolar lavage and a pleural fluid aspiration

Answer

true

Question 61

GeneXpert analysis can identify resistant strains of rifampicin

Answer

true

Question 62

IFN gamma test is useful in the rapid investigation of primary progressive TB

Answer

true

Question 63

Isoniazid is an antibiotic used in the treatment of TB which inhibits the synthesis of mycolic acids which are needed for cell wall synthesis

Answer

true

Question 64

Rifampicin inhibits DNA dependent RNA polymerase and is an enzyme inhibitor

Answer

true

Micro LABMED

Crie uma conta grátis para terminar este quiz

Perguntas do quiz (97)

Informações

Fale Conosco

O que você acha do novo visual?