Quiz
biocore final exam
Perguntas do quiz (100)
1The text states that ribonucleotides can diffuse through some types of liposomes. It is likely that the lipids present early in chemical evolution had short chains. Would liposomes formed from these types of lipids be more or less permeable to ribonucleotides than if early cells formed from long-chained lipids?
- ASame permeability
- Bless permeable
- Cmore permeable
2Through a microscope, you can see a cell plate beginning to develop across the middle of a cell and nuclei forming on either side of the cell plate. This cell is most likely _____.
- Aan animal cell in the process of cytokinesis
- Ban animal cell in the S phase of the cell cycle
- Ca plant cell in the process of cytokinesis
- Da plant cell in metaphase
- Ea bacterial cell dividing
3 After telophase I of meiosis, the chromosomal makeup of each daughter cell is _____.
- Ahaploid, and the chromosomes are each composed of a single chromatid
- Bdiploid, and the chromosomes are each composed of a single chromatid
- Ctetraploid, and the chromosomes are each composed of two chromatids
- Dhaploid, and the chromosomes are each composed of two chromatids
- Ediploid, and the chromosomes are each composed of two chromatids
4Which of the following did Watson and Crick already know when they were trying to determine the structure of DNA? The number of _____.
- Acytosines is always the same as adenines
- Bpurines is always larger than the number of pyrimidines
- Cpurines is always the same as pyrimidines
- Dguanines is always the same as thymines
- Epyrimidines is always larger than purines
5Why did the F1 offspring of Mendel's classic pea cross always look like one of the two parental
varieties?- ANo genes interacted to produce the parental phenotype.
- BOne allele was dominant.
- CEach allele affected phenotypic expression.
- DThe traits blended together during fertilization.
- ANo genes interacted to produce the parental phenotype.
6 Independent assortment of chromosomes occurs during _____.
- Amitosis and meiosis I
- Bmitosis and meiosis II
- Cmeiosis II only
- Dmeiosis I only
- EMitosis only
7 How do cells at the completion of meiosis compare with cells that are in prophase of meiosis I? They have _____.
- A twice the amount of cytoplasm and half the amount of DNA.
- Bhalf the number of chromosomes and half the amount of DNA.
- C half the amount of cytoplasm and twice the amount of DNA.
- Dthe same number of chromosomes and half the amount of DNA.
- E half the number of chromosomes and one-fourth the amount of DNA.
8The fastest way for organisms to adapt to a changing environment involves _____.
- ASexual reproduction
- BMutation
- CAsexual reproduction
9Crossing over normally takes place during which of the following processes?
- Ameiosis I
- BMitosis and meiosis II
- CMeiosis II
- DMitosis
10 In comparison to eukaryotes, prokaryotes _____.
- Aare smaller
- B are more structurally complex
- Cdo not have membranes
- Dare larger
11If a DNA sample were composed of 10% thymine, what would be the percentage of guanine?
- A40
- B80
- C10
- D20
- EIt is impossible to tell from the information given.
12David Pribnow studied the base sequences of promoters in bacteria and bacterial viruses. He found two conserved regions in these promoters (the -10 box and the -35 box). These two
regions of the promoter _____.- A bind the sigma subunit that is associated with RNA polymerase
- Bsignal the initiation site
- Cattach the correct nucleotide triphosphate to the template DNA strand
- Dseparate the two DNA strands
13Why is it that RNA can catalyze reactions but DNA cannot?
- AThe primary structure of RNA is fundamentally different than the primary structure of DNA.
- BThe phosphate groups of RNA are much more reactive than the phosphate groups of DNA.
- CThe bases of RNA are much more reactive than the bases of DNA.
- DThe sugar of RNA is much more reactive than the sugar of DNA.
14Some cells have several nuclei per cell. How could such multinucleated cells be explained?
- AThe cell had multiple S phases before it entered mitosis.
- B The cell underwent repeated cytokinesis but no mitosis.
- CThe cell underwent repeated mitosis, but cytokinesis did not occur.
- DThe cell underwent repeated mitosis with simultaneous cytokinesis.
15A water sample from a hot thermal vent contained a single-celled organism that had a cell wall but lacked a nucleus. What is its most likely classification?
- AEukarya
- BFungi
- CAnimalia
- DProtista
- EArchaea
16 In the figure above, mitosis is represented by which numbered part(s) of the cycle?
- AI
- BII
- CIII
- DIV
- EV
17The first gap in the cell cycle (G1) corresponds to _____.
- Anormal growth and cell function
- Bthe phase between DNA replication and the M phase
- Cthe beginning of mitosis
- Dthe phase in which DNA is being replicated
18In rabbits, the homozygous CC is normal, Cc results in deformed legs, and cc results in very short legs. The genotypeBB produces black fur,Bb brown fur, and bb white fur. If a cross is made between brown rabbits with deformed legs and white rabbits with deformed legs, what
percentage of the offspring would be expected to have deformed legs and white fur?- A100%
- B25%
- Cabout 66%
- D50%
- E33%
19What is the process component of the theory of chemical evolution?
- AThe process occurred at black smokers, in the atmosphere and oceans, or in outer space.
- BDuring polymerization reactions, hydrolysis was completed with condensation.
- CKinetic energy was transformed into chemical energy.
- DAcid-base reactions resulted in the formation of large, complex organic molecules.
- AThe process occurred at black smokers, in the atmosphere and oceans, or in outer space.
20Mitosis separates chromosomes. Cytoplasm is divided between two daughter cells by _____.
- Acytokinesis
- BBinary fission
- Cthe formation of kinetochores
- Dcloning
21 Some viruses consist only of a protein coat surrounding a nucleic acid core. If you wanted to radioactively label the nucleic acids separately from the protein, you would use radioactive
- Anitrogen
- Bsulfur
- Cphosphorus
- Dcarbon
22Taxol is an anticancer drug extracted from the Pacific yew tree. In animal cells, Taxol disrupts microtubule formation. Surprisingly, this stops mitosis. Specifically, Taxol must affect _____.
- Aformation of the centrioles
- Bchromatid assembly
- Cthe S phase of the cell cycle
- Dthe structure of the mitotic spindle
- Eanaphase
23 What is the structural feature that allows DNA to replicate?
- Adisulfide bonding (bridging) of the two helixes
- Bcomplementary pairing of the nitrogenous bases
- C twisting of the molecule to form an α-helix
- Dsugar-phosphate backbone
- Ethree-component structure of the nucleotides
24 Your colleague proposes to test the mechanism of ant navigation by placing a food source 7 meters (m) from the nest. She then takes ants from the nest and places them in a spot that is 4 m from the nest and 3 m from the food source. Based on the previous data, where do you expect the ants to start searching for their nest on their return trip?
- Aafter they have traveled 7 m from the food source
- Bafter they have traveled 4 m from the food source
- Cafter they have traveled 3 m from the food source
- Das soon as they leave the food source
25Refer to the figure above. What is the function of the AGU on the loop of the tRNA?
- AIt is the active site of this ribozyme.
- BIt attaches to the amino acid.
- C It stabilizes the tRNA-amino acid complex.
- DIt base pairs with a codon of mRNA
26Mendel crossed yellow-seeded and green-seeded pea plants and then allowed the offspring to self-pollinate to produce an F2 generation. The results were as follows: 6022 yellow and 2001 green (8023 total). The allele for green seeds has what relationship to the allele for yellow seeds?
- Acodominant
- Brecessive
- Cincomplete dominant
- Ddominant
27Movement of the chromosomes during anaphase would be most affected by a drug that prevents _____.
- Aelongation of microtubules
- Bshortening of microtubules
- C nuclear envelope breakdown
- Dcell wall formation
- Eformation of a cleavage furrow
28If a cell has accumulated DNA damage, it is unlikely to _____.
- Aenter G1 from mitosis
- Bpass the G2 checkpoint
- Csynthesize cyclin-dependent kinases
- Dactivate DNA repair mechanisms
29A man has extra digits (six fingers on each hand and six toes on each foot). His wife and their daughter have a normal number of digits. Having extra digits is a dominant trait. The couple's
second child has extra digits. What is the probability that their next (third) child will have extra
digits?- A9/16
- B3/4
- C1/16
- D1/2
- E1/8
30The work of Gregor Mendel provided an answer to two prevailing hypotheses popular at the time. What were these two hypotheses?
- APeas and other domestic plants are unsuited for studies of inheritance, but wild plants are perfectly suited.
- BAnimals use one set of rules for inheritance, while plants use a different set.
- CMitosis is only typical in vertebrates. Meiosis is only typical in invertebrates.
- DThe two major hypotheses of the time were blending inheritance and inheritance of acquired characteristics.
- ESelf-fertilization is the rule in plants, while cross-fertilization is the rule in animals.
31 In the context of chemical evolution, DNA's structure is interesting because it suggests a possible copying mechanism. What about DNA's structure facilitates copying?
- AThe strands of the double helix are complementary.
- B It has the same number of purines and pyrimidines.
- CDNA always goes from 5 prime to 3 prime.
- DThe nitrogenous bases are located on the inside of the double helix.
32 Which of the following is a true statement about sexual vs. asexual reproduction?
- AAsexual reproduction produces only haploid offspring.
- BIn asexual reproduction, offspring are produced by fertilization without meiosis.
- CIn sexual reproduction, individuals transmit half of their nuclear genes to each of their offspring.
- DAsexual reproduction, but not sexual reproduction, is characteristic of plants and fungi.
- ESexual reproduction requires that parents be diploid.
- AAsexual reproduction produces only haploid offspring.
33How many different combinations of maternal and paternal chromosomes can be packaged in gametes made by an organism with a diploid number of 8 (2n = 8)?
- A8
- B4
- C32
- D16
- E2
34Which of these provides evidence of the common ancestry of all life?
- Astructure of cilia
- Bstructure of the nucleus
- Cstructure of chloroplasts
- Dubiquitous use of catalysts by living systems
- Enear universality of the genetic code
35Measurements of the amount of DNA per nucleus were taken on a large number of cells from a growing fungus. The measured DNA levels ranged from 3 to 6 picograms per nucleus. In which
stage of the cell cycle did the nucleus contain 6 picograms of DNA?- AM
- BG1
- CS
- DG0
- EG2
36About thirteen different species of finches inhabit the Galápagos Islands today, all descendants of a common ancestor from the South American mainland that arrived a few million years ago. Genetically, there are four distinct lineages, but the thirteen species are currently classified among three genera. The first lineage to diverge from the ancestral lineage was the warbler finch (genus Certhidea). Next to diverge was the vegetarian finch (genus Camarhynchus), followed by five tree finch species (also in genus Camarhynchus) and six ground finch species (genus Geospiza). If the six ground finch species have evolved most recently, then which of these is the most logical prediction?
- AThey should be limited to the six islands that most recently emerged from the sea.
- BThe chances of hybridization between two ground finch species should be less than the chances of hybridization between two tree finch species.
- CTheir genomes should be more similar to each other than are the genomes of the five tree finch species.
- DThey should share fewer anatomical homologies with each other than they share with the tree finches.
37In eukaryotic cells, chromosomes are composed of _____.
- ADNA and proteins
- BDNA and phospholipids
- CDNA and RNA
- DDNA only
38The drug cytochalasin B blocks the function of actin. Which of the following aspects of the cell cycle would be most disrupted by cytochalasin B?
- Acleavage furrow formation and cytokinesis
- Bspindle formation
- CDNA synthesis
- Dcell elongation during anaphase
- E spindle attachment to kinetochores
39Which of the following is the best modern definition of evolution?
- Achange in the number of genes in a population over time
- Binheritance of acquired characters
- Cdescent with modification
- Dsurvival of the fittest
40An advantage of asexual reproduction is that it _____.
- Aallows a species to easily rid itself of harmful mutations
- Benables the species to rapidly colonize habitats that are favorable to that species
- Cproduces offspring that respond effectively to new pathogens
- Dallows the species to endure long periods of unstable environmental conditions
- Eenhances genetic variability in the species
41Which of the following are qualities of any good scientific hypothesis?
I. It is testable.
II. It is falsifiable.
III. It produces quantitative data.
IV. It produces results that can be replicated.- AI only
- BII only
- CIII only
- DI and II
- EIII and IV
42Radish flowers may be red, purple, or white. A cross between a red-flowered plant and a white-flowered plant yields all-purple offspring. The part of the radish we eat may be oval or
long, with long being the dominant trait. If true-breeding red long radishes are crossed with true-breeding white oval radishes, the F1 will be expected to be which of the following?- Ared and long
- Bpurple and long
- Cren and oval
- Dpurple and oval
- Ewhite and long
43Nucleotides can be radiolabeled before they are incorporated into newly forming DNA and, therefore, can be assayed to track their incorporation. In a set of experiments, a studentfaculty research team used labeled T nucleotides and introduced these into the culture of dividing human cells at specific times.
-Which of the following questions might be answered by using the method described?- AWhen do spindle fibers attach to chromosomes?
- BHow many cells are produced by the culture per hour?
- CWhat is the length of the S phase of the cell cycle?
- DHow many picograms of DNA are made per cell cycle?
- EWhen is the S chromosome synthesized?
44Nucleotides can be radiolabeled before they are incorporated into newly forming DNA and, therefore, can be assayed to track their incorporation. In a set of experiments, a student-faculty research team used labeled T nucleotides and introduced these into the culture of dividing human cells at specific times.
- The research team used their experiments to study the incorporation of labeled nucleotides into a culture of lymphocytes and found that the lymphocytes incorporated the labeled nucleotide at a significantly higher level after a pathogen was introduced into the culture. They concluded that _____.- Atheir tissue culture methods needed to be relearned
- Binfection causes lymphocyte cultures to skip some parts of the cell cycle
- C infection causes cell cultures in general to reproduce more rapidly
- Dthe presence of the pathogen made the experiments too contaminated to trust the results
- Einfection causes lymphocytes to divide more rapidly
45If a cell has completed meiosis I and is just beginning meiosis II, which of the following is an appropriate description of its contents?
- A It has half the amount of DNA as the cell that began meiosis.
- BIt is identical in content to another cell formed from the same meiosis I event.
- C It has the same number of chromosomes, but each of them has different alleles than another cell from the same meiosis.
- DIt has one-fourth the DNA and one-half the chromosomes as the originating cell.
- E It has half the chromosomes but twice the DNA of the originating cell.
46Which of the following statements about the 5' end of a polynucleotide strand of RNA is correct?
- Athe 5' end has a carboxyl group attached to the number 5 carbon of ribose.
- Bthe 5' end is the fifth position on one of the nitrogenous bases.
- Cthe 5' end has a hydroxyl group attached to the number 5 carbon of ribose.
- Dthe 5' end has phosphate attached to the number 5 carbon of the nitrogenous base.
- Ethe 5' end has a phosphate group attached to the number 5 carbon of ribose.
47GeneS controls the sharpness of spines in a type of cactus. Cactuses with the dominant allele,S, have sharp spines, whereas homozygous recessivess cactuses have dull spines. At the same
time, a second gene,N, determines whether or not cactuses have spines. Homozygous recessive nn cactuses have no spines at all. A cross between a true-breeding sharp-spined cactus and a spineless cactus would produce_____.- Aall spineless progeny
- Ball sharp-spined progeny
- C50% sharp-spined, 50% dull-spined progeny
- D25% sharp-spined, 50% dull-spined, 25% spineless progeny
- EIt is impossible to determine the phenotypes of the progeny.
48Gray seed color in peas is dominant to white. Assume that Mendel conducted a series of experiments where plants with gray seeds were crossed among themselves, and the following
progeny were produced: 302 gray and 98 white.
(a) What is the most probable genotype of each parent?
(b) Based on your answer in (a) above, what genotypic and phenotypic ratios are expected in these progeny? (Assume the following symbols: G = gray and g = white.)- A (a) GG ×gg; (b) genotypic = 3:1, phenotypic = 1:2:1
- B(a) gg ×Gg; (b) genotypic = 1:2, phenotypic = 3:1
- C (a) Gg ×Gg; (b) genotypic = 3:1, phenotypic = 9:3:3:1
- D(a) GG ×Gg; (b) genotypic = 1:2:1, phenotypic = 2:1
- E (a) Gg ×Gg; (b) genotypic = 1:2:1, phenotypic = 3:1
49Suppose that an induced mutation removes most of the 5′ end of the 5′ UTR of an mRNA. What is most likely to happen?
- ARemoval of the 5′ UTR also removes the 5' cap and the mRNA will quickly degrade.
- BRemoval of the 5′ UTR will have no effect because the exons are still maintained.
- CThe 3′ UTR will duplicate and one copy will replace the 5′ end.
- DThe first exon will not be read because I1 will now serve as the UTR.
50Refer to the accompanying figure. Recall that eggs from the same female were exposed to each of the eight treatments used. This aspect of the experimental design tested which of the following hypotheses?
- ADifferences in diet trigger the development of different types of caterpillars.
- BThe differences are genetic. A female will either produce all flowerlike caterpillars or all twig-like caterpillars.
- CThe longer day lengths of summer trigger the development of twig-like caterpillars.
- DDifferences in air pressure, due to elevation, trigger the development of different types of caterpillars.
51Refer to the accompanying figure. In every case, caterpillars that feed on oak flowers look like oak flowers. In every case, caterpillars that were raised on oak leaves looked like twigs. These
results support which of the following hypotheses?- AThe differences are genetic. A female will either produce all flowerlike caterpillars or all twig-like caterpillars.
- BThe longer day lengths of summer trigger the development of twig-like caterpillars.
- CDifferences in air pressure, due to elevation, trigger the development of different types of caterpillars.
- DDifferences in diet trigger the development of different types of caterpillars.
52Refer to the accompanying figure. Which one of the following is NOT a plausible hypothesis to explain the differences in caterpillar appearance observed in this population?
- AThe cooler temperatures of spring trigger the development of flowerlike caterpillars.
- BThe longer day lengths of summer trigger the development of twig-like caterpillars.
- CDifferences in air pressure, due to differences in elevation, trigger the development of different types of caterpillars.
- DDifferences in diet trigger the development of different types of caterpillars.
- AThe cooler temperatures of spring trigger the development of flowerlike caterpillars.
53Steroid hormones are large communication molecules that are modified cholesterol molecules. How do you think they enter a cell?
- ATheir lipid nature probably allows them to diffuse through the plasma membrane.
- BTheir size probably allows them to diffuse through the plasma membrane.
- CTheir protein structure probably allows them to diffuse through the plasma membrane.
- DThey must require a protein transporter, because the plasma membrane is completely impermeable to molecules.
54The fact that all seven of the pea plant traits studied by Mendel obeyed the principle of independent assortment most probably indicates which of the following?
- AAll of the genes controlling the traits were located on the same chromosome.
- BAll of the genes controlling the traits behaved as if they were on different chromosomes.
- CThe formation of gametes in plants occurs by mitosis only.
- DNone of the traits obeyed the law of segregation.
- EThe diploid number of chromosomes in the pea plants was 7.
55During which phase of mitosis do the chromatids become chromosomes?
- Aprophase
- Bcytokinesis
- Ctelophase
- Dmetaphase
- Eanaphase
56Researchers pulsed rapidly dividing cultured cells with radioactive thymidinefor 30 minutes. The cells were then exposed to a solution containing non-radiolabeled thymidine. Cells were
analyzed at 2-hour intervals. At the 2-hour time point, no cells appeared to be dividing. Only
after 4 hours did some labeled cells appear to be in M phase. This result can be explained in the following way:- AThe cells were arrested in a nondividing state because of the treatment and could not enter M phase until several hours after the label was removed.
- BThe synthesis (S) phase is lengthy, about 12 hours in most cell types, and the radioactive thymidine was not present long enough for most cells to be labeled.
- CRadiolabeled compounds are somewhat cytotoxic, and cell division was initially inhibited.
- DThere seems to be a gap or a lag in the cell cycle, between the synthesis of DNA and cell division.
57Which of the following evidence most strongly supports the common origin of all life on Earth? All organisms _____.
- Arequire energy
- Buse essentially the same genetic code
- Cevolve
- Dshow heritable variation
- Ereproduce
58In eukaryotic cells, transcription cannot begin until _____.
- Athe DNA introns are removed from the template
- Bthe two DNA strands have completely separated and exposed the promoter
- C the 5′ caps are removed from the mRNA
- DDNA nucleases have isolated the transcription unit
- Eseveral transcription factors have bound to the promoter
59Cystic fibrosis affects the lungs, the pancreas, the digestive system, and other organs, resulting in symptoms ranging from breathing difficulties to recurrent infections. Which of the following
terms best describes this?- Aepistasis
- Bcodominance
- Cmultiple alleles
- Dincomplete dominance
- Epleiotropy
60RNA and proteins combine in cells to form structures called ribosomes. Ribosomes contain the active site for peptide bond formation. Based on their chemical structures, do you think protein
or RNA molecules actually form the active site within the ribosome?- ARNA, because proteins cannot catalyze a reaction that involves another protein
- Bprotein, because RNA cannot catalyze reactions
- CIt could be either, because both molecules have catalytic properties.
- Dproteins, because only proteins can catalyze a reaction that involves another protein
61 What is responsible for termination of transcription in eukaryotic protein-coding genes?
- Athree nonsense mutations in sequence
- B a polyadenylation signal or poly(A)
- Ca portion of the polymerase holoenzyme
- Da sigma factor
- Ea termination loop composed of guanine
62Both DNA and RNA _____.
- Aare information-containing molecules
- Bshow primary, secondary, tertiary, and quaternary structure
- Cnaturally occur as a double helix
- Dare highly reactive catalysts in cells
63 Vinblastine is a standard chemotherapeutic drug used to treat cancer. Because it interferes with the assembly of microtubules, its effectiveness must be related to _____.
- Adisruption of mitotic spindle formation
- Bsuppression of cyclin production
- Cmyosin denaturation and inhibition of cleavage furrow formation
- Dinhibition of DNA synthesis
- E inhibition of regulatory protein phosphorylation
64If there are 20 chromatids in a cell, how many centromeres are there?
- A30
- B20
- C80
- D10
- E40
65Genetic mutations in asexually reproducing organisms lead to more evolutionary change than do genetic mutations in sexually reproducing ones because _____.
- Asexually reproducing organisms can produce more offspring in a given time than can asexually reproducing organisms
- Basexually reproducing organisms have more dominant genes than organisms that reproduce sexually
- C asexually reproducing organisms devote more time and energy to the process of reproduction than do sexually reproducing organisms
- D asexually reproducing organisms, but not sexually reproducing organisms, pass all mutations on to their offspring
- Emore genetic variation is present in organisms that reproduce asexually than is present in those that reproduce sexually
66 In human and many other eukaryotic species' cells, the nuclear membrane has to disappear to permit _____.
- Athe attachment of microtubules to kinetochores
- Bthe splitting of the centrosomes
- C the disassembly of the nucleolus
- Dcytokinesis
67A cell in late anaphase of mitosis will have _____.
- A no chromosomes in the center of the cell
- Bone large nuclear envelope
- Cindividual chromatids beginning to separate from one another
- Dchromosomes clustered at one end of the cell
- Echromosomes clustered tightly at the center
- A no chromosomes in the center of the cell
68Compare proteins to nucleic acids. Which of the following is true?
- ABoth contain sulfur.
- BBoth take on structural roles in the cell.
- CBoth have primary and secondary structure.
- D Both have monomers, which contain phosphorus.
69Duchenne muscular dystrophy is a serious condition caused by a recessive allele of a gene on the human X chromosome. The patients have muscles that weaken over time because they have absent or decreased dystrophin, a muscle protein. They rarely live past their twenties. How likely is it for a woman to have this condition?
- AOnly if a woman is XXX could she have this condition.
- BWomen can never have this condition.
- COne-half of the daughters of an affected father and a carrier mother could have this condition.
- DOne-fourth of the daughters of an affected man would have this condition.
70Cells are _____.
- Acharacteristic of prokaryotic and eukaryotic organisms
- Bcharacteristic of eukaryotic but not prokaryotic organisms
- Climited in size to 200 and 500 micrometers in diameter
- Donly found in pairs, because single cells cannot exist independently
71Which of these statements is correct?
- ASingle, haploid (2n) sets of chromosomes in ovum and sperm unite during fertilization, forming a diploid (4n), single-celled zygote.
- BAt sexual maturity, ovaries and testes produce haploid gametes by meiosis.
- C In humans, each of the twenty-three maternal autosomes has a homologous paternal chromosome.
- D In humans, the twenty-second pair, the sex chromosomes, determines whether the person is female (XY) or male (XX).
72Which of the following best describes the logic of scientific inquiry?
- A If my hypothesis is correct, I can expect certain test results.
- BIf my prediction is correct, it will lead to a testable hypothesis.
- CIf my experiments are set up right, they will lead to a testable hypothesis.
- DIf I generate a testable hypothesis, tests and observations will support it.
- E If my observations are accurate, they will support my hypothesis.
73The bulldog ant has a diploid number of two chromosomes. Therefore, following meiosis, each daughter cell will have a single chromosome. Diversity in this species may be generated by
mutations and _____.- Acrossing over
- Bindependent assortment
- Cnothing else
- Dcrossing over and independent assortment
74 Mendel studies seven different traits in the garden pea. What genetic term is used to describe an observable trait, such as those studied by Mendel?
- Aphenotype
- Bhaplotype
- Ccategory
- Dgenotype
- Eappearance
75 Darwin and Wallace's theory of evolution by natural selection was revolutionary because it _____.
- Aproved that individuals acclimated to their environment over time
- Bwas the first theory to refute the ideas of special creation
- Cwas the first time a biologist had proposed that species changed through time
- Ddismissed the idea that species are constant and emphasized the importance of variation and change in populations
76Which of the following could be considered an evolutionary advantage of asexual reproduction in plants?
- Aproduction of numerous progeny.
- Bincreased agricultural productivity in a rapidly changing environment.
- Cmaintenance and expansion of a large genome.
- Dincreased success of progeny in a stable environment.
- Eincreased ability to adapt to a change in the environment.
77If 14C-labeled uracil is added to the growth medium of cells, what macromolecules will be labeled?
- Aphospholipids
- BDNA
- Cboth DNA and RNA
- DRNA
- Eproteins
78A controlled experiment _____.
- Aproceeds at a slow pace to guarantee that the scientist can carefully observe all reactions and process all experimental data
- Bincludes one group for which the scientist controls all variables
- Cis repeated many times to ensure that the results are accurate
- Dincludes at least two groups, one of which does not receive the experimental treatment
- Eincludes at least two groups, one differing from the other by two or more variables
79Two plants are crossed, resulting in offspring with a 3:1 ratio for a particular trait. This ratio suggests that _____.
- Aa blending of traits has occurred
- Beach offspring has the same alleles for each of two different traits
- C the parents were true-breeding for contrasting traits
- Dthe particular trait shows incomplete dominance
- Ethe parents were both heterozygous for the particular trait
80Which of the following does NOT occur during mitosis?
- Aseparation of the spindle poles
- Bcondensation of the chromosomes
- Cspindle formation
- Dreplication of the DNA
- Eseparation of sister chromatids
81 In the cells of some organisms, mitosis occurs without cytokinesis. This results in _____.
- Acells with more than one nucleus
- Bdestruction of chromosomes
- Ccells that are unusually small
- Dcell cycles lacking an S phase
- Ecells lacking nuclei
82DNA double helices are soluble in water but insoluble in alcohol. How do these physical properties reflect the chemical structure of the DNA molecule?
- AThe 5 prime to 3 prime polarity of DNA makes it soluble in water but not in alcohol.
- BThe purine and pyrimidine bases are hydrophilic.
- CThe charged phosphate groups and sugars of DNA are hydrophilic.
- DThe charged R-groups of DNA are hydrophilic.
83Codons are three-base sequences that specify the addition of a single amino acid. How do eukaryotic codons and prokaryotic codons compare?
- ACodons are a nearly universal language among all organisms.
- BProkaryotic codons usually specify different amino acids than those of eukaryotes.
- CThe translation of codons is mediated by tRNAs in eukaryotes, but translation requires no intermediate molecules such as tRNAs in prokaryotes.
- DProkaryotic codons usually contain different bases than those of eukaryotes.
84If the cell whose nuclear material is shown in the accompanying figure continues toward completion of mitosis, which of the following events would occur next?
- Asynthesis of chromatids
- Bformation of telophase nuclei
- Cspindle fiber formation
- Dcell membrane synthesis
- Enuclear envelope breakdown
85Franklin and Wilkins analyzed DNA by bombarding DNA crystals with X-rays. Their analysis yielded two numbers that sparked interest, 3.4 nm and 0.34 nm. What is the significance of these numbers?
- AThe width of a DNA molecule is 3.4 nm, whereas the width of a nucleotide monomer is 0.34 m.
- BThe 10 to 1 ratio signifies that DNA molecules are ten times longer than they are wide.
- CDNA molecules are 3.4 nm long and 0.34 nm wide.
- D It turned out to be just a coincidence.
- EThese numbers tell us there are ten rungs, or steps, on the DNA "ladder" for every turn of the helix.
86A ribozyme is _____.
- Aan enzyme that synthesizes RNA as part of the transcription process
- Ban RNA with catalytic activity
- Can enzyme that synthesizes RNA primers during DNA replication
- Dan enzyme that catalyzes the association between the large and small ribosomal subunits
- Ea catalyst that uses RNA as a substrate
87At which phase are centrioles beginning to move apart in animal cells?
- Ametaphase
- Bprometaphase
- Ctelophase
- Dprophase
- Eanaphase
88If one strand of a DNA molecule has the sequence of bases 5'ATTGCA3', the other complementary strand would have the sequence _____.
- A 5'UAACGU3'
- B5'TGCAAT3'
- C 5'UGCAAU3'
- D5'TAACGT3'
- E3'UAACGU5'
89A typical natural population of guppies consists of hundreds of guppies. Which statement best describes the guppies of a single species in an isolated population?
- AThe guppies share all of the same characteristics and are identical to each other.
- BThe guppies share all of the essential characteristics of the species; the minor variations they display don’t affect survival.
- CThe guppies are all identical on the inside, but have many differences in appearance.
- DThe guppies share many essential characteristics, but also vary in many features.
90Fitness is a term often used by biologists to explain the evolutionary success of certain organisms. Which feature would a biologist consider to be most important in determining which guppies were the “most fit”?
- Alarge body size and ability to swim quickly away from predators
- Bexcellent ability to compete for food
- Chigh number of offspring that survived to reproductive age
- Dhigh number of matings with many different females.
91Assuming ideal conditions with abundant food and space and no predators, what would happen if a pair of guppies were placed in a large pond?
- AThe guppy population would grow slowly, as guppies would have only the number of babies that are needed to replenish the population.
- BThe guppy population would grow slowly at first, then would grow rapidly, and thousands of guppies would fill the pond.
- CThe guppy population would never become very large, because only organisms such as insects and bacteria reproduce in that manner.
- DThe guppy population would continue to grow slowly over time.
92Once a population of guppies has been established for a number of years in a real (not ideal) pond with other organisms including predators, what will likely happen to the population?
- AThe guppy population will stay about the same size.
- BThe guppy population will continue to rapidly grow in size.
- CThe guppy population will gradually decrease until no more guppies are left.
- DIt is impossible to tell because populations do not follow patterns.
93In guppy populations, what are the primary changes that occur gradually over time?
- AThe traits of each individual guppy within a population gradually change.
- BThe proportions of guppies having different traits within a population change.
- CSuccessful behaviors learned by certain guppies are passed on to offspring.
- DMutations occur to meet the needs of the guppies as the environment changes.
94Lizards eat a variety of insects and plants. Which statement describes the availability of food for lizards on the Canary Islands?
- AFinding food is not a problem since food is always in abundant supply.
- BSince lizards can eat a variety of foods, there is likely to be enough food for all of the lizards at all times.
- CLizards can get by on very little food, so the food supply does not matter.
- DIt is likely that sometimes there is enough food, but at other times there is not enough food for all of the lizards.
95What do you think happens among the lizards of a certain species when the food supply is limited?
- AThe lizards cooperate to find food and share what they find.
- BThe lizards fight for the available food and the strongest lizards kill the weaker ones.
- CGenetic changes that would allow lizards to eat new food sources are likely to be induced.
- DThe lizards least successful in the competition for food are likely to die of starvation and malnutrition.
96A well-established population of lizards is made up of hundreds of individual lizards. On an island, all lizards in a lizard population are likely to . . .
- Abe indistinguishable, since there is a lot of interbreeding in isolated populations.
- Bbe the same on the inside but display differences in their external features.
- Cbe similar, yet have some significant differences in their internal and external features.
- Dbe the same on the outside but display differences in their internal features.
97Which statement best describes how traits in lizards will be inherited by offspring?
- AWhen parent lizards learn to catch particular insects, their offspring can inherit their specific insect-catching-skills.
- BWhen parent lizards develop stronger claws through repeated use in catching prey, their offspring can inherit their stronger-claw trait.
- CWhen parent lizards’ claws are underdeveloped because easy food sources are available, their offspring can inherit their weakened claws.
- DWhen a parent lizard is born with an extra finger on its claws, its offspring can inherit six-fingered claws.
98According to the theory of natural selection, where did the variations in body size in the three species of lizards most likely come from?
- AThe lizards needed to change in order to survive, so beneficial new traits developed.
- BThe lizards wanted to become different in size, so beneficial new traits gradually appeared in the population.
- CRandom genetic changes and sexual recombination both created new variations.
- DThe island environment caused genetic changes in the lizards.
99Fitness is a term often used by biologists to explain the evolutionary success of certain organisms. Below are descriptions of four fictional female lizards. Which lizard might a biologist consider to be the “most fit”?
- Alizard A
- Blizard B
- Clizard C
- Dlizard D
100What could cause one species to change into three species over time?
- AGroups of lizards encountered different island environments so the lizards needed to become new species with different traits in order to survive.
- BGroups of lizards must have been geographically isolated from other groups and random genetic changes must have accumulated in these lizard populations over time.
- CThere may be minor variations, but all lizards are essentially alike and all are members of a single species.
- DIn order to survive, different groups of lizards needed to adapt to the different islands, and so all organisms in each group gradually evolved to become a new lizard species.
Informações
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- Quiz sobre biocore final exam , criado por sager em 05-12-2014.
- Autor
- sager
- Idioma
- English
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