Quiz
Pre-Test Microbiology - Bacteriology
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Perguntas do quiz (77)
1A patient with a peptic ulcer was admitted to the hospital and a gastric biopsy was performed. The tissue was cultured on a chocolate agar, incubated in a micraerophilic environment at 37 F for 5 to 7 days. At 5 days of incubation, colonies appeared on the plate and were curved, Gram-negative rods, oxidase-positive. The most likely identity of this organism is
- ACampylobacter jejuni
- BVibrio parahaemolyticus
- CHaemophilus influezae
- DHelicobacter pylori
- ECampylobacter fetus
2An experimental compound is discovered that prevents the activation of adenyl cyclase and the resulting increase in cyclic AMP. The toxic effects of which of the following
- AVibrio cholerae
- BCorynebacterium diphtheriae
- CPseudomonas
- DListeria monocytogenes
- EBrucella
3An inhibitor was designed to block a biologic function in H. influenzae. If the goal of the experiment was to reduce the virulence of H. influenzae, the most likely target would be
- AExotoxin liberator
- BEndotoxin assembly
- CFlagella synthesis
- DCapsule formation
- EIgA protease synthesis
4A 21-year-old college student complained of malaise, low-grade fever, and a harsh cough, but not of muscle aches and pains. An x-ray revealed a diffuse interstitial pneumonia in the left lobes of the lung. The WBC count was normal. The student has been ill for a week.
Based on the information given, the most likely diagnosis is- AMycoplasma pneumonia
- BPneumococcal pneumonia
- CStaphylococcal pneumonia
- DInfluenza
- ELegionellosis
5There are millions of cases of leprosy (Hansen’s disease) worldwide, but predominately in Asia and Africa. The clinical spectrum of Hansen’s disease is best characterized by
- AImmunologic anergy
- BChronic pneumonitis
- CPeripheral neuritis
- DBacilli in lesions that digest tissues
- EErythematous lesions resembling concentric circles
6At a church supper in Nova Scotia, the following meal was served: baked beans, ham, coleslaw, eclairs, and coffee. Of the 30 people who attended, 4 senior citizens became ill in 3 days; 1 eventually died. Two weeks after attending the church supper, a 19-year-old girl gave birth to a baby who rapidly became ill with meningitis and died in 5 days. Epidemiologic investigation revealed the following percentages of people who consumed the various food items: baked beans, 30%; ham, 80%; coleslaw, 60%; eclairs, 100%; and coffee, 90%. Which of the following statements is true?
- AThis is not a case of food poisoning because only 4 people became ill
- BA relationship between the death of the baby and the food consumed at the
church supper can be ruled out - CBased on the epidemiologic investigation, the eclairs can be isolated as the
source of the disease - DBased on the epidemiologic investigation, the baked beans can be ruled out as
the source of the disease - EAdditional epidemiologic data should include the percentage of those who ate
a particular food item who became ill
7Microbiologic analysis revealed no growth in the baked beans, ham,
or coffee; many Gram-positive beta-hemolytic, short, rod-shaped bacteria
in the coleslaw; and rare Gram-positive cocci in the eclairs. The most likely
cause of this outbreak is- AStaphylococcus aureus
- BListeria
- CClostridium perfringens
- DClostridium botulinum
- ENonmicrobiologic
8A 21-year-old college student complained of malaise, low-grade fever, and a harsh cough, but not of muscle aches and pains. An x-ray revealed a diffuse interstitial pneumonia in the left lobes of the lung. The WBC count was normal. The student has been ill for a week.
Based on the information given, which of the following laboratory tests would most rapidly assist you in making the diagnosis?- ACold agglutinins
- BViral culture
- CComplement fixation (CF) test
- DGram stain of sputum
- ECulture of sputum
9A 21-year-old college student complained of malaise, low-grade fever, and a harsh cough, but not of muscle aches and pains. An x-ray revealed a diffuse interstitial pneumonia in the left lobes of the lung. The WBC count was normal. The student has been ill for a week.
The following laboratory data were available within 2 days: cold agglutinins—negative; complement fixation (M. pneumoniae)—1:64; viral culture—pending, but negative to date; bacterial culture of sputum on blood agar and MacConkey’s agar—normal oral flora. In order to confirm the diagnosis, which of the following procedures could be ordered to achieve a specific and sensitive diagnosis?- ACulture of the sputum on charcoal yeast extract
- BA repeat cold agglutinin test
- CA DNA probe to the 16S ribosomal RNA of an organism lacking a cell wall
- DA repeat CF test in 5 days
- EAnother viral culture in 1 week
10Pathogenic mechanisms involved in tuberculosis can be primarily attributed to which of the following?
- AToxin production by the mycobacteria
- BSpecific cell adhesion sites
- CCell-mediated hypersensitivity
- DHumoral immunity
- EClogging of alveoli by large numbers of acid-fast mycobacteria
11The class of antibiotics known as the quinolones are bactericidal. Their mode of action on growing bacteria is thought to be
- AInhibition of DNA gyrase
- BInactivation of penicillin-binding protein II
- CInhibition of β-lactamase
- DPrevention of the cross-linking of glycine
- EInhibition of reverse transcriptase
12Vancomycin-indeterminate S. aureus (VISA) has recently been reported in the United States. Which one of the statements concerning VISA is the most correct?
- AMinimum inhibitory concentration (MIC) for vancomycin is at least 1.0 mcg/mL
- BVISA isolates are usually methicillin susceptible (methicillin-resistant S. aureus,
MRSA) - CVISAs have emerged because of the extended use of vancomycin for MRSAs
- DPatients with VISA isolates need not be isolated
- EVISA isolates are infrequent, so surveillance at the present time is not warranted
13A sputum sample was brought to the laboratory for analysis. Gram stain revealed the following: rare epithelial cells, 8 to 10 polymorphonuclear leukocytes per high-power field, and pleomorphic Gram-negative rods. As the laboratory consultant, which of the following interpretations should you make?
- AThe sputum specimen is too contaminated by saliva to be useful
- BThere is no evidence of an inflammatory response
- CThe patient has pneumococcal pneumonia
- DThe patient has Vincent’s disease
- EThe appearance of the sputum is suggestive of Haemophilus pneumonia
14An isolate from a wound culture is a Gram-negative rod identified as Bacteroides fragilis. Anaerobic infection with B. fragilis is characterized by
- AA foul-smelling discharge
- BA black exudate in the wound
- CAn exquisite susceptibility to penicillin
- DA heme-pigmented colony formation
- ESevere neurologic symptoms
15Virtually all prokaryotic cells (bacteria, both Gram-positive and Gramnegative) contain peptidoglycan as well as specific enzymes for its synthesis. All of the following statements concerning Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria are true except
- AThe extent of cross-linking of peptidoglycan is a function of different species of
bacteria - BThe peptidoglycan-synthesizing enzymes can be antibiotic targets
- CBoth Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria contain significant amounts of
teichoic acid - DWith the exception of the structures that are cross-linked, peptidoglycan structure
is common to most bacteria - EThe physical shape of bacteria is a function of peptidoglycan
- AThe extent of cross-linking of peptidoglycan is a function of different species of
16L. monocytogenes causes a variety of diseases, including food poisoning. Listeria are small, Gram-positive, motile rod-shaped bacteria. Which of the following best describes these microorganisms?
- AListeria are facultative intracellular pathogens
- BOnce infected, the immune system cannot destroy Listeria
- CListeria cannot be cultivated on artificial media
- DFlagella are produced both at room temperature and at 37°C
- EThere is no relationship between Listeria serovars and human infection
17A 30-year-old male patient was seen by the emergency service and reported a 2-week history of a penile ulcer. He noted that this ulcer did not hurt. Which one of the following conclusions/actions is most valid?
- ADraw blood for a herpes antibody test
- BPerform a dark-field examination of the lesion
- CPrescribe acyclovir for primary genital herpes
- DEven if treated, the lesion will remain for months
- EFailure to treat the patient will have no untoward effect, as this is a self-limiting
infection
18A 30-year-old male patient was seen by the emergency service and reported a 2-week history of a penile ulcer. He noted that this ulcer did not hurt. The laboratory reports that the Venereal Disease Research Laboratory (VDRL) test performed on the above patient is reactive at a dilution of 1:4 (4 dils). The patient also reports to you that he has recently been diagnosed with hepatitis A. Which one of the following actions would be most appropriate?
- AReport this patient to the health department, as he has syphilis
- BOrder a confirmatory test such as the fluorescent treponemal antibody test
(FTA) - CRepeat the VDRL test
- DOrder a rapid reagin test (RPR)
- EPerform a spinal tap to rule out central nervous system syphilis
19A 30-year-old male patient was seen by the emergency service and reported a 2-week history of a penile ulcer. He noted that this ulcer did not hurt. The laboratory reports that the Venereal Disease Research Laboratory (VDRL) test performed on the above patient is reactive at a dilution of 1:4 (4 dils). The patient also reports to you that he has recently been diagnosed with hepatitis A. Which one of the following test combinations for syphilis is most appropriate?
- AFTA-Abs (IgG)/FTA-Abs (IgM)
- BRPR/FTA-Abs
- CRPR/culture of the lesion
- DVDRL/RPR
- ETreponema pallidum hemagglutination (TPHA)/microhemagglutination-Treponema
pallidum (MHTP) tests
20Assume that the patient absolutely denied any contact, sexual or otherwise, with a person who had syphilis. Assume also that both the RPR and the FTA Abs were positive on this patient. Which one of the following tests could be used to show that this patient probably does not have syphilis?
- AVDRL
- BQuantitative RPR
- CTreponema pallidum immobilization (TPI) test
- DFrei test
- EMHTP test
21A 55-year-old man who is being treated for adenocarcinoma of the lung is admitted to a hospital because of a temperature of 38.9°C (102°F), chest pain, and a dry cough. Sputum is collected. Gram’s stain of the sputum is unremarkable and culture reveals many small Gram-negative rods able to grow only on a charcoal yeast extract agar. This organism most likely is
- AKlebsiella pneumoniae
- BMycoplasma pneumoniae
- CLegionella pneumophila
- DChlamydia trachomatis
- ES. aureus
22A patient was hospitalized after an automobile accident. The wounds became infected and the patient was treated with tobramycin, carbenicillin, and clindamycin. Five days after antibiotic therapy was initiated, the patient developed severe diarrhea and pseudomembranous enterocolitis. Antibiotic-associated diarrhea and the more serious pseudomembranous enterocolitis can be caused by
- AClostridium sordellii
- BClostridium perfringens
- CClostridium difficile
- DS. aureus
- EB. fragilis
23Assuming that the average achievable serum level of gentamicin is 6 to 8 mcg/mL, which of the following bacteria is susceptible to gentamicin?
- AE. coli with a minimal inhibitory concentration (MIC) of 10 mcg/mL
- BE. coli with an MIC of 12 mcg/mL
- CKlebsiella with an MIC of 0.25 mcg/mL
- DKlebsiella with an MIC of 6.0 mcg/mL
- EKlebsiella with an MIC of 20 mcg/mL
24A child comes to an emergency room because of an infected dog bite. The wound is found to contain small Gram-negative rods. The most likely cause of infection is
- AE. coli
- BH. influenzae
- CPasteurella multocida
- DBrucella canis
- EKlebsiella rhinoscleromatis
25A patient complained to his dentist about a draining lesion in his mouth. A Gram’s stain of the pus showed a few Gram-positive cocci, leukocytes, and many branched Gram-positive rods. The most likely cause of the disease is
- AActinomyces israelii
- BActinomyces viscosus
- CC. diphtheriae
- DPropionibacterium acnes
- ES. aureus
26A man who has a penile chancre appears in a hospital’s emergency service. The VDRL test is negative. The most appropriate course of action for the physician in charge would be to
- ASend the patient home untreated
- BRepeat the VDRL test in 10 days
- CPerform dark-field microscopy for treponemes
- DSwab the chancre and culture on Thayer-Martin agar
- EPerform a Gram stain on the chancre fluid
27Fever of unknown origin in a farmer who raises goats would most likely be caused by which of the following organisms?
- ABrucella melitensis
- BClostridium novyi
- CT. pallidum
- DHistoplasma capsulatum
- EMycobacterium tuberculosis
28Cholera is a toxicogenic dysenteric disease common in many parts of the world. In the treatment of patients who have cholera, the use of a drug that inhibits adenyl cyclase would be expected to
- AKill the patient immediately
- BEradicate the organism
- CIncrease fluid secretion
- DReduce intestinal motility
- EBlock the action of cholera toxin
29A box of ham sandwiches with mayonnaise prepared by a person with a boil on his neck was left out of the refrigerator for the on-call interns. Three doctors became violently ill approximately 2 h after eating the sandwiches. The most likely cause is
- AS. aureus enterotoxin
- BCoagulase from S. aureus in the ham
- CS. aureus leukocidin
- DC. perfringens toxin
- EPenicillinase given to inactivate penicillin in the pork
30S. aureus causes a wide variety of infections, ranging from wound infection to pneumonia. Treatment of S. aureus infection with penicillin is often complicated by the
- AInability of penicillin to penetrate the membrane of S. aureus
- BProduction of penicillinase by S. aureus
- CProduction of penicillin acetylase by S. aureus
- DLack of penicillin binding sites on S. aureus
- EAllergic reaction caused by staphylococcal protein
31Symptoms of C. botulinum food poisoning include double vision, inability to speak, and respiratory paralysis. These symptoms are consistent with
- AInvasion of the gut epithelium by C. botulinum
- BSecretion of an enterotoxin
- CEndotoxin shock
- DIngestion of a neurotoxin
- EActivation of cyclic AMP
32In people who have sickle cell anemia, osteomyelitis usually is associated with which of the following organisms?
- AMicrococcus
- BEscherichia
- CPseudomonas
- DSalmonella
- EStreptococcus
33The treatment of choice for a patient with C. jejuni enterocolitis is
- AErythromycin
- BCiprofloxacin
- CAmpicillin
- DPepto-Bismol
- ECampylobacter antitoxin
34A hyperemic edema of the larynx and epiglottis that rapidly leads to respiratory obstruction in young children is most likely to be caused by
- AK. pneumoniae
- BM. pneumoniae
- CNeisseria meningitidis
- DH. influenzae
- EH. hemolyticus
35A 70-year-old female patient was readmitted to a local hospital with fever and chills following cardiac surgery at a major teaching institution. Blood cultures were taken and a Gram-positive coccus grew from the blood cultures within 24 hours. Initial tests indicated that this isolate was resistant to penicillin. The most likely identification is
- AStreptococcus pneumoniae
- BNeisseria
- CGroup A streptococcus
- DEnterococcus
- EGroup B streptococcus
36Acute hematogenous osteomyelitis is often diagnosed by isolation of the organism from the blood and is caused most often by
- AProteus mirabilis
- BStreptococcus faecalis
- CStaphylococcus epidermidis
- DS. aureus
- EE. coli
37Diphtheria toxin is produced only by those strains of C. diphtheriae that are
- AGlucose fermenters
- BSucrose fermenters
- CLysogenic for β-prophage
- DOf the mitis strain
- EEncapsulated
38A 28-year-old menstruating woman appeared in the emergency room with the following signs and symptoms: fever, 104°F (40°C); WBC, 16,000/ μL; blood pressure, 90/65 mmHg; a scarlatiniform rash on her trunk, palms, and soles; extreme fatigue; vomiting; and diarrhea.
The patient described in the case above most likely has- AScalded skin syndrome
- BToxic shock syndrome
- CGuillain-Barré syndrome
- DChickenpox
- EStaphylococcal food poisoning
39Culture of the menstrual fluid in the case of a woman with Toxic Shock Syndrome (TSS) would most likely reveal a predominance of
- AS. aureus
- BS. epidermidis
- CC. perfringens
- DC. difficile
- EGardnerella vaginalis
40A new latex agglutination (LA) reagent for H. influenzae polysaccharide antigen in cerebrospinal fluid was evaluated. Results were compared with the isolation of H. influenzae from the CSF. Results were as follows:
LA POS, CULT POS: 25
LA POS, CULT NEG: 5
LA NEG, CULT POS: 5
LA NEG, CULT NEG: 95
The sensitivity of LA is- A0%
- B30%
- C85%
- D95%
- E100%
41A new latex agglutination (LA) reagent for H. influenzae polysaccharide antigen in cerebrospinal fluid was evaluated. Results were compared with the isolation of H. influenzae from the CSF. Results were as follows:
LA POS, CULT POS: 25
LA POS, CULT NEG: 5
LA NEG, CULT POS: 5
LA NEG, CULT NEG: 95
The specificity of LA is- A0%
- B30%
- C80%
- D95%
- E100%
42A new latex agglutination (LA) reagent for H. influenzae polysaccharide antigen in cerebrospinal fluid was evaluated. Results were compared with the isolation of H. influenzae from the CSF. Results were as follows:
LA POS, CULT POS: 25
LA POS, CULT NEG: 5
LA NEG, CULT POS: 5
LA NEG, CULT NEG: 95
The negative predictive value of LA is- A10%
- B80%
- C95%
- D110%
- ENot calculable
43The incidence of H. influenzae meningitis in the general population is less than 1%. If during an epidemic the incidence rose to 3%, the negative predictive value of the LA test would
- AIncrease
- BDecrease
- CRemain the same
- DBe impossible to calculate
- EVary as a function of the specificity of the LA test
44Methicillin-resistant S. aureus (MRSA) was isolated from 7 patients in a 14-bed intensive care unit. All patients were isolated and the unit closed to any more admissions. Which one of the following reasons best explains these rigorous methods to control MRSA?
- AMRSA is inherently more virulent than other staphylococci
- BThe alternative for treatment of MRSA is vancomycin, an expensive and potentially
toxic antibiotic - CMRSA causes toxic shock syndrome
- DMRSA spreads more rapidly from patient to patient than antibiotic-susceptible
staphylococci do - EMRSA is resistant to penicillin
45A patient with AIDS returned from Haiti with acute diarrhea. The stool revealed an oval organism (8 to 9 μm in diameter) that was acid-fast and fluoresced blue under ultraviolet light. The most likely identification of this organism is
- ACyclospora
- BGiardia
- CEnterocytozoon
- DCryptosporidium
- EPrototheca
46A 2-year-old infant is brought to the emergency room with hemolytic uremic syndrome and thrombocytopenia. Which one of the following bacteria would most likely be isolated from a stool specimen?
- AShigella
- BSalmonella
- CAeromonas
- DE. coli 0157/H7
- EEnterobacter
47E. coli causes disease by a variety of different methods. Which one of the following E. coli types is characterized by the presence of LT (heat-labile) and ST (heat-stable) proteins?
- AEnteroinvasive (EIEC)
- BEnterotoxigenic (ETEC)
- CEnterohemorrhagic (EHEC)
- DEnteropathogenic (EPEC)
- EEnterohemolytic (EHEEC)
48Yersinia pestis, the causative agent of plague, is enzootic in the United States west of the one-hundredth meridian. Human plague can be bubonic or pneumonic. The primary epidemiologic difference between the two clinical forms of plague is
- ASeason of the year
- BRoute of infection
- CAge of the patient
- DHealth of the animal vector
- EGeographic location of the animal vector
49A 9-year-old child is brought to the emergency room with the chief complaint of enlarged, painful axillary lymph nodes. The resident physician also notes a small, inflamed, dime-sized lesion surrounding what appears to be a small scratch on the forearm. The lymph node is aspirated and some pus is sent to the laboratory for examination. A Warthin-Starry silver impregnation stain reveals many highly pleomorphic, rod-shaped bacteria. The most likely cause of this infection is
- AY. pestis
- BYersinia enterocolitica
- CMycobacterium scrofulaceum
- DB. canis
- EBartonella henselae
50Recently, there have been sensational media reports of patients infected with invasive, “flesh-eating” bacteria that spread rapidly through the tissues. This necrotizing fasciitis is usually caused by
- AS. aureus
- BGroup A streptococci
- CMicrococcus
- DBacillus cereus
- EClostridium tetani
51The most effective noninvasive test for the diagnosis of Helicobacter-associated gastric ulcers is
- ADetection of H. pylori antigen in stool
- BGrowth of H. pylori from a stomach biopsy
- CGrowth of H. pylori in the stool
- DIgM antibodies to H. pylori
- ECulture of stomach contents for H. pylori
52The following test results were observed in a woman tested in November who reported being in the woods in Pennsylvania during the past summer, was bitten by a tick, and now has Bell’s palsy: Lyme IgG antibody 1:1280; Lyme IgM antibody negative. Which one of the following courses of action is most appropriate?
- AOrder tests for syphilis (VDRL, FTA-ABS) because there are cross-reactions reported with Borrelia burgdorferi
- BAsk the patient if she has a severe headache
- CConsider treatment of the patient with an appropriate antibiotic such as tetracycline
- DAsk the patient if she has had a urinary tract infection with E. coli
- EIgnore the results because there is no Lyme disease in Pennsylvania
53Mycobacterium avium is a major opportunistic pathogen in AIDS patients. M. avium from AIDS patients can be best characterized by which one of the following statements?
- AThe majority of M. avium isolates from AIDS patients are nonpigmented
- BM. avium isolates from AIDS patients are of multiple serovars
- CFew isolates from AIDS patients are acid-fast
- DMost isolates from AIDS patients are sensitive to isoniazid and streptomycin
- EM. avium can be isolated from the blood of AIDS patients
54Rheumatic fever (RF) is a disease seen in children and young adults. Which one of the following statements best typifies the disease?
- AIt is characterized by inflammatory lesions that may involve the heart, joints, subcutaneous tissues, and the central nervous system
- BThe pathogenesis is related to the similarity between a staphylococcal antigen and a human cardiac antigen
- CProphylaxis with benzathine penicillin is of little value
- DIt is a complication of group A streptococcal skin disease but usually not of pharyngitis
- EIt is very common in developing countries but extremely rare and decreasing in incidence in the United States
55Bacteria cause disease in a number of ways. One mechanism of pathogenesis is the secretion of potent protein toxins. All the following diseases are caused by microbial protein toxins, but one toxin has been used for a variety of maladies. It is
- ATetanus
- BBotulism
- CBacillary (Shigella) dysentery
- DDiphtheria
- EDisseminated intravascular coagulation
56A 2-year-old child was admitted to the hospital with acute meningitis. The Gram stain revealed Gram-positive short rods, and the mother indicated that the child had received “all” of the meningitis vaccinations. What is the most likely cause of the disease?
- AN. meningitidis, group A
- BN. meningitidis, group C
- CListeria
- DS. pneumoniae
- EH. influenzae
57The most common portal of entry for C. tetani, the cause of tetanus, is the
- ASkin
- BGastrointestinal tract
- CRespiratory tract
- DGenital tract
- ENasal tract
58The most common way in which tuberculosis is acquired is via the
- ASkin
- BGastrointestinal tract
- CRespiratory tract
- DGenital tract
- ENasal tract
59Shigellosis is common in travelers to developing countries. Infection is commonly acquired through the
- ASkin
- BGastrointestinal tract
- CRespiratory tract
- DGenital tract
- ENasal tract
60A person who contracts gonorrhea is most likely to have acquired it via the
- ASkin
- BGastrointestinal tract
- CRespiratory tract
- DGenital tract
- ENasal tract
61There are a variety of “unusual” bacteria that infect humans. While rare, disease caused by these microorganisms is serious and occasionally difficult to identify. Branhamella is best characterized as
- AA Gram-negative pleomorphic rod that can cause endocarditis
- BThe causative agent of trench fever
- CA Gram-negative rod, fusiforme-shaped, that is associated with periodontal disease but may cause sepsis
- DThe causative agent of rat-bite fever
- EThe causative agent of sinusitis, bronchitis, and pneumonia
62Cardiobacterium is best characterized as
- AA Gram-negative pleomorphic rod that can cause endocarditis
- BThe causative agent of trench fever
- CA Gram-negative rod, fusiforme-shaped, that is associated with periodontal disease
but may cause sepsis - DThe causative agent of rat-bite fever
- EThe causative agent of sinusitis, bronchitis, and pneumonia
63Capnocytophyga is best characterized as
- AA Gram-negative pleomorphic rod that can cause endocarditis
- BThe causative agent of trench fever
- CA Gram-negative rod, fusiforme-shaped, that is associated with periodontal disease but may cause sepsis
- DThe causative agent of rat-bite fever
- EThe causative agent of sinusitis, bronchitis, and pneumonia
64An enterococcus (E. faecium) was isolated from a urine specimen (100,000 cfu/mL). Treatment of the patient with ampicillin and gentamicin failed. The most clinically appropriate action is
- ADo no further clinical workup
- BSuggest to the laboratory that low colony counts may reflect infection
- CDetermine if fluorescent microscopy is available for the diagnosis of actinomycosis
- DConsider vancomycin as an alternative drug
- ESuggest a repeat antibiotic susceptibility test
65A patient with symptoms of urinary tract infection had a culture taken, which grew 5 × 103 E. coli. The laboratory reported it as “insignificant.” The most clinically appropriate action is
- ADo no further clinical workup
- BSuggest to the laboratory that low colony counts may reflect infection
- CDetermine if fluorescent microscopy is available for the diagnosis of actinomycosis
- DConsider vancomycin as an alternative drug
- ESuggest a repeat antibiotic susceptibility test
66A patient appeared in the emergency room with a submandibular mass. A smear was made of the drainage and a bewildering variety of bacteria were seen, including branched, Gram-positive rods. The most clinically appropriate action is
- ADo no further clinical workup
- BSuggest to the laboratory that low colony counts may reflect infection
- CDetermine if fluorescent microscopy is available for the diagnosis of actinomycosis
- DConsider vancomycin as an alternative drug
- ESuggest a repeat antibiotic susceptibility test
67The antibiotic therapy of choice for legionellosis is
- APenicillin
- BAmpicillin
- CErythromycin
- DVancomycin
- ECeftriaxone
68The antibiotic of choice for pneumococcal pneumonia is
- APenicillin
- BAmpicillin
- CErythromycin
- DVancomycin
- ECeftriaxone
69The antibiotic of choice for Lyme disease is
- APenicillin
- BAmpicillin
- CErythromycin
- DVancomycin
- ECeftriaxone
70The antibiotic of choice for streptococcal pharyngitis is
- APenicillin
- BAmpicillin
- CErythromycin
- DVancomycin
- ECeftriaxone
71The therapy of choice for pseudomembranous enterocolitis is
- APenicillin
- BAmpicillin
- CErythromycin
- DVancomycin
- ECeftriaxone
72C. jejuni is best described as
- A“String-test”-positive isolate; three serotypes—Ogawa (AB), Inaba (AC), Hikojima (ABC)
- BHuman pathogen, halophilic, lactose-positive; produces heat-labile, extracellular toxin
- CHuman pathogen, halophilic, lactose-negative, sucrose-negative; causes gastrointestinal diseases primarily from ingestion of cooked seafood
- DCause of gastroenteritis; reservoir in birds and mammals, optimal growth at 42°C
- EUrease-positive; cause of fetal distress in cattle
73V. cholerae, the causative agent of cholera, is best described as
- A“String-test”-positive isolate; three serotypes—Ogawa (AB), Inaba (AC), Hikojima (ABC)
- BHuman pathogen, halophilic, lactose-positive; produces heat-labile, extracellular toxin
- CHuman pathogen, halophilic, lactose-negative, sucrose-negative; causes gastrointestinal diseases primarily from ingestion of cooked seafood
- DCause of gastroenteritis; reservoir in birds and mammals, optimal growth at 42°C
- EUrease-positive; cause of fetal distress in cattle
74V. parahaemolyticus, first described in Japan, is best characterized as
- A“String-test”-positive isolate; three serotypes—Ogawa (AB), Inaba (AC), Hikojima (ABC)
- BHuman pathogen, halophilic, lactose-positive; produces heat-labile, extracellular toxin
- CHuman pathogen, halophilic, lactose-negative, sucrose-negative; causes gastrointestinal diseases primarily from ingestion of cooked seafood
- DCause of gastroenteritis; reservoir in birds and mammals, optimal growth at 42°C
- EUrease-positive; cause of fetal distress in cattle
75Vibrio vulnificus, which can be found in the oceans and bays in temperate and tropical climates, is best characterized as
- A“String-test”-positive isolate; three serotypes—Ogawa (AB), Inaba (AC), Hikojima (ABC)
- BHuman pathogen, halophilic, lactose-positive; produces heat-labile, extracellular toxin
- CHuman pathogen, halophilic, lactose-negative, sucrose-negative; causes gastrointestinal diseases primarily from ingestion of cooked seafood
- DCause of gastroenteritis; reservoir in birds and mammals, optimal growth at 42°C
- EUrease-positive; cause of fetal distress in cattle
76Y. enterocolitica, formerly a Pasteurella, is best described by which of the following statements?
- ACommonly inhabits the canine respiratory tract and is an occasional pathogen for humans; strongly urease-positive
- BPits agar, grows both in carbon dioxide and under anaerobic conditions, and is part of the normal oral cavity flora
- CTypically infects cattle, requires 5 to 10% carbon dioxide for growth, and is inhibited by the dye thionine
- DTypically is found in infected animal bites in humans and can cause hemorrhagic septicemia in animals
- EManifests different biochemical and physiologic characteristics, depending on growth temperature, and causes a spectrum of human disease, most commonly mesenteric lymphadenitis
77Brucella abortus, one of the three species causing brucellosis, a possible bioterrorism agent, is best described by which of the following statements?
- ACommonly inhabits the canine respiratory tract and is an occasional pathogen for humans; strongly urease-positive
- BPits agar, grows both in carbon dioxide and under anaerobic conditions, and is part of the normal oral cavity flora
- CTypically infects cattle, requires 5 to 10% carbon dioxide for growth, and is inhibited by the dye thionine
- DTypically is found in infected animal bites in humans and can cause hemorrhagic septicemia in animals
- EManifests different biochemical and physiologic characteristics, depending on growth temperature, and causes a spectrum of human disease, most commonly mesenteric lymphadenitis
Informações
- Descrição
- Bacteriology Pre-test Microbiology
- Autor
- Magen Ross
- Idioma
- English
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- 582
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