CCI Set 1

1. 1According to ICAEL guidelines, a sonographer in an accredited lab must have a minimum of 15 hours of:

   1. ACME's in one year
   2. BEcho specific CME's in one year
   3. CCME's in three years
   4. DEcho specific CME's in three years
2. 2In a patient with aortic stenosis, which patient position is MOST OFTEN best for examination with a Pedoff probe from the right sternal border?

   1. Asupine
   2. BFowler's
   3. Cright lateral decubitis
   4. DTrandenberg
3. 3Prior to starting an echo, the tech should verify the indication for the study by:

   1. Aasking the patient
   2. Breview the physican order
   3. Casking the scheduling desk
   4. Dreview the previous echo
4. 4What do you look for in patients with Kawasaki disease?

   1. Aaortic stenosis
   2. Bcoronary artery aneurysms
   3. Cventricular septal defect
   4. Dpulmonic stenosis
5. 5What transducer location MOST OFTEN provides the best images of the ascending aorta?

   1. Aapical
   2. Bsubcostal
   3. Csuprasternal
   4. Dright parasternal
6. 6The Pedoff probe is MOST OFTEN used for the evaluation of ___________.

   1. Aaortic stenosis
   2. Baortic regurgitation
   3. Cmitral valve stenosis
   4. Dpulmonic stenosis
7. 7A normal LVIDd measurement is:

   1. A20 mm
   2. B50 mm
   3. C80 mm
   4. D100 mm
8. 8Given the information below, calculate the aortic valve area.
   LVOT diameter 2.0 cm
   LVOT velocity 1.1 m/s
   Aortic valve velocity 3.9 m/s

   1. A0.44 cm2
   2. B0.66 cm2
   3. C0.89 cm2
   4. D1.10 cm2
9. 9Given the information below, calculate the Qp/Qs ratio.
   LVOT diameter 2.0 cm
   LVOT VTI 22 cm
   RVOT diamter 2.2 cm
   RVOT 21 cm
   HR 60

   1. A0.86
   2. B1.16
   3. C2.05
   4. D3.23
10. 10Given the mitral valve pressure half-time of 260 m/s, the mitral valve area is:

    1. A0.77 cm2
    2. B0.85 cm2
    3. C1.00 cm2
    4. D1.18 cm2

11. 11What is the IVS motion in a patient with left bundle branch block?

    1. Ahypokinetic
    2. Bdyskinetic
    3. Cakinetic
12. 12Spectral anaylsis displays which components of the Doppler signal?

    1. ATime, Amplitude, Voltage
    2. BAmplitude, Time, Frequency
    3. CCapacitance, Time, Frequency
    4. DAmplitude, Frequency, Capacitance
13. 13The most anterior surface of the heart is primarily formed by the ______.

    1. Aright ventricle
    2. Bleft ventricle
    3. Cright atrium
    4. Dleft atrium
14. 14A decrease in packet size and depth of view when using color Doppler will:

    1. Aimprove the frame rate
    2. Bdecrease sensitivity to flow
    3. Ccause high velocity flows to be displayed in brighter hues of color
    4. Dcause high velocity flows to alias earlier
15. 15What 2 paramenters are needed to determine stroke volume by Doppler?

    1. Across sectional area and peak velocity
    2. Bpeak velocity proximal and distal to valve
    3. Ccross sectional area and velocity time integral
    4. Dvelocity time integral proximal and distal to valve
16. 16The presence of a tricupid valve jet detected by continuous wave Doppler can assist in estimating:

    1. Amean RA pressure
    2. BRV systolic pressure
    3. CRV diastolic pressure
    4. DPA systolic & diastolic pressure
17. 17The Bernoulli equation is used to:

    1. Acalculate pressure drops using peak velocity
    2. Bcalculate aortic stenosis using peak velocity
    3. Cused to change pressure to velocity
    4. Dcalculate peak velocity
18. 18Apical 3-chamber view is obtained with the transducer placed:

    1. Asubcostal
    2. Bat the apex
    3. Cat the parasternal border
    4. Din the suprasternal notch
19. 19The equation for determining cardiac output from ventricular volumes is:

    1. ACO = (LVEDV - LVESV) x HR
    2. BCO = (LVEDV + LVESV)/HR
    3. CCO = (LVEDV - LVESV)/HR
    4. DCO = (LVEDV + LVESV) x HR
20. 20What coronary supplies the interatrial septum?

    1. Aright
    2. Bleft
    3. Ccircumflex
    4. Dleft anterior descending
21. 21What coronary artery feeds the inferoseptal wall?

    1. Aright
    2. Bleft
    3. Ccircumflex
    4. Dleft anterior descending
22. 22The cross sectional area of the LVOT multiplied by the velocity time integral (VTI) at the same location is equal to:

    1. Astroke volume
    2. Baortic valve area
    3. Cperipheral resistance
    4. Dpressure drop distal to aortic valve
23. 23What 2-D echo view could be used to planimeter the mitral valve area?

    1. AApical 4
    2. BPLAX
    3. CPSAX
    4. DSubcostal 4
24. 24The number of active elements in the transducer has the greatest effect on:

    1. Aaxial resolution
    2. Blateral resolution
    3. Cdynamic range or gray scale
    4. Dthe ability to seperate strong reflectors
25. 25What would be an advantage of CW Doppler over PW Doppler?

    1. Arange resolution
    2. Blow Nyquist frequency
    3. Caliasing can't be detected
    4. Dno limit on maximum measurable velocity
26. 26What would be a contraindication to performing a stress test on an athlete with chest pain?

    1. Aunstable angina
    2. Bback pain
    3. Cprevious diagnosis of endocarditis
    4. Dpulmonary edema
27. 27The y-axis of a spectral analysis of a Doppler signal is used to determine:

    1. Atiming
    2. Bvelocity
    3. Cangle theta
    4. Dintensity of the returned signal
28. 28Which of the following frequencies is in an ultrasound range?

    1. A15 Hz
    2. B15 kHz
    3. C15 MHz
    4. D17,000 Hz
29. 29The average propagation speed in soft tissue:

    1. A1.54 m/sec
    2. B0.501 m/s
    3. C1540 dB/sec
    4. D10 km/sec
30. 30If you increase your line density, frame rate will:

    1. Aincrease
    2. Bdecrease
31. 31The Nyquist limit of PW Doppler is dependent upon which of the following:

    1. Asample volume size
    2. Bdirection of flow sampled
    3. C# of red blood cells encountered
    4. Dpulse repetition frequency of the system
32. 32Which of the following improves sound transmission from the transducer element into tissue?

    1. Atuning coil
    2. BDoppler effect
    3. Cdamping material
    4. Dimpedance matching layer
33. 33Which of the following will result in the best axial resolution?

    1. Ashorter pulse length
    2. Blong pulse length
    3. Clow PRF
    4. Dhigh PRF
34. 34What is the ability to distinguish between two objects in close proximity?

    1. Aresolution
    2. Brefraction
    3. Cattenuation
    4. Dspecificity
35. 35What aortic leaflet is the superior one in PLAX?

    1. Aright
    2. Bleft
    3. Cnon coronary
36. 36In the parasternal short axis view, which tricuspid valve leaflets are seen?

    1. Aanterior & medial
    2. Banterior & posterior
    3. Cmedial & posterior
37. 37On a transthoracic echo, what is sometimes seen at the aortic level in PSAX view or Apical 2-chamber?

    1. Apapillary muscles of the mitral valve
    2. Bpulmonic valves
    3. Ccoronary sinus
    4. Dleft atrial appendage
38. 38What is the normal velocity of the left atrial appendage?

    1. A20 cm/sec
    2. B46 cm/sec
    3. C85 cm/sec
    4. D110 cm/sec
39. 39The coronary arteries come off the __________.

    1. Aleft ventricle
    2. Bcoronary sinus
    3. Caorta
    4. Dsinus of Valsalva
40. 40During which phase do the coronary arteries fill?

    1. Aearly diastole
    2. Bend diastole
    3. Cearly systole
    4. Dend systole
41. 41In suprasternal what is the structure below the aortic arch?

    

    1. Aright pulmonary artery
    2. Binnominate
    3. Cleft coronary artery
42. 42During an echo, adjustment of the time gain controls compensate for:

    1. Aphase shift
    2. Bbeam refraction
    3. Cbeam divergence
    4. Dtissue attenuation
43. 43Devices that convert energy from one form to another are called:
    

    1. Aconverters
    2. Btransducers
    3. Cenergizers
    4. Dtransformers
44. 44Which coronary artery is MOST LIKELY to supply blood to the lateral wall of the left ventricle?

    1. Aleft anterior descending
    2. Bright coronary
    3. Ccircumflex
    4. Dleft main
45. 45The resistance against which the ventricles contract is known as:

    1. Apreload
    2. Bafterload
    3. Cinotropism
    4. Dchronotropism
46. 46What is the most common type of ASD?

    1. Aostium secundum
    2. Bsinus venosus
    3. Costium primum
47. 47What cardiac pathology is associated with bicuspid aortic valve?

    1. Aaortic stenosis
    2. Bcoarctation of the aorta
    3. Cmitral valve prolapse
    4. Daortic aneursyms
48. 48Which pathology is not associated with Marfan's?

    1. Acoarctation of the aorta
    2. Baortic dissections
    3. Cbicuspid aortic valve
    4. Dmitral valve prolapse
49. 49Where is the Chiari network located?

    1. Aright atrium
    2. Bleft atrium
    3. Cleft ventricle
    4. Dright ventricle
50. 50What frequency is used for transthoracic echo?

    1. A2-10 MHz
    2. B8-12 MHz
    3. C1-9 MHz
    4. D13-21 MHz
51. 51What frequency is used for TEE?

    1. A5-7 MHz
    2. B1-8 MHz
    3. C2-10 MHz
    4. D12-16 MHz
52. 52At what temperature is it unsafe to use a TEE probe?

    1. A25 degrees Celcius
    2. B35 degrees Celcius
    3. C45 degrees Celcius
    4. D55 degress Celcius
53. 531 MET is equivalent to:

    1. Aenergy expended at rest
    2. Benergy expended at peak exercise
    3. Cresting HR times resting systolic BP
    4. Dpeak exercise HR times peak exercise systolic BP
54. 54To test for myocardial viabilty with cardiac MRI, which contrast agent is used?

    1. AThallium
    2. BFerumoxytol
    3. CGadolinium
    4. DTechnetium
55. 55What is an acceptable cleaning agent for TEE probes?

    1. ACidex
    2. BBleach
    3. CHospital Grade Disinfectant
    4. DSoap & Water
56. 56An absolute contraindication for a stress echo is:

    1. Aaortic aneurysm
    2. Baortic regurgitation
    3. Caortic dissection
    4. Dbicuspid aortic valve
57. 57What is the period when a muscle cell is not excitable?

    1. Aabsolute refractory
    2. Baction potential
    3. Crepolarization
    4. Ddepolarization
58. 58What is the normal duration of the QRS complex?

    1. A.10 sec
    2. B.05 sec
    3. C.20 sec
    4. D.15 sec
59. 59Does a PDA increase left ventricle preload?

    1. AYes
    2. BNo
60. 60Normal cardiac output is:

    1. A2-5 L/min
    2. B4-6 L/min
    3. C8-10 L/min
    4. D3-5 L/min
61. 61Which a velocity of 0.5 m/sec, what is the gradient?

    1. A1 mmHg
    2. B3 mmHg
    3. C0.5 mmHg
    4. D4 mmHg
62. 62What does VTI & CSA equal?

    1. Astroke volume
    2. Bejection fraction
    3. Ccardiac output
    4. Dpressure gradient
63. 63According to the FDA and ASE guidelines, left ventricular opacification using contrast agents is contraindicated in:

    1. Aaneurysms
    2. Bapical thrombus
    3. Cvalve abnormalities
    4. Dright to left shunts
64. 64The most common use of agitated saline is to help rule out:

    1. Apatent ductus arteriosus (PDA)
    2. Bventricular septum defect (VSD)
    3. Cpatent foramen ovale (PFO)
    4. Danomalous pulmonary veins
65. 65Which of the following is most easily visualized using TEE versus TTE approach?

    1. Aapex
    2. Bpulmonary valve
    3. Cleft atrial appendage
    4. Dinfundibular region of the RV
66. 66What is the aortic valve doing during the Q - T interval?

    1. Athe valve is open
    2. Bthe valve is closed
67. 67When is the left ventricule pressure the lowest?

    1. Aearly diastole
    2. Bearly systole
    3. Cend diastole
    4. Dend systole
68. 68What is PCW (pulmonary capillary wedge) measuring?

    1. Aleft atrial pressure
    2. Bright atrial pressure
    3. Cleft ventricular pressure
    4. Dright ventricular pressure
69. 69What does Tissue Harmonic Imaging result in?

    1. Athicker valve leaflets
    2. Bhigh pressure gradients
    3. Cless aliasing
    4. Ddilated ventricles
70. 70A secondary finding in aortic stenosis:

    1. Aleft ventricle hypertrophy
    2. Bright ventricle hypertrophy
    3. Cleft atrial enlargement
    4. Ddilated left ventricle
71. 71Stenosis is an _______ which leads to hypertrophy.

    1. Aafterload
    2. Bpreload
72. 72An aortic dissection which originates after the take off of the left subclavian artery & extends distally into the abdomen is:

    1. ADebakey Type I
    2. BDebakey Type II
    3. CStanford Class A
    4. DStanford Class B
73. 73Which of the CMO's listed below is characterized by distinct LV wall motion abnormalities in the presence of clean coronary arteries?

    1. Aalcoholic
    2. Binfiltrative
    3. CTakotsubo
    4. DHypertrophic
74. 74Which of the following prosthetic heart valves listed below has a double tilting disc design?

    1. ABjork-Shiley
    2. BMedtronic-Hall
    3. CStarr-Edwards
    4. DSt. Jude
75. 75In aortic stenosis, is the pulse pressure wide or narrow?

    1. Awide
    2. Bnarrow
76. 76Normal aortic valve area:

    1. A3-4 cm^2
    2. B2-4 cm^2
    3. C4-5 cm^2
    4. D3-6 cm^2
77. 77What is considered severe aortic stenosis?

    1. Aless than 1 cm^2
    2. Bless than 1.5 cm^2
    3. Cless than 1.75 cm^2
    4. Dless than 2 cm^2
78. 78Using the continuity equation, when would the severity of aortic stenosis be underestimated?

    1. ALVOT measured too large
    2. BLVOT measured too small
    3. Caortic root measured too small
    4. Daortic root measured too large
79. 79What is a cardiofacial syndrome with pulmonic stenosis, hypertrophic cardiomyopathy and ASD's in 30% of cases?

    1. ANoonan's Syndrome
    2. BMarfan's Syndrome
    3. CTurner's Syndrome
    4. DTrisomy 21
80. 80Pulmonic stenosis DOES cause pulmonary hypertension.

    1. AVerdadeiro
    2. BFalso
81. 81If you can't get a pulmonic stenosis gradient from the parasternal window, where else can you go?

    1. Asubcostal short axis
    2. Bapical 4-chamber
    3. Capical 2-chamber
    4. Dsubcostal 4-chamber
82. 82In an uncoagulated patient with new onset a-fib, in which chamber is a thrombus MOST LIKELY to form?

    1. ALV
    2. BRV
    3. CLA
    4. DRA
83. 83Which type of mitral deformity occurs when there is only one papillary muscle into which both chordae insert or insertion of the mitral chord into a single papillary muscle?

    1. Apapillary muscle dysfunction
    2. Bparachut mitral valve
    3. Cmitral valve prolapse
84. 84What condition of the mitral valve has a hockey stick appearance?

    1. Amitral valve prolapse
    2. Brheumatic mitral stenosis
    3. Cparachute mitral valve
85. 85With a-fib, mitral stenosis velocity calculations are best performed over:

    1. A2-3 beats
    2. B4-8 beats
    3. C8 beats
    4. D5-10 beats
86. 86GIven a mitral valve pressure half time of 400 m/sec, what's the MVA?

    1. A.55 cm^2
    2. B1 cm^2
    3. C1.45 cm^2
    4. D.9 cm^2
87. 87Given mitral decerlation time of 400 m/sec, calculate the pressure half-time.

    1. A116
    2. B200
    3. C105
    4. D119
88. 88In aortic stenosis, which variable in the continuity equation has the greatest influence on the calculated valve area?

    1. ALV afterload
    2. BLVOT diameter
    3. Cpulsed wave Doppler
    4. DCW Doppler
89. 89If you have a uniformly dilated aortic root, which term best describes this?
    

    1. AFusiform
    2. BSaccular
90. 90What kind of murmur would you hear in a patient with a rupture of a sinus of Valsalva aneurysm?

    1. Acontinuous
    2. Bejection snap
    3. Cholosystolic
    4. DAustin-Flint
91. 91What is the most common chamber for a sinus of Valsalva to rupture into?

    1. ARA
    2. BLA
    3. CLV
    4. DRV
92. 92What kind of pathology has a diastolic "blow" murmur?

    1. AAI
    2. BAS
    3. CMR
    4. DMVP
93. 93What kind of murmur is heard for aortic stenosis?

    1. Adiastolic "blow"
    2. Bsnap
    3. Cejection click
    4. DAustin-Flint
94. 94What can happen with elevated LVEDP?

    1. Amitral valve preclosure
    2. Baortic valve preclosure
95. 95What is the most common valvular abnormality associated with Carcinoid Syndrome?

    1. ATR
    2. BMVP
    3. CAI
    4. DAS
96. 96What is a congenital connective tissue disease causing aortic dilatation and MVP due to decrease in fibrin?

    1. AMarfan's
    2. BNoonan's
    3. CTurner
    4. DCarcinoid
97. 97Patients with a history of IV drug use, may present with:

    1. Aendocarditis
    2. Bpericardial effusion
    3. Cpericarditis
    4. Dmyocarditis
98. 98Normal pressure half time for a mitral prosthetic valve

    1. A<170 m/sec
    2. B<125 m/sec
    3. C<90 m/sec
    4. D<75 m/sec
99. 99Which CMO is autosomal dominant?

    1. ARestrictive
    2. BHypertrophic
    3. CAlcoholic
    4. DInfiltrative
100. 100What is posterior and apical thinning disease that is most commnonly seen in South America and caused by a bug bite?

     1. ANoonan's
     2. BMarfan's
     3. CChagas'
     4. DRheumatic Heart Disease
101. 101What is an excess amount of iron in the myocardium?

     1. Ahemochromatosis
     2. Bhemophilia
     3. Cmyeloma
     4. Danemia
102. 102A typical EF in CMO patients might be?

     1. A49%
     2. B86%
     3. C20%
     4. D75%
103. 103In elderly patients (>60), the A-wave is normally equal to or higher than the E wave.

     1. AVerdadeiro
     2. BFalso
104. 104A pericardial effusion can often be seen in patients with ____________.

     1. ACOPD
     2. Brenal failure
     3. Crectal cancer
     4. Dliver failure
105. 105What would you grade a pericardial effusion that is posterior only and less than 1 cm?

     1. Asmall
     2. Bmedium
     3. Clarge
106. 106What would you grade a pericardial effusion that is posterior and anterior and less than 1 cm?

     1. Asmall
     2. Bmedium
     3. Clarge
107. 107What would you grade a pericardial effusion that surrounds the heart and is greater than 1 cm?

     1. Asmall
     2. Bmedium
     3. Clarge
108. 108What is Beck's Triad associated with?

     1. Aacute pericarditis
     2. Bacute tamponade
     3. Caortic dissection
     4. Dbacterial endocarditis
109. 109What is Beck's Triad?

     1. Aelevated venous pressure, hypertension and quiet heart
     2. Belevated venous pressure, hypotension, and loud ejection click
     3. Celevate venous pressure, hypotension and quiet heart
     4. Ddecreased venous pressure, hypotension and quiet heart
110. 110What condition uses pulsus paradoxus for diagnosis?

     1. Aendocarditis
     2. Bpericardial effusion
     3. Caorta dissection
     4. Dtamponade
111. 111What cardiac condition would prevent diastolic right ventricular collapse?

     1. Apulmonary hypertension
     2. Btamponade
     3. Chypertrophic cardiomyopathy
     4. Dpericardial effusion
112. 112What pericardial abnormality also causes impaired ventricular filling?

     1. Aconstrictive pericarditis
     2. Bacute tamponade
     3. Cinfective endocarditis
     4. Drestrictive cardiomyopathy
113. 113A huge, dilated pulmonary artery, TR and RV enlargement best describes?

     1. Apulmonary hypertension
     2. Baortic stenosis
     3. Ctricuspid stenosis
     4. Dendocarditis
114. 114GIve TR with 60 mmHg gradient, grade the severity of pulmonary hypertension.

     1. Amild
     2. Bmoderate
     3. Csevere
115. 115Most common compication of a myocardial infarction.

     1. Aaneurysm formation
     2. Bwall motion abnormality
     3. Cpericardial effusion
     4. Dmurmur
116. 116Does the wall of a pseudoaneurysm contain endocardium?

     1. AYes
     2. BNo
117. 117What information do you need pre-op in a patient with LV aneurysm?

     1. Aaortic valve area
     2. Bmitral valve area
     3. Cmovement of other walls
     4. Dcheck for pericardial effusion
118. 118How many beats to see contrast on the left side in a patient with an ASD?

     1. A1-2 beats
     2. B3-4 beats
     3. C5-7 beats
     4. D8-10 beats
119. 119What can increase in afterload?

     1. Aincreased blood pressure, aortic stenosis
     2. Bdecreased blood pressure, increased heart rate
     3. Cincreased blood pressure, decreased cardiac output
     4. Dincreased cardiac output, increased heart rate
120. 120What chamber of the heart is MOST LIKELY to be affected by cardiac contusion?

     1. ARV
     2. BLV
     3. CRA
     4. DLA
121. 121What's the most anterior valve?

     1. Apulmonic
     2. Baorta
     3. Ctricuspid
     4. Dmitral
122. 122What might be the 1st indication of metastic cardiac disease?

     1. Aholosystolic murmur
     2. Bpericardial effusion
     3. CTR
     4. Dmitral valve prolapse
123. 123The most common benign tumor on the aortic valve is

     1. Amyxoma
     2. Brhabdoymyxoma
     3. Cpapillary fibroelastoma
     4. Dlipoma
124. 124What is the primary effect of long-standing aortic regurgitation?

     1. Adecreased ejection fraction
     2. Bdecreased cardiac output
     3. Cdecreased stroke volume
     4. Ddecreased heart rate
125. 125If a sonographer adjusts the depth of view of an ultrasound scan from 4 cm to 8 cm, the duty factor will ________.

     1. Adecrease
     2. Bincrease
126. 126What does an EKG look like on someone with atrial flutter?

     1. AP waves appear chaotic or absent, QRS looks normal
     2. BP waves are normal, QRS is chaotic
127. 127All of the following cause MR except:

     1. Arheumatic heart disease
     2. Bartherosclerosis
     3. Ccoronary artery disease
     4. DMarfan's
     5. EMVP
     6. Fendocarditis
128. 1283 "bigness" parameters

     1. Aamplitude, frequency, power
     2. Bamplitude, density, frequency
     3. Camplitude, intensity, power
     4. Damplitude, intensity, frequency
129. 129Which view shows the coronary sinus?

     1. AApical 4-chamber
     2. BPLAX
     3. CPSAX
     4. DApical 2-chamber
130. 130What CMO has stiff ventricles, decreased compliancel and resists normal filling?

     1. AInfiltrative
     2. BHypertrophic
     3. CAlcoholic
     4. DRestrictive
131. 131Normal serum potassium levels in an adult male"

     1. A2.5 - 6.0 meg/L
     2. B3.8 - 4.8 meg/L
     3. C5.5 - 7.8 meg/L
     4. D1.5 - 4.5 meg/L
132. 132Turbulence is characterized by disordered direction of flow in combination with the same blood cell velocities.

     1. AVerdadeiro
     2. BFalso
133. 133What is the valve of the IVC?

     1. Aright coronary artery
        
     2. BEustachian valve
     3. Cpulmonic valve
     4. Dleft anterior descending
134. 134What originates at the anterior intraventricular sulcus?

     1. Acircumflex
     2. Bleft anterior descending
     3. Cright
     4. Dleft main
135. 135What is the minimum valve subtracted from the maximum value?

     1. Amean
     2. Baverage
     3. Cmedian
     4. Drange
136. 136What is holding a person responsible for their own actions?

     1. Aaccountability
     2. Bliability
     3. Cresponsibility
137. 137Myocardial infarctions are not associated with what vitamin deficiency?

     1. AK
     2. BC
     3. CB
     4. DA
138. 138During which part of the cardiac cycle does coronary perfusion occur?

     1. Aventricular relaxation
     2. Bventricular diastole
     3. Cventricular systole
     4. Datrial relaxation
139. 139Partial anomalous pulmonary venous return is seen with which type of ASD?

     1. Asinus venous
     2. Bostium secundum
     3. Costium primum
140. 140What is the standard echo view for contrast studies of an ASD?

     1. AApical 4-chamber
     2. BApical 2-chamber
     3. CPLAX
     4. DPSAX
141. 141What is the most common type of VSD?

     1. Aperimembranous
     2. Bmuscular
     3. Catrioventricular canal
     4. Dconal septal
142. 142__________________ is chest pain that occurs when a person is lying down and is relieved by standing or sitting up.

     1. Aunstable angina
     2. Bclassic angina
     3. Cstable angina
     4. Dangina decubitis
143. 143Calculate the RVSP in a patient with a 5 m/sec VSD jet and blood pressure of 130/80.

     1. A25 mmHg
     2. B30 mmHG
     3. C65 mmHg
     4. D70 mmHg
144. 144If a large PDA is not corrected, what might develop?

     1. ALVH
     2. BNoonan's
     3. CEisenmenger's Syndrome
     4. Dendocarditis
145. 145What is a CMO that has enlarged, weakened ventricle and struggles to pump?

     1. ARestrictive
     2. BDilated
     3. CHypertrophic
     4. DAlcoholic
146. 146Why follow chronic AI patients?

     1. Ato check for stenosis
     2. Bto check EF
     3. Cto check LV size
     4. Dto monitor cardiac output
147. 147What are the thin filiform strands that form on the edges of valve leaflets?

     1. Achordae tendinae
     2. BLamb's Escrescences
     3. Cmyosin
     4. Dsarcomeres
148. 148Give tricuspid regurgitation and right atrial pressure. What can you calculate?

     1. Acardiac output
     2. Bstroke volume
     3. Cejection faction
     4. DRVSP
149. 149What is the best way to determine the severity of MR?

     1. Apulmonary venous flow
     2. BPISA
     3. CCW Doppler
150. 150If your patient has a dilated LV and then dilated septum, what might be going on with them?

     1. AMR
     2. BTR
     3. CAI
     4. DAS
151. 151What cardiac pathology affects the valves?

     1. Acarcinoid
     2. Bendocarditis
     3. Cmyocarditis
     4. Dpericarditis
152. 152What is the ability to initiate an electric impulse?

     1. Aautomaticity
     2. Bspecificity
     3. Cautonomy
153. 153Peripheral contrast is useful in AI.

     1. AVerdadeiro
     2. BFalso
154. 154Alterations in heart rate evoked by changes in blood pressure are dependent on baroreceptors located in the ________ and __________.

     1. Aaortic arch, carotid sinuses
     2. Baortic arch, sinus of Valsalva
     3. Ccarotid sinus, coronary sinus
     4. Dcoronary sinus, sinus of Valsalva
155. 155The height of a column of fluid is 25 inches. What is it in centimeters?

     1. A58 cm
     2. B35 cm
     3. C63.5 cm
     4. D70 cm
156. 156A systolic rumble might be?

     1. ATR
     2. BMR
     3. CAI
     4. DPI
157. 157What would you do to check for elevated right atrium pressure?

     1. A"sniff" test
     2. Bcough test
     3. CValsalva maneuver
     4. DMueller maneuver
158. 158Mitral valve inflow velocity should not be affected by gender.

     1. AVerdadeiro
     2. BFalso
159. 159What valve is most likely to regurgitate normally?

     1. Atricuspid
     2. Bmitral
     3. Caortic
160. 160What electrolyte is not a cation?

     1. Achlorine
     2. Bcarbon
     3. Cpotassium
     4. Dsodium
161. 161What is the ultimate result of heart failure?

     1. Acardiogenic shock
     2. Bsudden cardiac death
     3. Ccoronary artery disease
     4. Dpulmonary edema
162. 162The ductus venosus bypasses the _______ in fetal circulation.

     1. Akidneys
     2. Bliver
     3. Caorta
     4. Dpulmonic valve
163. 163The 2 characteristics of a medium that affect the speed of sound are:

     1. Adensity and temperature
     2. Bstiffness and density
     3. Cstiffness and depth
     4. Dstiffness and temperature
164. 164How many pounds in 1 kilogram?

     1. A2.10 lbs
     2. B2.8 lbs
     3. C2.21 lbs
     4. D1.98 lbs
165. 165All of the following are signs of acute aortic insufficiency except:

     1. Aendocarditis
     2. Bpericardial effusion
     3. Cruptured chordae
     4. Dpapillary muscle dysfunction
     5. Eprosthetic dysfunction
166. 166What percent of "normal" people will have a PFO?

     1. A20-30%
     2. B10-15%
     3. C50-60%
     4. D75-80%
167. 167What kind of murmur will a patient with a VSD have?

     1. Acrescendo-decrescendo
     2. Bharsh holosytolic
     3. Cholosytolic "blow"
     4. D"snap"
168. 168What clinical finding is associated with a friction rub?

     1. Atamponade
     2. Bpericarditis
     3. Cpericardial effusion
     4. Dmyocarditis
169. 169Where are most fibroelastoma's found?

     1. Aaortic and mitral valves
     2. Btricuspid valves
     3. Cmitral and pulmonic
     4. Daortic only
170. 170How many years are echoes kept?

     1. A3
     2. B7
     3. C5
     4. D10
171. 171What anomaly occurs when the truncus doesn't divide?

     1. AEbstein's anomaly
     2. BTetralogy of Fallot
     3. CTruncus Arterious
     4. DAnomalous Pulmonay Vein
172. 172What anomaly might occur during the looping phase?

     1. AL-transposition
     2. Bcoarctation of the aorta
     3. CPFO
     4. DPDA
173. 173What does the sinus venosus turn into?

     1. Aarterioles
     2. Bsinus of Valsalva
     3. Ccoronary sinus
     4. Datrial connections
174. 174In normal development, which is the last to close?

     1. Apatent foramen ovale
     2. Bductus arterious
     3. Cpulmonary veins
     4. Daortic arch
175. 175What is the normal LVEDP?

     1. A5-7 mmHg
     2. B8-13 mmHg
     3. C3-5 mmHg
     4. D9-15 mmHg
176. 176Principle point at which vascular resistance is developed:

     1. Aarterioles
     2. Bvenoules
177. 177Cardiac Index is calculated by dividing cardiac output in L/min by _____.

     1. Astroke volume
     2. BHR
     3. CBSA
     4. DBP
178. 178What is the QRS complex?

     1. Aarrival of an electrical impulse at the SA Node
     2. Barrival of an electrical impulse at the AV Node
     3. Carrival of an electrical impulse at the Bundle of His
     4. Darrival of an electrical impulse at the Purkinje Fibers
179. 179All of the following are causes of aortic stenosis except:

     1. Arheumatic heart disease
     2. BLVH
     3. CCHD
     4. Dage degeneration
180. 180Aneurysms cause turbulent flow which increase the risk of ________.

     1. Adissection
     2. Bthrombus
     3. Cmyocardial infarction
     4. Dstroke
181. 181All are cause of aortic insufficency except:

     1. Arheumatic heart disease
     2. Bartherosclerosis
     3. Caortic stenosis
     4. Dendocarditis
     5. Eidiopathic
182. 182All of the following are signs of aortic stenosis except:

     1. Asyncope
     2. Bhypotension
     3. Chypertension
     4. Dmurmur
     5. Eangina
     6. Fpulmonary edema
183. 183________________________ causes MR, increasing the volume of blood in the LA, aggravating the LV and decreasing cardiac output.

     1. AMitral stenosis
     2. BChordae rupture
     3. CSinsus of Valsalva aneurysm
     4. DPapillary muscle dysfunction
184. 184Normal adult male hematocrit:

     1. A38-54%
     2. B25-34%
     3. C65-80%
     4. D48%-62%
185. 185The zero reference for a strain gauge transducer is at the level of the __________.

     1. ALV
     2. BLA
     3. CRV
     4. DRA
186. 186All of the following cause blood pressure to increase except:

     1. Aincreased venous pressure
     2. Bincreased blood viscocity
     3. Cincreased strength of the heart rate
     4. Dincreased peripheral vascular resistance
187. 187Spontaneous chrodae rupture more often occurs on which leaflet?

     1. Amedial
     2. Bposterior
     3. Canterior
     4. Dlateral
188. 188The heart tube normally loops ______ and ___________.

     1. Aanterior, to the right
     2. Bposterior, to the right
     3. Canterior, to the left
     4. Dposterior, to the left
189. 189What ion triggers the sliding action of the actin and myosin filaments that cause cardiac muscle contractions?

     1. Asodium
     2. Bpotassium
     3. Ciron
     4. Dcarbon
190. 190Myocardial perfusion occurs during _____________.

     1. Aventricular systole
     2. Bventricular diastole
     3. Catrial systole
     4. Datrial diastole
191. 191Which cardiac tumor MOST OFTEN attaches to a cardiac valve?

     1. Alipoma
     2. Bmyxoma
     3. Cfibroelastoma
     4. Drhabdomyoma

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Quiz sobre CCI Set 1, criado por Wendy Cox em 19-08-2015.

Autor

Wendy Cox

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English

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