AFM-2

1. 1The aircraft is equipped with one standalone compass located in the front cockpit.

   1. ATrue
   2. BFalse
2. 2The underwater locator beacon has a water-operated battery which is activated by fresh or salt water

   1. ATrue
   2. BFalse
3. 3If the HDG rotary switch is pushed momentarily, the selected heading is set to the desired heading

   1. ATrue
   2. BFalse
4. 4Both the SFD and SFDR are fitted with the following keys: NAV, ALN and BARO.

   1. ATrue
   2. BFalse
5. 5The BARO rotary switch on the SFD is used to set the required barometric datum for both the SFD and PFD altimeter readouts.
   

   1. ATrue
   2. BFalse
6. 6Pressing the NAV key on the SFD will cycle the SFD display through which of the following modes?

   1. AVOR/ILS/MAP
   2. BMC (Mission Computer) / TAC (Tactical) / STBY
   3. CVOR 1 or ILS 1 (depending on the selected NAV 1 frequency) / BC (Back Course) / OFF
   4. DNAV (Navigation) / STBY/OFF
7. 7During engine start, the starter contactor sends an input to the EMD that is used to modify the ITT warning and caution marker positions and NP display criteria

   1. ATrue
   2. BFalse
8. 8The 2 MFDs in the front cockpit are the master units, whereas the 2 in the rear cockpit are repeaters.

   1. ATrue
   2. BFalse
9. 9The HUD symbol generator (HSG) is powered by the ...?
   ... BATT Bus
   ... GEN1 Bus
   MISSION Bus
   GEN2 Bus

   1. ABATT BUS
   2. BGEN 1 BUS
   3. CMISSION BUS
   4. DGEN 2 BUS
10. 10When entering a frequency, a code, or fuel values into the UFCP scratchpad, pressing the ENT key...?

    1. Afixes the entry into the standby area
    2. Bassigns the entry to one of the active areas
    3. Csends the entry directly to the MFDS
    4. Ddiscards all entries

11. 11The RESET ODS key, on the FUEL menu, is used to...?

    1. A... restore the DETOTE value to the current gauged usable fuel value
    2. B... restore all fuel parameters to the values selected at the completion of the previous sortie
    3. C... calculate the fuel remaining at the active steerpoint
    4. D... check the accuracy of the input fuel data
12. 12A failure of the ATC transponder is shown in the scratchpad by which of the following legends?
    X
    FAILED
    NOT AVAILABLE
    No legend at all

    1. AX
    2. BFAILED
    3. CNOT AVAILABLE
    4. DNO LEGEND
13. 13If the HDG rotary switch is pushed momentarily, the selected heading is set to the desired heading.
    True
    False

    1. Atrue
    2. Bfalse
14. 14
    Which HSI mode is selected?
    

    

    1. ANAV mode
    2. BCDI mode
    3. CMap mode
    4. DBasic Compass mode
15. 15The underwater locator beacon has a water-operated battery which is activated by fresh or salt water.
    

    1. ATRUE
    2. BFALSE
16. 16The BARO rotary switch on the SFD is used to set the required barometric datum for both the SFD and PFD altimeter readouts..

    1. ATRUE
    2. BFALSE
17. 17The SFD receives its navigation information from the ...?
    

    1. A... HUD and HUDR
    2. BFlight Management System (FMS)
    3. CVOR/ILS 1 receiver and the TACAN/DME transceiver
    4. D... Radar altimeter and RIOC 2
18. 18Marque la incorrecta

    1. AOWC Provvides directional awareness to man-made obstructions
    2. BTRN generates a 3D relative position to an on-board database with position uncertantity of less than 200 ft horizontally and 50 ft vertically
    3. CThe TRN enter in Traking mode within 10 seconds of continuos valid data from INS and GPS(if usable)
    4. DNo hay incorrectas
19. 19Marque la incorrceta

    1. ATwo digital flight map types are required for the TAWS to generate the relevant alerts:
       • TFM – generated from the digital terrain elevation data (DTED)
       • OFM – generated from the digital vertical obstruction file (DVOF)
    2. BWhen a map is loaded and is currently in use by TAWS, the associated map ID is displayed in green
    3. CWhen a map is available but the applicable terrain is currently not overflown, the associated map ID
       is displayed in amber
    4. DWhen no map has been used a red NONE indication will be displayed
20. 20The PGCAS recovery manoeuvre prediction includes the following assumptions:
    Marque la incorrecta

    1. AAircrew response time: The time from issuance of a pull-up cue to the actual aircrew recovery initiation
       is set at 3 second
    2. BRoll recovery phase: The time necessary to roll the aircraft to near wings level at a rate of 90° per second
    3. CG-onset phase: The time required to reach the target recovery g at a g-onset rate of 4 g per second
    4. DClimb out phase: The last part of the recovery manoeuvre until terrain clearance is achieved. TAWS
       assumes a TCH as set by the aircrew on the TAWS SETUP page (default 150 ft) and a maximum climb
       angle of 45°.
21. 21CFIT protection is not available when:
    Marque la coorecta

    1. AFlying below 100 KIAS
    2. BPitch or roll angles exceed ± 15°
    3. C• Flying for 5 minutes outside the valid radar altimeter envelope with no GPS available
    4. DPerforming high dynamic flight (e.g. aerobatic training)
22. 22Marque la correcta

    1. ATAWS is in the INACTIVE state when:
       • Selected to on, and
       • Selected to on but the aircraft is in the landing or take-off configuration, or
       • TAWS detected a failure and the AWS FAIL caution is displayed
    2. BTAWS is in the ACQUISITION state when:
       • Selected to off, or
       • The aircraft position is not accurately known and the TRN is still building up the navigation solution
    3. CTAWS is in the TRACKING state when:
       • Selected to on, and
       • Both operational states are available PGCAS and OWC
    4. DIf a condition occurs that degrades the aircraft
       position accuracy, TAWS will automatically switch back to the ACQUISITION state.
23. 23TAWS – OPERATIONAL MODES marque la opción correcta

    1. AIf only the PGCAS mode is selected, OWC cues will NEVER be presented to the aircrew.
    2. BIf only the OWC mode is selected, PGCAS cues will NEVER be presented to the aircrew.
    3. CLAS DOS SON CIERTAS
    4. DLAS DOS SON FALSAS
24. 24Marque la correcta

    1. AIn an area dense with obstructions. If this condition occurs, aircrew
       are advised to select the OWC mode only on the MFD TAWS SETUP
       page.
    2. BTAWS can be enabled (cyan TAWS) and disabled (blank) by the aircrew using the TAWS status on–off switch
       located on the decouple panel in either cockpit.
    3. CLas dos son ciertas
    4. DLas dos son falsas
25. 25Marca la correcta

    1. AThe ‘bucket’
       appears 3° below the CDM and moves up towards the CDM as the time to pull-up (TTPU) counts down from
       10 to 0 seconds.
    2. BThe arrow symbol is always perpendicular to
       the ground, points in the direction of pull required for recovery
    3. CHUD – TAWS OWC Cues show the direction to fly in order to avoid the obstacle
    4. D‘ROLL RIGHT, ROLL RIGHT, PULL-UP, PULL-UP’ when
       When a roll to the right of more than 30° followed by an immediate pull-up is the correct initial response
26. 26Marque la correcta

    1. AMTAS does not detect aircraft without
       MODE C operating transponders.
    2. BThe MTAS
       is depowered when the MTAS cyan is pressed
    3. CThe datalink is able to display contacts up to 80 NM
       away and from 0 to 35,000 ft
    4. DThe TAS can track up to 30 contacts and the datalink can track up to 50 contacts. The MTAS will combine the
       contacts that are duplicated and unique into a single list, with a maximum of 30 contacts,
27. 27tau en menor o igual siempre si MARQUE LA INCORRECTA

    1. AEs non altitude reporting contact
    2. Bel tren está fuera
    3. CLas dos son corrrectas
    4. DLas dos son incorrectas
28. 28Marque la correcta

    1. ADuring landing, the TA will be inhibited as soon as the landing gear is extended and the radar altimeter height is
       less than 400
    2. BWith TAs inhibited, contacts will not be displayed .
    3. CAfter take-off, TAs will remain inhibited until the radar altimeter height is more
       than 200 ft.
    4. DTodas son incorrectas
29. 29que NO indica ese contacto

    

    1. AQue asciende a mas de 500ft/min
    2. Bsu dirección
    3. CQue es un TA
    4. DIndica todo eso
30. 30
    alse
    True or False?
    During engine start, the starter contactor sends an input to the EMD that is used to modify the ITT warning and caution marker positions and NP display criteria.
    
    

    1. ATrue
    2. BFalse
31. 31
    Multiple Choice
    A failure of the ATC transponder is shown in the scratchpad by which of the following legend
    X
    FAILED
    NOT AVAILABLE
    No legend at all

    1. AX
    2. BFAILED
    3. CNOT AVAILABLE
    4. DNo legend
32. 32For how many hours does the ELT send signals on the distress frequencies 121.5 MHz and 243.0 MHz?

    1. A24
    2. B400
    3. C5
    4. D100
33. 33If the AMU channel 1 fails, the rear cockpit AMU channel selector must be set to AMU BACKUP.

    1. AT
    2. BF
34. 34The ELT sends signals on 121.5 MHz, 243.0 MHz, and 406.025 MHZ.

    1. At
    2. Bf
35. 35How many different missions can be loaded onto the PMM (Pilot Memory Module)?
    

    1. A20
    2. B15
    3. C5
    4. D10
36. 36The weapons load for a mission is defined in the weapon configuration window of the mission planning system. The weapons load can be changed in flight on the ...?
    MFD AA SET (Air-to-Air Radar Setup) or AG SET (Air-to-Ground Radar Setup) pages
    MFD INST (Instructor) page
    A mission's weapons load cannot be changed in
    flight
    MFD OPS (Operations) page
    

    1. AMFD AA SET (Air-to-Air Radar Setup) or AG SET (Air-to-Ground Radar Setup) pages
    2. BMFD INST (Instructor) page
    3. CA mission's weapons load cannot be changed in
       flight
    4. DMFD OPS (Operations) page
37. 37TCH DEFAULT VALUE

    1. A200 M
    2. B200 FT
    3. C150 M
    4. D150 FT
38. 38The OWC mode prOvides about obstructions along the aircraft flight path

    1. AT
    2. BF
39. 39The TAWS HUD cues cannot be decluttered

    1. ATRUE
    2. BFALSE
40. 40After take-off the MTAS willl remain inhibited untild the radar alt heigh is > --- ft

    1. A200
    2. B150
    3. C250
    4. D400
41. 41Qué hace que no salte el aviso de tráfico debido al propio avión?

    1. ATAS UNIT
    2. BTAS ATENNA
    3. CTCAD COUPLER
    4. DRIOC 4
42. 42Marque la correcta

    

    1. ARED- ILS
    2. BBLUE - VOR
    3. CYELLOW - ADSB
    4. DBLUE - V/UHF
43. 43Marque el radio altímetro

    

    1. AROJO
    2. BAZUL
    3. CAMARILLO
    4. DNO APARECE SEÑALADO
44. 44Marque la incorrecta

    

    1. AVERDE- TACAN
    2. BAMARILLO-DME
    3. CAZUL- VOR/ILS
    4. DNO HAY INCORRECTAS
45. 45QUE RIOC CONTROLA EL EMD

    1. A1
    2. B2
    3. C3
    4. D4
46. 46QUE RIOC CONTROLA EL OBOGS

    1. A1
    2. B2
    3. C3
    4. D4
47. 47SI falla el RIOC 4 que puedes esperar

    1. Aque no funcione el oxygeno
    2. Bque no funcione los voice callouts del TAWS
    3. Cque de error el PFD
    4. Dque falle el control de la cabina trasera
48. 48Los controles de la cabina delantera se controla con RIOC

    1. A1
    2. B2
    3. C3
    4. D4
49. 49Marque la opción correcta

    1. AThe MC normally initiates the warning gong or caution chime and passes the signal to the AMU
    2. BIf the MC fails, the DWP will initiate the warning gong and caution chime
    3. CThe other tones are triggered by the RIOCs.
    4. DTodas son correctas
50. 50Que se puede ver siempre en el EMD

    1. AEl voltaje
    2. BOil temp
    3. CNG
    4. DNP
51. 51Que no es una función del MC

    1. AElectronic checklist
    2. BSystem monitoring
    3. COperational training
    4. DFuel management
52. 52OAT sensor is on the

    1. Aleft wing
    2. Bright wing
    3. Cavionic bay
    4. DBoth wings
53. 53The GPS antenna located in the top fuselage uses

    1. ANAVSTAR
    2. BSTARLINK
    3. CGALILEO
    4. DNINGUNA DE LAS ANTERIORES
54. 54Cuanto tarda el GPS en poner el modo navegación

    1. Aif a valid initialisation data is available, the GLSSU takes approximately 75 seconds
       to achieve the navigation mode
    2. Bf a valid initialisation signal is not available, the GLSSU takes up to 10 minutes
       to locate all the possible satellites in order to achieve the best position fix.
    3. CTodas son correctas
    4. DNinguna es correcta
55. 55Cuales son UFCP rotatory controls INCORRECTA

    1. ACOMM 2 radio volume
    2. BHUD BRIGHTNESS
    3. CINTERCOM VOLUME
    4. DMODE SELECTOR
56. 56EL MFD

    1. A6 X 8 INCH 7 X 5 controls
    2. B5 X 7 INCH 6 X 5 controls
    3. C6 X 10 INCH 5 X 8controls
    4. D4 X 8 INCH 6 X 4 controls
57. 57El UFCP

    1. Ascrachpad 32, keypad 12 ODS 6
    2. Bscrachpad 28, keypad 10 ODS 4
    3. Cscrachpad 24, keypad 6 ODS 4
    4. Dscrachpad 32, keypad 6 ODS 4
58. 58Principle source of data for sfd
    

    1. AADU
    2. BADC
    3. CIRS
    4. DNINGUNA DE LAS ANTERIORES
59. 59The CDM cages at speeds below ---- kt and uncages at speeds at or above--- kt on ground.

    1. A40
    2. B50
    3. C60
    4. D70
60. 60Que harías si tienes fallo en los canales 1 y 2

    1. AACSS AMU BACKUP en los dos
    2. BACSS AMU BACK UP en front rear en NORM
    3. CACSS AMU NORM en front rear en BACK UP
    4. DACSS AMU ORRIDE en front rear en NORM
61. 61Marque la correcta

    1. AIf the front PFD fails, the HUD continues to use
       the PFD barometric setting at the time of PFD failure and cannot be
       changed.
    2. BThe results of a front cockpit UFCP malfunction are:
       the volume of the
       radios and intercom cannot be adjusted and remains as last set.
    3. CThe results of a front cockpit UFCP malfunction are:
       The intercom continues to operate
    4. DTodas correctas
62. 62Hasta que altura está operativo el TAWS en TO

    1. A150
    2. B200
    3. C400
    4. D5500
63. 63Hasta que altura se puede seleccionar el TCH

    1. A150
    2. B5500
    3. C5000
    4. D200

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VACAS PROPIAS. NO SON PREGUNTAS DE EXAMEN

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