Quiz
ITA MQ
Crie uma conta grátis para terminar este quiz
Salve seu progresso e veja sua nota final.
Já tem uma conta? Inicie sessão
Perguntas do quiz (81)
1 Which air navigation service is the responsible to disseminate the instrument approach charts to the aircraft operators?
- AThe airspace management (ASM) service.
- BThe flight inforamtion service (FIS).
- CThe aeronautical information service (AIS).
- DThe aerodrome traffic zone (ATZ) service.
2Which air navigation service is the responsible to disseminate the visual approach charts to the aircraft operators?
- AThe airspace management (ASM) service.
- BThe flight inforamtion service (FIS).
- CThe aeronautical information service (AIS).
- DThe aerodrome traffic zone (ATZ) service.
3Which air navigation service is the responsible to disseminate the rules of the air that apply to a specific country?
- AThe airspace management (ASM) service of the country.
- BThe flight inforamtion service (FIS) of the country.
- CThe aeronautical information service (AIS) of the country.
- DThe aerodrome traffic zone (ATZ) services of the country.
4What is a flight information region (FIR)?
- AA specified airspace assigned to one air traffic controller (or two if working in pairs) providing flight information services.
- BA specified airspace assigned to one air traffic controller (or two if working in pairs) providing alert services
- CA specified airspace in which flight information and alert services are provided. It is the largest regular division of airspace in use in the world today.
- DA specified airspace above an airfield where flight information is provided to aircraft in the airfield traffic pattern.
5 What is an upper information region (UIR)?
- AA FIR in the upper airspace.
- BA specified airspace above an airfield where flight information is provided to aircraft executing SIDs and STARs.
- CA specified airspace above an airfield where flight information is provided to aircraft executing approaches.
- DA specified airspace above an airfield where flight information is provided to aircraft in the airfield traffic pattern.
6North Atlantic tracks (NAT) are...
- Athe static airway network in the North Atlantic airspace.
- Ban organised en-route track network that is updated every day as a function of the wind field forecast.
- Cthe set of actual trajectory tracks that have been flown by all aircraft crossing the North Atlantic in a given period of time and considering realised weather.
- Dthe name given to the oceanic clearances required to enter the North Atlantic airspace.
7A VFR aircraft is cruising with heading 130o. According to the ICAO flight level allocation scheme (odd-even rule), a possible flight level for this flight could be:
- AFL130
- BFL135
- CFL140
- DIFR flights do not fly using flight levels, but Altitudes.
8An IFR aircraft is cruising with heading 130o. According to the ICAO flight level allocation scheme (odd-even rule), a possible flight level for this flight could be:
- AFL130
- BFL135
- CFL140
- DIFR flights do not fly using flight levels, but Altitudes.
9During a climb, when the pilot reaches the transition altitude, he/she shall...
- Achange the altimeter setting from QNH to STD
- Bchange the altimeter setting from STD to QNH
- Cchange the altimeter setting from STD to QFE.
- Ddo nothing in particular regarding the altimeter setting.
10 A pilot is reporting ”our altitude is six thousand feet”. This means:
- AThe barometric altimeter of the aircraft indicates 6000 ft and it is calibrated with respect to the standard pressure at sea level (1013.25 hPa).
- BThe barometric altimeter of the aircraft indicates 6000 ft and it is calibrated with respect to the local QNH.
- CThe radio altimeter of the aircraft indicates 6000 ft and it is calibrated with respect to the standard pressure at sea level (1013.25 hPa).
- DThe radio altimeter of the aircraft indicates 6000 ft and it is calibrated with respect to the local QNH.
11Why in standard instrumental departures carts maximum altitude restrictions for certain segments are typically indicated?
- ATo allow visual self-separation procedures.
- BTo allow continuous climb operations (CCO).
- CTo strategically de-conflict them with arrivals crossing from below.
- DTo strategically de-conflict them with arrivals crossing from above.
12 With our small VFR aircraft, which is NOT equipped with any VHF communications radio...
- Ait is not legal to fly in civil airspace without a communications radio.
- Bwe can only fly in airspace G.
- Cwe can only fly in airspace F or G.
- Dwe can only fly in airspace E, F or G.
13The ATZ typically encompasses...
- Athe SIDs and STARs.
- Bthe instrumental approach procedures.
- Cthe visual airfield traffic pattern.
- Dall the other answers are correct.
14 Which of the following controlled airspace zones is sized to accommodate, approximately, all the aircraft flying standard instrumental departures?
- AThe ATZ.
- BThe CTR.
- CThe TMA.
- DThe ATC.
15Which of the following statements is correct when talking about free route airspace?
- AWithin free route space the pilot can freely execute the flight between any entry and exit points, but must communicate the intentions to the air traffic control.
- BWithin free route space the aircraft operator can freely plan routes between any entry and exit points, but must specify the chosen route in the flight plan.
- CWithin free route space the air traffic controller can freely move aircraft from their planned routes by giving instructions (vectors) in order to expedite the flow of air traffic.
- DWithin free route space the air traffic controller is not responsible to guarantee separation between aircraft and will only assist them in case of an emergency.
16 What is a TRA (temporary reserved area)?
- Aa volume of airspace temporary reserved for IFR terminal manoeuvres where VFR traffic might transit under an ATC clearance
- Ba volume of airspace temporary reserved for IFR terminal manoeuvres where VFR traffic cannot transit under any circumstance
- Ca volume of airspace temporary reserved and allocated for specific use where civil traffic might transit under an ATC clearance.
- Da volume of airspace temporary reserved and allocated for specific use where civil traffic cannot transit under any circumstance.
17Which of the following statements does NOT apply to the FUA concept?
- AAirspace segregations are not longer permanent and they are based on real use during conveniently chosen time periods.
- BAirspace should no longer be designated either military or civil.
- CAirspace should be considered as one continuum and used flexibly on a day-to-day basis.
- DAll the other options apply to the FUA concept.
18Regarding the flexible use of airspace (FUA) concept, the second level (pre-tactical level) deals with:
- AThe definition of national airspace policy and predetermined airspace structures.
- BThe day-to-day allocation of airspace, according to users requirements.
- CThe real-time use and management of available airspace.
- DThe definition of the sectorisation and capacity of the military airways.
19 What is the international radiotelephony urgency signal for aviation?
- AThe word MayDay.
- BThe word MayDay repeated three times.
- CThe word Pan-Pan.
- DThe word Pan-Pan repeated three times.
20Which of the following transponder codes indicates distress?
- A1215
- B7500
- C7600
- D7700
21An air traffic controller issues the following radiotelephony message: Echo Charlie Uniform Papa Charlie, traffic at your 10 o’clock position, Cessna 172 westbound at 4 miles, 300 ft below. Which of the following answers is correct?
- AThe message is a separation instruction to prevent a midair collision.
- BIt is a distress signal message.
- CIt is a collision hazard flight information message.
- DIt is a urgency signal message.
22 Which of the following summarises the three high-level tasks that are always performed by an air traffic controller?
- AAviate, Navigate and Communicate.
- BCoordinate clearances with other ATC units, coordinate civil-military operations, coordinate emergencies.
- CGather and process data from flights and/or ground vehicles, issue clearances, coordinate clearances with other ATC units.
- DGather and process data from flights and/or ground vehicles, separate aircraft, give flight information instructions.
23 In which situation, the visual contact with aircraft is the main data gathering source for an air traffic controller?
- Afor the IFR clearance delivery dependency.
- Bfor the ground movement control dependency.
- Cfor the approach control dependency
- DNowadays, visual contact with aircraft is not used as source of information by ATC anymore.
24 Which of the following elements is not included in an IFR clearance delivery?
- Athe route to follow.
- Bthe wind conditions for take-off.
- Cthe first transponder code (squawk) of the flight.
- Dthe initial altitude of the flight
25North Atlantic control typically requires the aircraft crew to:
- AReport their position only when requested by the ATC.
- BReport periodically their position every 2h.
- CReport periodically their position every 10o of longitude.
- DSwitch-off the transponder.
26Imagine a ground ATC system equipped only with a SSR mode C radar. Which of the following statements is correct?
- AAircraft calibrated airspeed can be inferred from radar data.
- BAircraft true airspeed can be inferred from radar data.
- COnly aircraft ADS-B messages can be received from radar data.
- DOnly aircraft squawk code and altitude are received from radar data.
27 Who is the responsible to issue air traffic control clearances?
- AThe strategic controller
- BThe tactical controller.
- CThe planner controller.
- DThe ATC supervisor.
28Who is the responsible to receive and sort incoming ATC flight progress strips?
- AThe strategic controller
- BThe tactical controller.
- CThe controller in charge of the IFR clearance delivery dependency.
- DThe ATC supervisor.
29In the context of air traffic control (ATC), which type of information we would typically find in a letter of agreement (LoA)?
- AThe clearances to cross a temporary reserved area (TRA).
- BThe exit flight levels of certain ATC sectors.
- CThe definition of the standard instrumental departures of the airport.
- DAll answers are correct.
30What ATC dependency is typically in charge to issue taxi clearances?
- AThe en-route control.
- BThe ground control.
- CThe IFR clearance delivery.
- DThe tower control.
31What ATC dependency is typically in charge to confirm that the cruise altitude filed in the flight plan has been accepted?
- AThe en-route control.
- BThe ground control.
- CThe IFR clearance delivery.
- DThe tower control.
32 Why is it difficult to implement controller to pilot data link communications (CPDLC) in civil aviation?
- ACPDLC has already been implemented for several years in Europe and USA and used extensively, at least for the en-route phase.
- BBecause its coverage is very small and requires a high number of antennas and frequencies, leading to possible capacity issues.
- CBecause it is a safe-critical system requiring very demanding (and expensive) certification processes.
- DBecause it relies on GPS, which does not meet integrity requirements for civil aviation.
33 The main difference between a VOR and an NDB is that...
- Athe VOR emits with much more signal power than the NDB.
- Bthe NDB emits with much more signal power than the VOR.
- Cwith an NDB the pilot only knows a relative bearing to the NDB station, while with the VOR the pilot knows the position of the aircraft.
- Dwith an NDB the pilot only knows a relative bearing to the NDB station, while with the VOR the pilot has directional information (relative to the magnetic North) with respect to the VOR station.
34What is the main difference between a Locator and a NDB?
- Athey are the same radionavigation system.
- Bthe Locator provides 3D guidance, while the NDB provides only 2D guidance.
- Cthe Locator is essentially the same system as the NDB, but with a lower radio coverage.
- DNone of the other answers is correct.
35What is the main difference between a Locator and a Localiser?
- Athey are the same radionavigation system.
- Bthe Locator provides 3D guidance, while the Localiser provides only 2D guidance.
- Cthe Locator is essentially the same system as the Localiser, but with a lower radio coverage.
- DNone of the other answers is correct.
36 In the context of air navigation, what is an aircraft based augmentation system (ABAS)?
- AA suite of algorithms and mathematical checks, embedded in the GNSS receiver, that are capable to detect misleading information from certain navigation satellites.
- BAn enhanced antenna and amplifier that allows to significantly improve the GPS position accuracy.
- CThe corresponding on-board receiver of a ground-based augmentation system, which allows to significantly improve the GPS integrity.
- DA technology that allows to improve GPS integrity based on a set of messages cooperatively interchanged among several aircraft flying in the same geographical area.
37Which is the European SBAS system?
- Athe WAAS.
- Bthe LAAS.
- Cthe EGNOS.
- Dthe Galileo.
38Which of the following statements is true?
- AGPS integrity is related with the average time (latency) the receiver needs to compute the position.
- BGPS integrity is related with the average time the GPS ground-control segment needs to detect a satellite is not working properly.
- CGPS integrity is related with the probability that the positioning error exceeded a certain threshold.
- DGPS integrity is related with the probability to have the system unavailable.
39 What is the transponder or squawk?
- AIt is the device that allows to encrypt information transmitted by ATC to pilots.
- BIt is the radio equipment that enables voice communications between pilots and ATC.
- CIt is the on-board device that replies to surveillance radar interrogations.
- DIt is an emergency beacon that activates in case of a crash in order to help search and rescue operations.
40 Which of the following statements is true?
- AADS-B positioning is based on secondary radar interrogations.
- BADS-B has the advantage to be significantly cheaper than secondary radar technology.
- CADS-B positioning is independent from the navigation system of the aircraft.
- DADS-B has the advantage that an aircraft is always detected, even if the crew is not willing to ”cooperate”.
41 Imagine a twin engine aircraft departing in IMC from a controlled airport. Few seconds after take-off, it hits birds, causing a fire in one of the engines and loosing all of its power. In this situation, the navigate function of the aircraft crew would be:
- Ato check if there is a contingency departure published for that airport and execute it.
- Bto safely control the aircraft trajectory with the loss of power and to manage to extinguish the fire and shut down the engine.
- Cto send a distress message to the air traffic control.
- Dto revert to manual control and visual flight to safely land as soon as possible.
42The direction, with respect to the North, to which the actual path of the aircraft is pointing to, is called...
- Atrack.
- Bheading.
- Ccourse.
- Dbearing.
43If the visibility is good enough for visual flight, then...
- Awe are in IMC and must fly under IFR.
- Bwe are in VMC and must fly under IFR.
- Cwe are in VMC and must fly under VFR.
- Dwe are in VMC and can fly under VFR or IFR.
44 What is it required to fly under IFR?
- ACertified radionavigation equipment on-board the aircraft.
- BA special training (and rating) for the pilot.
- CTo file an ATS flight plan.
- DAll answers are correct.
45 Which of the following methods shall be used to define a VFR reporting point?
- AOverflying a radionavigation facility.
- BSome timing after overflying a radionavigation facility.
- CThe intersection of a VOR radial and a NDB course.
- DAn significant landmark.
46In which situation the effect of the wind will have a bigger impact on the actual trajectory flown by an aircraft?
- Awhen flying a dead reckoning leg.
- Bwhen flying an NDB course.
- Cwhen flying a VOR radial.
- Dwhen flying a DME arc.
47 What is the cruise phase?
- AThe phase of the flight after the whole climb where the aircraft is at a constant altitude.
- BThe phase of the flight that follows the departure procedure.
- CThe phase of the flight that precedes the arrival.
- DAll answers are correct.
48Which of the following statements is false?
- ANot all airports have published STARs.
- BNot all airports have published SIDs.
- CIn general, all aircraft begin the descent when overflying the first fix of the STAR.
- DA SID procedure can only be executed in IFR.
49 Who is the responsible to publish a contingency instrumental departure for a given runway?
- Athe ANSP.
- Bthe aircraft operator.
- Cthe aircraft manufacturer.
- DThe national safety agency.
50 Who is the responsible to publish the standard operational procedures for an aircraft, such as the best moment to retract flaps/slats, deploy the landing gear, etc.
- Athe ANSP.
- Bthe aircraft operator.
- Cthe aircraft manufacturer.
- DThe national safety agency.
51A pilot is executing an airfield traffic pattern. How does (s)he knows (s)he is in the downwind leg?
- Aby using an MLS.
- Bby using an ILS
- Cby using radar vectoring.
- Dby using visual references.
52Which of the following answers enumerate three different legs of the standard airfield traffic pattern?
- Adownwind, base and final.
- BVOR radial, DME arc and NDB course.
- Cinbound, outbound and timing.
- Dracetrack, reversal and dead-reckoning.
53 According to the Figure that appears at the end of this exam...
- ATurns in the airfield traffic pattern are always to the right.
- BTurns in the airfield traffic pattern are always to the left.
- CTurns in the airfield traffic pattern are to the right for runway 31 and to the left for runway 13.
- DTurns in the airfield traffic pattern are to the left for runway 31 and to the right for runway 13.
54 Regarding the Figure that appears at the end of this exam, what does the point Echo (E) in the chart indicate?
- Aa VOR.
- Ban NDB.
- Ca visual reference point for the arrival procedure.
- Da visual reference point of the en-route phase.
55Consider the VFR chart of the area around Limoges, provided in annex to this exam. The airspace class over the NDB LSU (south-west of Limoges airport) at 4500 ft QNH is:
- AClass C.
- BClass D.
- CClass E.
- DClass G.
56 An aircraft with no VHF radio equipment flying under VFR wants to take-off from St Junien (LFBJ), located at the west of Limoges, and take heading 030o approximately. Check the VFR chart provided in annex to this exam. Which of the following answers is correct?
- AThis flight cannot be done without a VHF radio.
- BThis flight can be done if the aircraft remains always outside the CTR of Limoges.
- CThis flight can be done if the aircraft remains always outside the CTR of Limoges and always below 1000 ft above ground level
- DThis flight can be done if the aircraft remains always outside the CTR of Limoges and always between 1000 ft above ground level and 4000ft above the mean sea level.
57 An IFR flight is crossing the Limoges airspace at 2000ft QNH following a straight line from south to north that overflies Limoges airport (dotted linne in the VFR chart provided in annex to this exam). At which point this aircraft will need a clearance to enter controlled airspace?
- ABefore entering the TMA Limoges 2 (aproximatelly over St. Yrieix-la-Perche).
- BBefore entering the TMA Limoges 1 (aproximatelly over Nexoh).
- CBefore entering the CTR Limoges 1.
- DBefore entering the CTR Limoges 2.
58A VFR flight is crossing the Limoges airspace at 1500ft above ground level following a straight line from south to north that overflies Limoges airport (dotted linne in the VFR chart provided in annex to this exam). At which point this aircraft will need a clearance before entering controlled airspace?
- ABefore entering the TMA Limoges 2 (aproximatelly over St. Yrieix-la-Perche).
- BBefore entering the TMA Limoges 1 (aproximatelly over Nexoh).
- CBefore entering the CTR Limoges 1.
- DBefore entering the CTR Limoges 2.
59A small aircraft with no VHF radio equipment flying in VFR wants to fly the black dotted line over the Limoges area from sourth to north at a constant altitude. Is this flight possible? If yes, at which of the following altitudes?
- AThis flight cannot be done without a VHF radio.
- B500ft ASFC.
- C2000ft QNH.
- D4500ft QNH.
60An helicopter is over the mountain of 1886 ft that appears in the south-est corner of the Limoges chart provided in this exam. The helicopter will be inside Restricted Area 166C if:
- Aits altitude is 500 ft above ground level.
- Bits altitude is 2500 ft QNH
- Cits altitude is 3500 ft QNH
- Dits altitude is 5000 ft QNH
61 An helicopter is over the mountain of 1886 ft that appears in the south-est corner of the Limoges chart provided in this exam. The helicopter will be inside Restricted Area 68B if:
- Aits altitude is 500 ft above ground level.
- Bits altitude is 2500 ft QNH
- Cits altitude is 3500 ft QNH
- Dits altitude is 5000 ft QNH
62What is the airspace class at 1500 ft over the Limoges VOR?
- AClass A
- BClass D
- CClass E
- DClass G
63Consider the VFR chart of the area around Perpignan, provided in annex to this exam. The lower limit of the Dangerous area D142, located over the mediterranean sea is:
- Athe sea level.
- B3000 ft above the sea level.
- C3000 ft above the elevation of Perpignan airport.
- D3000 ft above the 1013.25 hPa isobar.
64 A search and rescue helicopter is at the St. Cyprien beach, at the south-east of Perpignan and must transport urgently a wounded person to the Hospital, which is located in Perpignan city (in between the airport and the PL NDB). This transfer flight is planned at 500 ft above the terrain and in VFR. In these conditions, which of the following statements is correct (check the VFR chart provided in annex to this exam)?
- AThe pilot must always be in radio-contact with the ATC during the whole flihgt.
- BThe pilot must receive a clearance to enter the CTR of Perpignan.
- CIs not necessary for the pilot to contact the ATC (albeit it is recommended).
- DVFR flights cannot enter the CTR of Perpignan. However, being a search and rescue aircraft this helicopter can proceed with the planned flight and the ATC will give it priority.
65Consider the VFR chart of the area of Perpignan, provided in annex to this exam. The airspace class at 1300 ft above sea level over the beach of St. Cyprien is:
- AClass A.
- BClass D.
- CClass E.
- DClass G.
66 Consider the VFR chart of the area of Perpignan, provided in annex to this exam. The airspace class at 3000 ft above ground level over the town of Le Soler (West of Perpignan city and with an elevation of aproximatelly 700 ft) is:
- AClass A.
- BClass D.
- CClass E.
- DClass G.
67An helicopter under Special VFR (SVFR) is executing the airfiled traffic pattern to runway 33 in Perpignan airport (see chart provided in annex to this exam). The air traffic controller is responsible to separate it from:
- Aall IFR flights.
- Ball VFR flights.
- Call VFR and IFR flights.
- Dthe controller has no separation responsibility with SVFR flights in this CTR.
68A VFR flight is flying inside Perpignan TMA 7 (see the northwest corner of the chart provided in annex to this exam). The air traffic controller is responsible to separate it from:
- Aall IFR flights.
- Ball VFR flights.
- Call VFR and IFR flights.
- Dthe controller has no separation responsibility with VFR flights in this part of the TMA.
69What is the main effect of the flaps/slats configuration in an aircraft performance model?
- Athey significantly change the wing surface.
- Bthey change the engine thrust parameters (engine efficiency).
- Cthey change the CD0 and CD2 parameters of the drag coefficient.
- Dthey do not have a significant impact in an aircraft performance model.
70In the San Francisco airport (SFO), two parallel approaches are executed if visibility meteorological conditions (VMC) are met. Otherwise, only one instrumental approach is executed in one of the runways. This is a illustrative example of a trade-off, or interdependency, between:
- Aflight efficiency and environmental impact.
- Bflight efficiency and safety.
- Ccapacity and safety.
- Dcapacity and flight efficiency.
71Minimum aircraft separation standards in oceanic areas are much larger than separation in continental areas with radar coverage. This is a illustrative example of a trade-off, or interdependency, between:
- Aflight efficiency and environmental impact.
- Bflight efficiency and safety.
- Ccapacity and safety.
- Dcapacity and flight efficiency.
72Continuous descent operations are not possible in very congested airports. This is a illustrative example of a trade-off, or interdependency, between:
- Aflight efficiency and environmental impact.
- Bflight efficiency and safety.
- Ccapacity and safety.
- Dcapacity and flight efficiency.
73 Noise optimal departures (i.e. minimising noise exposure over the population) typically require more fuel since the aircraft might be required to climb at not optimal speeds and/or fly longer distances to avoid certain populated areas. This is a illustrative example of a trade-off, or interdependency, between:
- Aflight efficiency and environmental impact.
- Bflight efficiency and safety.
- Ccapacity and safety.
- Dcapacity and flight efficiency.
74It has been reported in many studies that the United States of America (USA) ATM system, if compared with the European system, handles almost the double of traffic but with much less technical staff and air traffic controllers involved. Which of the following potential reasons is correct?
- AThe European airspace is much more complex to manage in terms of aircraft density and network topology.
- BThe European airspace is managed by many air navigation service providers, using different systems and procedures; and it is very constrained with several military zones.
- CThe USA communication and navigation systems are much more advanced if compared with the European technology, leading to significant capacity increases.
- DThe USA surveillance systems are more precise, allowing for lower separation margins between aircraft.
75 Which of the following pieces of aeronautical information could potentially appear in a NOTAM message?
- A”... runway 27L closed for maintenance ...”
- B”... traffic at 11 o’clock at 2NM, 200ft below, Cessna 172 crossing from left to right... ”
- C”... wind is 280 at 20 kt, visibility is 5km, ... ”
- DAll answers are correct.
76Which of the following pieces of aeronautical information could potentially appear in a flight information service (FIS) message?
- A”... runway 27L closed for maintenance ...”
- B”... traffic at 11 o’clock at 2NM, 200ft below, Cessna 172 crossing from left to right... ”
- C”... wind is 280 at 20 kt, visibility is 5km, ... ”
- DAll answers are correct.
77 Which of the following pieces of aeronautical information could potentially appear in an ATIS message?
- A”... traffic at 11 o’clock at 2NM, 200ft below, Cessna 172 crossing from left to right... ”
- B”... sectorisation in Barcelona TMA from 10h to 12h is 11 Victor... ”
- C”... transition level is seven zero, ...”
- DAll answers are correct.
78 What is an aeronautical information circular (CIRC)?
- AIt is a notice or advisory that contains useful information for pilots or potential hazards along a flight route or at a location, such an airport, in the short term.
- BIt is information for aircraft operators that typically contain administrative, explicative or advice that in the long term can affect their operations.
- CIt is a document where two air traffic control centres agree in how traffic is transferred (specifying, for instance exit flight levels).
- DIt is the chapter of the national AIP where the rules of the air that apply to that specific country are described.
79Which of the following indicators could be representative to measure flight efficiency in a terminal manoeuvring area?
- AThe average number of people exposed above a certain noise level.
- BThe average length of trajectory level-offs in departures and/or arrivals.
- CThe number of aircraft executing approaches for a given period of time.
- DThe number of air traffic controllers divided by the amount of controlled time, and for a given period of time.
80Which of the following indicators could be representative to measure flight efficiency in the en-route phase?
- AThe difference, in terms of additional flight distance, between the actual trajectory and the optimal trajectory.
- BThe average separation between aircraft for a given period of time.
- CThe number separation violations between aircraft reported in a given period of time.
- DThe average number of aircraft inside an air traffic control sector for a given period of time.
81Airspace Management strongly depends on:
- Athe Aeronautical Information Services (AIS) available.
- Bthe actual weather conditions.
- Cthe Communications, Navigation and Surveillance (CNS) infrastructure available.
- Dall the answers are correct.
Informações
- Descrição
- Quiz sobre ITA MQ, criado por Aaron Molinari em 05-03-2020.
- Autor
- Aaron Molinari
- Idioma
- English
- Visualizações
- 35
- Etiquetas
- Avaliação
- Ainda sem avaliações Avalie este quiz