40 Question quiz 15 (561-600)

Daniel Neag
Quiz by Daniel Neag, updated more than 1 year ago


Quiz on 40 Question quiz 15 (561-600), created by Daniel Neag on 12/07/2017.
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Question 1

Item transmittal report is also known as
  • A. Incident report
  • B. Release note
  • C. Review report
  • D. Audit report

Question 2

COTS is known as
  • A. Commercial off the shelf software
  • B. Compliance of the software
  • C. Change control of the software
  • D. Capable off the shelf software

Question 3

Change request should be submitted through development or program management. A change request must be written and should include the following criteria. I. Definition of the change II. Documentation to be updated III. Name of the tester or developer IV. Dependencies of the change request.
  • A. I, III and IV
  • B. I, II and III
  • C. II, III and IV
  • D. I, II and IV

Question 4

Change X requires a higher level of authority than Change Y in which of the following pairs? Change X Change Y
  • A. Code in development Code in production
  • B. Specifications during requirements analysis Specifications during systems test
  • C. Documents requested by the technical development group Documents requested by customers
  • D. A product distributed to several sites A product with a single user

Question 5

Cause effect graphing is related to the standard
  • A. BS7799
  • B. BS 7925/2
  • C. ISO/IEC 926/1
  • D. ISO/IEC 2382/1

Question 6

The primary goal of comparing a user manual with the actual behavior of the running program during system testing is to
  • A. Find bugs in the program
  • B. Check the technical accuracy of the document
  • C. Ensure the ease of use of the document
  • D. Ensure that the program is the latest version

Question 7

During the testing of a module tester 'X' finds a bug and assigned it to developer. But developer rejects the same, saying that it's not a bug. What 'X' should do?
  • A. Report the issue to the test manager and try to settle with the developer.
  • B. Retest the module and confirm the bug
  • C. Assign the same bug to another developer
  • D. Send to the detailed information of the bug encountered and check the reproducibility

Question 8

One of the more daunting challenges of managing a test project is that so many dependencies converge at test execution. One missing configuration file or hard ware device can render all your test results meaning less. You can end up with an entire platoon of testers sitting around for days. Who is responsible for this incident?
  • A. Test managers faults only
  • B. Test lead faults only
  • C. Test manager and project manager faults
  • D. Testers faults only

Question 9

You are a tester for testing a large system. The system data model is very large with many attributes and there are a lot of inter dependencies with in the fields. What steps would you use to test the system and also what are the efforts of the test you have taken on the test plan
  • A. Improve super vision, More reviews of artifacts or program means stage containment of the defects.
  • B. Extend the test plan so that you can test all the inter dependencies
  • C. Divide the large system in to small modules and test the functionality
  • D. Test the interdependencies first, after that check the system as a whole

Question 10

Testing of software used to convert data from existing systems for use in replacement systems
  • A. Data driven testing
  • B. Migration testing
  • C. Configuration testing
  • D. Back to back testing

Question 11

A test manager wants to use the resources available for the automated testing of a web application. The best choice is
  • A. Test automater, web specialist, DBA, test lead
  • B. Tester, test automater, web specialist, DBA
  • C. Tester, test lead, test automater, DBA
  • D. Tester, web specialist, test lead, test automater

Question 12

What type of risk includes potential failure areas in the software?
  • A. Probed risks
  • B. Product risks
  • C. Economic risks
  • D. Requirements risks

Question 13

Consider the following statements i. A incident may be closed without being fixed ii. Incidents may not be raised against documentation iii. The final stage of incident tracking is fixing iv. The incident record does not include information on test environments v. Incidents should be raised when someone other than the author of the software performs the test
  • A. ii and v are true, I, iii and iv are false
  • B. i and v are true, ii, iii and iv are false
  • C. i, iv and v are true, ii and iii are false
  • D. i and ii are true, iii, iv and v are false
  • E. i is true, ii, iii, iv and v are false

Question 14

Which test suite will check for an invalid transition using the diagram below?
  • A. S0-S1-S2-S3-S1-S4
  • B. S0-S1-S4-S1-S2-S3
  • C. S0-S1-S3-S1-S2-S1
  • D. S0-S1-S2-S3-S1-S2

Question 15

Who OFTEN performs system testing and acceptance testing, respectively?
  • A. Senior programmers and professional testers
  • B. Technical system testers and potential customers
  • C. Independent test team and users of the system
  • D. Development team and customers of the system

Question 16

Which test levels are USUALLY included in the common type of V-model?
  • A. Integration testing, system testing, acceptance testing, and regression testing
  • B. Component testing, integration testing, system testing, and acceptance testing
  • C. Incremental testing, exhaustive testing, exploratory testing, and data driven testing
  • D. Alpha testing, beta testing, black-box testing, and white-box testing

Question 17

Which general testing principles are characterized by the descriptions below? W) Early testing X) Defect clustering Y) Pesticide paradox Z) Absence-of-errors fallacy 1) Testing should start at the beginning of the project 2) Conformance to requirements and fitness for use 3) Small Number of modules contain the most defects 4) Test cases must be regularly renewed and revised
  • A. W1, X2, Y3, and Z4
  • B. W1, X3, Y4, and Z2
  • C. W2, X3, Y1, and Z4
  • D. W1, X4, Y2, and Z3

Question 18

How are (a) static analysis tools and (b) performance testing tools different?
  • A. (a) helps in enforcing coding standards; (b) tests system performance
  • B. (a) analyzes security vulnerabilities; (b) measures the effectiveness of test cases
  • C. (a) prepares codes prior to testing; (b) prepares codes prior to stress testing
  • D. (a) highlights unreachable conditions; (b) improves system performance

Question 19

In an Examination a candidate has to score minimum of 24 marks in order to clear the exam. The maximum that he can score is 40 marks. Identify the Valid Equivalence values if the student clears the exam.
  • a) 22,23,26
  • b) 21,39,40
  • c) 29,30,31
  • d) 0,15,22

Question 20

Which of the following describe test control actions that may occur during testing? I. Setting an entry criterion that developers must retest fixes before fixes are accepted into a build. II. Changing the test schedule due to availability of a test environment. III. Re-prioritizing tests when development delivers software late
  • A. I only
  • B. II only
  • C. I, II and III
  • D. I and III

Question 21

What is the expected result for each of the following test cases? A.TC1: Anand is a 32 year old married, residing in Kolkatta. B.TC3: Attapattu is a 65 year old married person, residing in Colombo.
  • A. A - Issue membership, 10% discount, B - Issue membership, offer no discount.
  • B. A - Don't Issue membership, B - Don't offer discount.
  • C. A - Issue membership, no discount, B - Don't Issue membership.
  • D. A - Issue membership, no discount, B- Issue membership with 10% discount.

Question 22

Which of the following is false?
  • A. Incidents should always be fixed.
  • B. An incident occurs when expected and actual results differ.
  • C. Incidents can be analysed to assist in test process improvement.
  • D. An incident can be raised against documentation.

Question 23

Which of the following is false?
  • A. In a system two different failures may have different severities.
  • B. A system is necessarily more reliable after debugging for the removal of a fault.
  • C. A fault need not affect the reliability of a system.
  • D. Undetected errors may lead to faults and eventually to incorrect behavior.

Question 24

A testing process that is conducted to test new features after regression testing of previous features.
  • A. Operational testing
  • B. Progressive testing
  • C. Recovery testing
  • D. Regression testing

Question 25

Identify out of the following, which are the attributes of cost of faults?
  • A. These are cheapest to detect during early phases of development & becomes more & more expensive to fix in the later phases.
  • B. Although faults are most expensive to find during early development phases, they are cheapest to fix then.
  • C. Faults are cheapest to find in the early development phases but the most expensive to fix then.
  • D. They are easiest to find during system testing but the most expensive to fix then.

Question 26

What is non-functional testing?
  • A. Testing an integrated system to verify that it meets specified requirements
  • B. Testing the internal structure of the system to ensure it's built correctly
  • C. Testing the way the system works without regard to the level of test
  • D. Testing characteristics such as usability or reliability

Question 27

Which of the following is a form of functional testing?
  • A. Boundary value analysis
  • B. Usability testing
  • C. Performance testing
  • D. Security testing

Question 28

Which of the following statements about decision tables are TRUE? I. Decision tables are useful when dealing with multiple inputs that do not interact. II. The strength of a decision table is that it creates combinations of inputs that might not otherwise been evaluated. III. Decision tables are useful when trying to capture system requirements that contain logical conditions. IV. Each column of a decision table corresponds to a business rule that defines a unique combination of conditions.
  • A. II, III and IV
  • B. I and IV
  • C. I, II and III
  • D. I and III

Question 29

Which of the following are metrics (measurements) that a test group may use to monitor progress? I. Subjective confidence of the testers in the product II. The number of testers currently testing III. Percentage of planned test cases prepared IV. Defects found and fixed
  • A. I only
  • B. I, III and IV
  • C. I, II and IV
  • D. II and IV

Question 30

A test case has which of the following elements?
  • A. A test environment description and test instructions.
  • B. A set of inputs, execution preconditions, and expected outcomes.
  • C. A test plan, test inputs, and logging instructions.
  • D. Execution instructions and a function description to determine correct outcome.

Question 31

Which of the following is a fundamental principle of software defect prevention?
  • A. Software quality engineering must evaluate all errors.
  • B. A balance of white-box and black-box testing is necessary.
  • C. A single root cause taxonomy should be used by all projects.
  • D. Feedback to the individuals who introduced the defect is essential.

Question 32

When software reliability measures are used to determine when to stop testing, the best types of test cases to use are those that
  • A. Push the system beyond its designed operation limits and are likely to make the system fail
  • B. Exercise unusual and obscure scenarios that may not have been considered in design
  • C. Exercise system functions in proportion to the frequency they will be used in the released product
  • D. Exercise the most complicated and the most error-prone portions of the system

Question 33

Which of the following statements about static analysis is FALSE?
  • A. Static analysis can find defects that are likely to be missed by dynamic testing.
  • B. Static analysis is a good way to force failures in the software.
  • C. Static analysis tools examine code or other types of product documentation.
  • D. Static analysis can result in cost saving by finding bugs early.

Question 34

Which of the following statements is true about white-box testing?
  • A. It includes functional testing.
  • B. It includes loop testing.
  • C. It is usually done after black-box testing.
  • D. It is usually done during the integration testing phase.

Question 35

A set of behavioral and performance requirements which, in aggregate, determine the functional properties of a software system.
  • A. Functional requirement
  • B. Functional specifications
  • C. Functional test cases

Question 36

Which of the following provides the test group with the ability to reference all documents and software items unambiguously?
  • A. Agile testing methodology
  • B. Effective use of tools
  • C. Configuration management
  • D. Requirements traceability matrix

Question 37

Which of the following is not a job responsibility of a software tester?
  • A. Identifying test cases
  • B. Preparing test data
  • C. Executing tests
  • D. Writing the functional specifications

Question 38

Which of the following are Black Box test design techniques? I. Boundary value analysis II. Branch condition testing III. Equivalence partitioning IV. State transition testing.
  • A. I, II, III and IV
  • B. I and III
  • C. III and IV
  • D. I, III and IV

Question 39

Which of the following are test management tool capabilities? I. The enforcement of coding standards. II. Support for requirements traceability activities. III. The generation of testing progress reports IV. Generation of test process improvement information.
  • A. II, III and IV
  • B. I and II
  • C. I, III and IV
  • D. III and IV

Question 40

Errors that are cosmetic in nature are usually assigned a ______ severity level.
  • A. Fatal (Severity)
  • B. Low (Severity)
  • C. Serious (Severity)
  • D. Not Serious at all
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