Quiz
7 Level CDC
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Perguntas do quiz (82)
1Which Air Force instruction (AFI) provides additional information on requirements approval documents (RAD)?
- AAFI 63–101.
- BAFI 63–104.
- CAFI 63–138.
- DAFI 64–101.
2Which Defense Federal Acquisition Regulation (DFARS) part governs commercial item determination (CID)?
- ADFARS Part 212.
- BDFARS Part 213.
- CDFARS Part 233.
- DDFARS Part 242.
3Above what price threshold should one conduct a commercial item determination (CID)?
- A$250,000.
- B$500,000.
- C$1 million.
- D$6.5 million.
4For small business set asides, what percentage of the cost to manufacture a particular product is the prime contractor required to cover?
- A30 percent.
- B50 percent.
- C75 percent.
- D100 percent.
5When the total cost of the contract is below $10 million, when do you create an acquisition plan?
- ADuring routine buys.
- BWhen there are no incentives to be included.
- CWhen the acquisition was well researched and there is minimal risk to award and completion.
- DWhere there is a history of protests or performance problems.
6Who is responsible for managing the quality assurance surveillance plan (QASP) quality controls?
- ACustomer.
- BContractor.
- CContracting office.
- DContracting officer representative.
7What part of the quality assurance surveillance plan (QASP) lists performance objectives and standards that must be performed by the contractor?
- ASurveillance matrix.
- BSampling guide.
- CDecision tables.
- DChecklists.
8When developing the request for proposal (RFP), the Department of Defense (DOD) source selection procedures are required for
- Aorders under multiple award contracts.
- Bacquisitions using Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR) Part 13.
- Cacquisitions using FAR Part 15.
- Darchitect and engineer services solicited and awarded using FAR Part 36.
9The lowest price technically acceptable (LPTA) source selection method
- Apermits the use of tradeoffs between price and nonprice factors.
- Bmay include nonprice factors such as technical and past performance.
- Callows the government to accept other than the lowest priced proposal.
- Drequires the relative importance of all evaluation factors to be identified in the solicitation.
10Which section of a request for proposal (RFP) provides offerors with instructions for proposal preparation?
- ASection C.
- BSection K.
- CSection L.
- DSection M.
11What action must be taken if a proposal exceeds established page limitations stated in the solicitation?
- ADetermine the contractor non-responsive.
- BEliminate the offeror from the competitive range.
- CRemove pages in excess of the maximum allowed from the back of the proposal.
- DAccept the proposal “as is” only if determined to be one of the most highly rated proposals.
12Solicitation evaluation factors are used to distinguish one proposal from another by
- Ausing discriminators.
- Busing non-commercial specifications.
- Cincluding as many evaluation factors as possible.
- Dtailoring the evaluation criteria contained in Section K.
13Lowest price technically acceptable (LPTA) source selections are evaluated according to
- Aprice only.
- Bthe acceptability of a product or service only.
- Cthe acceptability of non-price evaluation factors or subfactors.
- Dthe rankings of non-price factor/subfactors and the acceptability of a product or service.
14A proposal that meets requirements and indicates an exceptional approach and understanding of the requirements is given which rating?
- AGood.
- BMarginal.
- COutstanding.
- DAcceptable.
15One common aspect of past performance relevancy is
- Athe number of contracts performed.
- Bfinancial condition.
- Csmall business type.
- Ddollar value.
16When considering how many D type contracts to award from one request for proposal (RFP), the contracting officer should consider the
- Atotal cost of the contract.
- Bsmall business type of the contractors.
- Cexpected duration and frequency of the task or delivery orders.
- Dability to alleviate competition among the awardees throughout the contract’s period of performance.
17Which method is a preferred technique in support of price analysis?
- AComparison of proposed price received in response to the solicitation.
- BAnalysis of data other than certified cost or pricing data provided by the offeror.
- CComparison with competitive published price lists.
- DUse of weighted guidelines.
18Which factor affects comparability during price analysis?
- AType of funding being used.
- BDifferences in quantities or size.
- CUse of federal supply schedules.
- DDifferences in contractor business size.
19Technical analysis of offeror proposals should
- Aanalyze each offeror’s profit margin.
- Bonly be conducted by the contract officer.
- Creview each offeror’s experience on similar projects.
- Dexamine the types and quantities of materials proposed.
20Communications between the government and contractors are held after receipt of proposals to
- Anegotiate prices with only those offerors who are in the competitive range.
- Bdetermine whether or not a proposal should be placed in the competitive range.
- Cidentify proposal deficiencies and allow offerors to revise its proposal accordingly.
- Ddiscuss aspects of an offeror’s proposal that could, in the opinion of the CO, be altered to materially enhance the proposal’s potential for award.
21The overall objective of negotiations is to
- Aobtain the lowest price possible.
- Bnever settle on a price that is outside of the government’s minimum and maximum objective.
- Cnegotiate a contract type with a price providing the greatest incentive for efficient and economical performance.
- Dnegotiate a contract below what the government believes is reasonable for a particular contract requirement while still allowing the contractor to make a profit.
22In noncompetitive negotiations, which price position supports the price believed to be most reasonable based on the government’s analysis?
- AMinimum.
- BObjective.
- CMedian.
- DMaximum.
23What profit analysis method assigns values to various profit factors, resulting in a calculated profit objective?
- APrice analysis.
- BWeighted guidelines.
- CProfit application guidelines.
- DContractor cost/risk analysis.
24When conducting negotiations, the inability to compromise may be avoided by
- Ausing concessions to split any differences.
- Bthreatening to cancel and resolicit the requirement.
- Cusing other non-price factors to take the focus off price alone.
- Destablishing an opening position that allows room to compromise.
25It may become necessary to walk away from negotiations when
- Aa reasonable person would consider it to be a bad deal.
- Bthe government will exceed its maximum price position.
- Cthe negotiations begin to exceed a reasonable amount of time.
- Dthe parties cannot agree on price alone, although it is known that a better deal does not exist.
26When a deficiency is found in an offeror’s proposal, the government must
- Anot further consider the offeror for award.
- Bprovide suggestions on how to correct the deficiency.
- Cidentify it and provide the offeror an opportunity to improve the proposal.
- Ddiscuss every aspect of the proposal that received less than the maximum possible rating.
27What may the contracting officer request during discussions to clarify the offeror’s position for further discussion?
- AProposal revision.
- BCounteroffer.
- CRevised quote.
- DDetermination and finding.
28When evaluating proposal revisions in a lowest price technically acceptable (LPTA) source selection
- Acompare proposals against each other.
- Bthe government may not request final proposal revisions from any offerors.
- Cthe evaluation criteria established in the request for proposal (RFP) must be used.
- Dthe government may only make tradeoffs between cost/price and non-cost/price factors.
29A comparative analysis must be completed for
- Aall offerors.
- Ball offerors in the competitive range.
- Conly the offerors outside of the competitive range.
- Donly the offerors that source selection authority (SSA) has identified.
30The source selection decision document (SSDD) represents the source selection authority’s
- Aindependent judgment.
- Bdependent judgment.
- Ccomparative assessment.
- Dselection of best value proposal
31The source selection decision document (SSDD) should
- Abe written as a stand-alone document.
- Bbe signed and posted on the government point of entry (GPE).
- Cstrictly focus on lowest price and why other offerors were excluded.
- Donly identify the factors and subfactors that help sell the authorities’ decision.
32When preparing an award notice letter, what should be provided?
- AAward amount.
- BRanking of other proposals.
- CDate of expected notice to proceed.
- DAmount of offerors and the awarded offeror.
33Within how many days after receipt of a written request should a post-award debriefing be provided to an unsuccessful offeror?
- A3.
- B5.
- C7.
- D10.
34Post-award debriefings must include
- Athe overall evaluated cost or price and technical ratings of all offerors.
- Bthe government’s evaluation of the signification weaknesses in the offeror’s proposal.
- Cnames of individuals providing reference information about the offeror’s past performance.
- Da point by point comparison of the debriefed offeror’s proposal with those of other offerors.
35Upon completion of a debriefing, offerors must be notified that
- Ano further questions are permissible.
- Bdebriefings may be reopened at the discretion of the contract officer (CO).
- Conly the most highly rated offers will be retained for use in future acquisitions.
- Drequests for additional information must be submitted in writing with three days after conclusion of the debriefing.
36If an untimely request for a debriefing was received, a contract officer
- Amay decline to provide the debriefing.
- Bmust limit the debriefing to who received the award and the award amount.
- Cmust provide a complete debriefing to all offerors who request one regardless of timeliness.
- Dis required to provide a debriefing in accordance with the Freedom of Information Act.
37What may contractors receive when site conditions differ from what was indicated in the specifications and drawings?
- ATime.
- BMoney.
- CTime, money or both.
- DCancelling of the contract.
38Contractor progress schedules are required
- Afor all construction contracts.
- Bfor only architect and engineering contracts.
- Cwhen contracts exceed the simplified acquisition threshold (SAT) and the performance period is greater than 30 days.
- Dwhen contracts exceed the SAT and the performance period is greater than 60 days.
39Why is the site visit conducted so quickly after issuing the solicitation?
- ASo that interested contractors have time to submit requests for information for clarifications.
- BSo that interested contractors have time to submit a protest.
- CBecause the site visit is only conducted when contractors request one.
- DBecause the site visit allows civil engineering to verify the requirements.
40What should the contracting officer or contract specialist do when there are discrepancies found during the post-award site visit?
- AForward them to contracting officer representative or contractor so they can be addressed.
- BTell the contractor that payment is being withheld.
- CDocument the file and address later.
- DTell the customer.
41What type of Contractor Performance Assessment Reporting System (CPARS) report is used at the end of the first 12-month option period on a 5-year contract?
- AFinal.
- BInterim.
- CAddendum.
- DAnnual interim.
42The Truthful Cost or Pricing Data statue requires contractors to submit cost or pricing data when the procurement is expected to be valued over
- Athe simplified acquisition threshold.
- B$750,000.
- C$2 million.
- Dthe micro purchase threshold.
43Certification of cost or pricing data states that
- Ato the best of the contractor’s knowledge, the cost or pricing data is accurate and complete at the date of the agreement.
- Bto the best of the contractor’s knowledge, the cost or pricing data is verified by the suppliers.
- Cthe contractor agrees to the cost or price of the contract.
- Dthe contractor’s estimates of cost or pricing data is correct.
44What type of change improperly exceeds the scope of a procurement and is one which could not have been reasonably anticipated by offerors?
- ACardinal change.
- BUnilateral change.
- CRestrictive change.
- DConstructive change.
45A contractor is required to certify any claim
- Aexceeding the micro-purchase threshold.
- Bexceeding $100,000.
- Cexceeding $1,000,000.
- Dwhen the contract is subject to the Truthful Cost or Pricing Data statue.
46What Air Force instruction (AFI) governs the use of the government purchase card (GPC)?
- AAFI 64–105.
- BAFI 64–102.
- CAFI 64–117.
- DAFI 36–2903.
47The agency/organization program coordinator (A/OPC) is responsible for
- Afor oversight of all cardholders under his or her control.
- Binitiating government purchase card (GPC) accounts, issuing delegation letters, and providing mandatory training.
- Cstaying aware of GPC rules, following those rules, and making purchases within their limits.
- Dproviding training, distributing cards, replacing lost or stolen cards, and providing customer service.
48Which is not one of the phases of strategic sourcing?
- AStandup phase.
- BExecution phase.
- CSource selection strategy phase.
- DManagement performance phase.
49What strategic sourcing tool assesses data such as money spent, type of contracts used, size of purchase, item(s) purchased, and so forth?
- ACost analysis.
- BPrice analysis.
- CSpend analysis.
- DPortfolio management.
50Two-step sealed bidding is especially useful in
- Acontracts that have a short lead time and need to be award quickly.
- Bacquisitions requiring complex technical proposals.
- Ccost-plus-fixed fee contracts.
- Dconstruction contracts.
51One condition why two-step sealed bidding may be used in preference to negotiations is when
- Adefinite criteria exist for evaluating technical proposals.
- Bonly one technically qualified source is expected to be available.
- Cthere is not sufficient time available for use of the two-step sealed bidding method.
- Da cost-reimbursement contract will be used.
52The purpose of contract financing is to
- Aassist the contractor in paying costs incurred during the performance of the contract.
- Bassist the contractor in getting their business started.
- Chelp the contractor with lease or rental payments.
- Dhelp the contractor with the cost-type contract.
53Which is a type of noncommercial contract financing payment?
- ALien.
- BLetter of credit.
- CLoan guarantees.
- DProgress payments based on insurance.
54Commercial advance and interim payments may be made when the
- Aform of contract financing is in the best interest of the contractor.
- Bcontract item being financed is a commercial supply or service.
- Ccontract being awarded is under sole-source procedures.
- Dcontract price is below the SAT.
55What type of financing has the least amount of risk to the government?
- AAdvance.
- BPrivate.
- CPartial
- DCost.
56Which task falls under contract support integration?
- APlanning, validating and prioritizing requirements.
- BContracting support planning and coordinating common contracting actions.
- CTranslating requirements into contract terms, and developing, soliciting, executing, and closing out contracts.
- DPlanning contractor management, preparing for contractor deployment, deploying or redeploying contractors.
57Which is Phase III of the operational phase?
- ADeter.
- BStabilize
- CDominate.
- DReinforce.
58What is the purpose of the Joint Requirements Review Board (JRRB)?
- AReview, validate, approve, and prioritize contract support requirements.
- BEnsure contract support actions support the joint force commanders command guidance.
- CMaximize contracting capabilities while minimizing the competition for limited vendor capabilities.
- DEnsure that contracting and other related logistics efforts are properly coordinated across the entire area of responsibility.
59International agreements between two or more governments that address various privileges, immunities, and responsibilities and enumerate the rights and responsibilities of individual members of a deployed force are known as
- Astatus of forces agreements (SOFA).
- Blaw of armed conflict (LOAC).
- Cwartime agreements.
- Dhost nation laws.
60Contractors authorized to accompany the force (CAAF)
- Ais a term given to describe local national contractors.
- Bis a term used to describe all Department of Defense civilian contractors no matter the location.
- Cis a term given to describe local national contractors and third country nationals.
- Dare contractor employees who are authorized to accompany the force in applicable foreign contingency operations.
61Contractors authorized to accompany the force (CAAF) are
- Asubject to all local laws, regardless of status.
- Bexempt from all host nation laws during a contingency.
- Cexempt from all laws in a contingency environment unless stated in the contract.
- Dsubject to local laws unless specifically exempted by Status of Forces Agreements (SOFA) security agreements.
62What is a major element of the air expeditionary force (AEF) structure?
- ADeployment force.
- BNoninstitutional force.
- CExpeditionary force.
- DReadily available force.
63What is the purpose of the reclama process?
- ATo request relief from the deployment tasking by asking the authority to reconsider its decision.
- BTo guarantee that the unit will be relieved from the deployment tasking.
- CTo ensure a unit will not be tasked with a deployment.
- DTo ensure the commander can control if his or her Airmen can deploy.
64When should the contracting officer conduct the mission brief?
- AAs soon as possible.
- BOnce you have your office established.
- COnce the rest of your staff arrive on location.
- DOnce the deployed commander seeks you out and asks for one.
65Who is the second person to receive contract authority?
- ASenior contracting official (SCO).
- BSecretary of Defense (SecDef).
- CPresident.
- DHead of contracting authority (HCA).
66Which form explicitly documents a contracting officer’s warrant?
- AStandard Form (SF) 1400.
- BSF 1401.
- CSF 1402.
- DSF 1403.
67Which of the following is a main contracting-related option?
- ADefense Contract Management Agency.
- BFunctional Contracting Command.
- CDefense Logistics Agency.
- DLead service component responsible for theater support contracting.
68Which contracting-related organizational structure is best suited for long-term missions and missions beyond the capability of a single service?
- AService component support to own forces.
- BGeographic contracting command (GCC).
- CJoint theater support contracting command (JTSCC).
- DLead service component responsible for theater support contracting.
69Which type of funds will a contingency contracting officer (CCO) mainly use?
- AProcurement.
- BMilitary construction (MILCON).
- COperations and maintenance (O&M).
- DMorale, welfare, and recreation (MWR)/non-appropriated funds (NAF).
70The primary goal of Defense Base Act insurance is to cover
- Aworkers on military bases outside the United States.
- Bworkers on military bases outside and inside the United States.
- Cmilitary personnel on military bases outside the United States.
- Dmilitary personnel on coalition bases outside the United States.
71Which regulation(s) cover expedited contracting procedures?
- AAir Force Instruction (AFI) 64–105.
- BAFI 64–102.
- CFederal Acquisition Regulation (FAR) Part 18.
- DFAR Part 18 and Defense Federal Acquisition Regulation Supplement (DFARS) Part 218.
72Who normally fulfills the field ordering officer (FOO) role?
- AArmy soldiers.
- BResource advisors (RA).
- CContracting officers (CO).
- DContracting officer representatives (COR).
73Who appoints field ordering officers (FOO)?
- AContractor chief executives.
- BSquadron commanders.
- CContingency contracting officers (CCO).
- DContracting officer representatives (COR).
74What must field ordering officers (FOO) maintain when keeping track of their purchases?
- ACopy of the purchase request document.
- BCopy of purchase receipt.
- CAppointment letter.
- DStandard Forms 44.
75Which is a field ordering officer (FOO) violation?
- AAuthorized commitments.
- BPurchases at authorized limits.
- CPurchases outside the purpose of the appropriated funds.
- DEnsuring competition in contracting act requirements (CICA) are met.
76Who is responsible for determining contractors authorized to augment the force (CAAF)/non-CAAF status?
- AContracting officer (CO).
- BContract specialist.
- CHost-nation liaison.
- DBase commander.
77In-theater management of contractor personnel is maintained in
- Asecurity forces.
- BSystem for Award Management (SAM).
- CDefense Biometric Identification System (DBIDS).
- DSynchronized predeployment operational tracker (SPOT).
78Which is a tool that a contingency contracting officer (CCO) can use to research an area of responsibility (AOR)?
- AComprehensive emergency management plan (CEMP).
- BLessons learned plan.
- CPhysically flying to the location.
- DThe respective combatant command (CCMD) operational contract support integration cell (OCSIC).
79What is a category of defense support of civil authorities (DSCA)?
- AUndesignated law enforcement support.
- BInternational emergencies.
- CDomestic emergencies.
- DSpace activities.
80Humanitarian assistance is the Department of Defense (DOD) term
- Afor relief and development activities that take place in the context of an overseas military exercise, training event, or operation.
- Bfor domestic emergencies that affect the public welfare, endanger life and property, or disrupt the usual process of government.
- Cthat allows the DOD to provide aid whenever a military accident happens on a DOD installation.
- Dthat authorizes the DOD to help state and local governments alleviate the suffering and damage caused by disasters.
81Which act authorizes the federal government to help state and local governments alleviate the suffering and damage caused by disasters?
- ADisaster Relief Act of 1974.
- BDepartment of Defense Disaster Response Act.
- COverseas Humanitarian, Disaster and Civic Aid Act (OHDACA).
- DRobert T. Stafford Disaster Relief and Emergency Assistance Act.
82If unable to exercise contingency contracting officer (CCO) skills in a base exercise, who prepares CCOs with unit specific exercises?
- AContracting commander.
- BUnit training manager. (UTM).
- CUnit deployment manager. (UDM.)
- DInstallation’s wing inspection team (WIT).
Informações
- Descrição
- Business/Economics Quiz sobre 7 Level CDC, criado por Cody McLaughlin em 28-08-2020.
- Autor
- Cody McLaughlin
- Idioma
- English
- Visualizações
- 112
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