ASCP Chemistry 1-200

Description

bachelor Certificate cASCP Quiz on ASCP Chemistry 1-200, created by Taylor Walker on 14/01/2019.
Taylor Walker
Quiz by Taylor Walker, updated more than 1 year ago
Taylor Walker
Created by Taylor Walker over 5 years ago
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Resource summary

Question 1

Question
The urinary excretion product measured as an indicator of epinephrine production is:
Answer
  • dopamine
  • dihydroxyphenylalanine (DOPA)
  • homovanillic acid
  • vanillylmandelic acid

Question 2

Question
Which two conditions can 'physiologically" elevate serum alkaline phosphatase?
Answer
  • rickets, hyperparathyroidism
  • obstructive jaundice, biliary cirrhosis
  • growth, third trimester of pregnancy
  • viral hepatitis, infectious mononucleosis

Question 3

Question
The T3 resin uptake test is a measure of:
Answer
  • circulating T3
  • bound T3
  • binding capacity of thyroxine-binding globulin
  • total thyroxine-binding globulin

Question 4

Question
During an evaluation of adrenal function, a patient had plasma cortisol levels in the morning after awakening and in the evening. Laboratory results indicated that the morning value was higher than the evening concentration. This is indicative of:
Answer
  • a normal finding
  • Cushing's syndrome
  • Addison's disease
  • hypopituitarism

Question 5

Question
In the liver, bilirubin is converted to:
Answer
  • urobilinogen
  • urobilin
  • bilirubin-albumin complex
  • bilirubin diglucuronide

Question 6

Question
The following results were obtained in a creatinine clearance evaluation: Urine concentration 84 mg/dL Urine volume 1440 mLI24 hr Serum concentration 1.4 mg/dL Body surface area 1.60 m2 (average = 1.73 m2) The creatinine clearance in mL/min is:
Answer
  • 6
  • 22
  • 60
  • 65

Question 7

Question
The electrophoretic pattern of a plasma sample compared with a serum sample show a:
Answer
  • broad pre-albumin peak
  • sharp fibrinogen peak
  • diffuse pattern because of the presence of anticoagulants
  • decreased globulin fraction

Question 8

Question
The biuret reaction for the analysis of serum protein depends on the number of:
Answer
  • free amino groups
  • free carboxyl groups
  • peptide bonds
  • tyrosine residues

Question 9

Question
Total iron-binding capacity measures the serum iron transporting capacity of:
Answer
  • hemoglobin
  • ceruloplasmin
  • transferrin
  • ferritin

Question 10

Question
In the Jendrassik-Grof method for serum bilirubin, quantitation is obtained by measuring the green color of:
Answer
  • azobilirubin
  • bilirubin glucuronide
  • urobilin
  • urobilinogen

Question 11

Question
Absorbance (A) of a solution may be converted to percent transmittance (%T) using the formula:
Answer
  • 1+log%T
  • 2+log%T
  • 1-log%T
  • 2-log%T

Question 12

Question
Aspartate aminotransferase and alanine aminotransferase are both elevated in which of the following diseases?
Answer
  • muscular dystrophy
  • viral hepatitis
  • pulmonary emboli
  • infectious mononucleosis

Question 13

Question
Calcium concentration in the serum is regulated by:
Answer
  • insulin
  • parathyroid hormone
  • thyroxine
  • vitamin C

Question 14

Question
Which of the following steroids is an adrenal cortical hormone'?
Answer
  • angiotensinogen
  • corticosterone
  • progesterone
  • pregnanetriol

Question 15

Question
Blood PCO2 may be measured by:
Answer
  • direct colorimetric measurement of dissolved C02
  • calculations of blood pH and total CO2 concentration
  • measurement of C02-saturated hemoglobin
  • measurement of CO2 consumed at the cathode

Question 16

Question
In the potentiometric measurement of hydrogen ion concentration, reference electrodes that may be used include:
Answer
  • silver-silver chloride
  • quinhydrone
  • hydroxide
  • hydrogen

Question 17

Question
The osmolality of a urine or serum specimen is measured by a change in the:
Answer
  • freezing point
  • sediment point
  • midpoint
  • osmotic pressure

Question 18

Question
In a spectrophotometer, light of a specific wavelength can be isolated from white light with
Answer
  • double beam
  • diffraction grating
  • aperture
  • slit

Question 19

Question
Which of the following is unstable if a blood specimen is left standing at room temp. for 8 hours before processing?
Answer
  • cholesterol
  • triglyceride
  • creatinine
  • glucose

Question 20

Question
A urine screening test for porphobilinogen is positive The MC)~T likely disease state is'
Answer
  • lead poisoning
  • porphyria cutanea tarda
  • acute porphyria attack
  • erythrocytic protoporphyria

Question 21

Question
in electrophoretic analysis buffers
Answer
  • stabilize electrolytes
  • maintain basic pH
  • act as a carrier for ions
  • produce an effect on protein configuration

Question 22

Question
A condition in which erythrocyte protoporphyrin is increased is:
Answer
  • a. acute intermittent porphyria
  • b. iron deficiency anemia
  • c. porphyria cutanea tarda
  • d. acute porphyric attack

Question 23

Question
The stimulant that causes localized sweating for the sweat test is:
Answer
  • a. polyvinyl alcohol
  • b. lithium sulfate
  • c. potassium sulfate
  • d. pilocarpine nitrate

Question 24

Question
In the sweat test, the sweating stimulant is introduced to the skin by application of:
Answer
  • a. filter paper moistened with pilocarpine nitrate
  • b. an electric current
  • c. copper electrodes
  • d. filter paper moistened in deionized water

Question 25

Question
The formula for calculating serum osmolality that incorporates a correction for the water content of plasma is:
Answer
  • a. 2 Na x (GlucoseI2O) x (BUN/3) ½
  • b. Na + [(2 x Glucose)/20] x (BUN/3)
  • c. 2 Na + Glucose/20 + (BUN/3)
  • d. 2 Na + Glucose/3 + (BUN/20)

Question 26

Question
Osmolal gap is the difference between:
Answer
  • a. ideal and real osmolality values
  • b. calculated and measured osmolality values
  • c. plasma and water osmolality values
  • d. molality and molarity at 40C

Question 27

Question
Erroneous ammonia levels can be eliminated by all of the following EXCEPT:
Answer
  • a. ensuring water and reagents are ammonia-free
  • b. separating plasma from cells and performing test analysis as soon as possible
  • c. drawing the specimen in a pre-chilled tube and immersing the tube in ice
  • d. storing the specimen protected from light until the analysis is done

Question 28

Question
Which of the following applies to cryoscopic osmometry?
Answer
  • a. temperature at equilibrium is a function of the number of particles in solution.
  • b. temperature plateau for a solution is horizontal.
  • c. freezing point of a sample is absolute.
  • d. initial freezing of a sample produces an immediate solid state.

Question 29

Question
The first step to be taken when attempting to repair a piece of electronic equipment is:
Answer
  • a. check all the electronic connections
  • b. reseat all the printed circuit boards
  • c. turn the instrument off
  • d. replace all the fuses

Question 30

Question
Most of the carbon dioxide present in blood is in the form of:
Answer
  • a. dissolved C02
  • b. carbonate
  • c. bicarbonate ion
  • d. carbonic acid

Question 31

Question
The degree to which the kidney concentrates the glomerular filtrate can be determined by:
Answer
  • urine creatine
  • serum creatinine
  • creatinine clearance
  • urine to serum osmolality ratio

Question 32

Question
How many grams of sulfosalicylic acid (MW = 254) are required to prepare 1 L of a 3% (w/v) solution?
Answer
  • 3
  • 30
  • 254
  • 300

Question 33

Question
A physician suspects his patient has pancreatitis. Which test(s) would be most indicative of this disease?
Answer
  • creatinine
  • LD isoenzymes
  • hydroxybutyrate
  • amylase

Question 34

Question
The statistical term for the average value is the:
Answer
  • mode
  • median
  • mean
  • coefficient of variation

Question 35

Question
An index of precision is statistically known as the:
Answer
  • median
  • mean
  • standard deviation
  • coefficient of variation

Question 36

Question
The most frequent value in a collection of data is statistically known as the:
Answer
  • mode
  • median
  • mean
  • standard deviation

Question 37

Question
The middle value of a data set is statistically known as the:
Answer
  • mean
  • median
  • mode
  • standard deviation

Question 38

Question
In a specimen collected for plasma glucose analysis, sodium fluoride:
Answer
  • serves as a coenzyme of hexokinase
  • prevents reactivity of non-glucose reducing substances
  • precipitates proteins
  • inhibits glycolysis

Question 39

Question
In the international system of units serum urea is expressed in millimoles per liter. A serum urea nitrogen concentration of 28 mg/dL would be equivalent to what concentration of urea? (Urea: NH2CONH2; atomic wt N = 14, C = 12, 0= 16, H = 1)
Answer
  • 4.7mEqIL
  • 5.0mEqIL
  • 10.0mEqIL
  • 20.0 mEqIL

Question 40

Question
The osmolal gap is defined as measured Osm/kg minus the calculated Osm/kg. The average osmolal gap is near:
Answer
  • 0
  • 2
  • 4
  • 6

Question 41

Question
To be analyzed by gas liquid chromatography, a compound must:
Answer
  • be volatile or made volatile
  • not be volatile
  • be water-soluble
  • contain a nitrogen atom

Question 42

Question
The solute that contributes the most to the total serum osmolality is:
Answer
  • glucose
  • sodium
  • chloride
  • urea

Question 43

Question
In automated methods utilizing a bichromatic analyzer, dual wavelengths are employed to:
Answer
  • minimize the effect of interference
  • improve precision
  • increase throughput
  • monitor temperature changes

Question 44

Question
Which of the following electrodes is based on the principle of amperometric measurement?
Answer
  • PCO2 electrode
  • P02 electrode
  • pH electrode
  • ionized calcium electrode

Question 45

Question
One international unit of enzyme activity is the amount of enzyme that, under specified reaction conditions of substrate concentration, pH, and temperature, causes utilization of substrate at the rate of:
Answer
  • 1 mole/min
  • 1 millimole/min
  • 1 micromole/min
  • 1 nanomole/min

Question 46

Question
The Porter-Silber method (phenylhydrazine in alcohol and sulfuric acid) involves which part of the steroid molecule?
Answer
  • ketone group
  • hydroxyl group
  • dihydroxyacetone side chain
  • steroid ring

Question 47

Question
Which family of steroid hormones is characterized by an unsaturated A ring?
Answer
  • progestins
  • estrogens
  • androgens
  • glucocorticoids

Question 48

Question
Which of the following statements about immunoassays using enzyme-labeled antibodies or antigens is correct?
Answer
  • Inactivation of the enzyme is required.
  • The enzyme label is less stable than an isotopic label.
  • Quantitation of the label can be carried out with a spectrophotometer.
  • The enzyme label is not an enzyme found naturally in serum.

Question 49

Question
Which of the following chemical determinations may be of help in establishing the presence of seminal fluid?
Answer
  • lactic dehydrogenase (LD)
  • isocitrate dehydrogenase (ICD)
  • acid phosphatase
  • alkaline phosphatase

Question 50

Question
Which of the following serum protein fractions is most likely to be elevated in patients with nephrotic syndrome?
Answer
  • alpha-I globulin
  • alpha-I globulin and alpha-2 globulin
  • alpha-2 globulin and beta globulin
  • beta globulin and gamma globulin

Question 51

Question
Which of the following enzyme substrates for prostatic acid phosphatase results in the highest specificity?
Answer
  • phenyl-phosphate
  • thymolphthalein monophosphate
  • alpha-naphthyl-phosphate
  • beta-glycerophosphate

Question 52

Question
The following laboratory results were obtained on arterial blood: Sodium l36mEq/L pH 7.32 Potassium 4.4 mEq/L PCO~ 79 mm Hg Chloride 92 mEq/L Bicarbonate 40 mEq/L These results are most compatible with:
Answer
  • a. respiratory alkalosis
  • b. respiratory acidosis
  • c. metabolic alkalosis
  • d. metabolic acidosis

Question 53

Question
Increased total serum lactic dehydrogenase activity, confined to fractions 4 and 5, is most likely associated with:
Answer
  • a. pulmonary infarction
  • b. hemolytic anemia
  • c. myocardial infarction
  • d. acute viral hepatitis

Question 54

Question
Regan isoenzyme has the same properties as alkaline phosphatase that originates in the:
Answer
  • skeleton
  • kidney
  • intestine
  • placenta

Question 55

Question
Assay of transketolase activity in blood is used to detect deficiency OL
Answer
  • thiamine
  • b. folic acid
  • c. ascorbic acid
  • d. riboflavin

Question 56

Question
The substance that is measured to estimate the serum concentration of triglycerides by MOST methods is:
Answer
  • a. phospholipids
  • b. glycerol
  • c. fatty acids
  • d. pre-beta lipoprotein

Question 57

Question
The most Sensitive enzymatic indicator for liver damage from ethanol intake is:
Answer
  • a. alanine aminotransferase (ALT)
  • b. aspartate aminotransferase (AST)
  • c. gamma-glutamyl transferase (GGT)
  • d. alkaline phosphatase

Question 58

Question
Refer to the following illustration: Patient Values Reference Values Total Protein 7.3 g/dL 6.0-8.0 g/dL Albumin 4.2 g/dL 3.6-5.2 g/dL Alpha-1 0.0 g/dL 0.1-0.4 g/dL Alpha-2 0.9 g/dL 0.4-1.0 g/dL Beta 0.8 g/dL 0.5-1.2 g/dL Gamma 1.4g/dL 0.6-1.6g/dL This electrophoresis pattern is consistent with:
Answer
  • cirrhosis
  • b. monoclonal gammopathy
  • c. polyclonal gammopathy (eg, chronic inflammation)
  • d. alpha-l antitrypsin deficiency; severe emphysema

Question 59

Question
Patients with Cushing's syndrome exhibit:
Answer
  • a. decreased plasma 17-hydroxysteroid concentration
  • b. decreased urinary 17-hydroxysteroid excretion
  • c. serum cortisol concentrations greater than 15 mg/dL
  • d. decreased cortisol secretory rate

Question 60

Question
60. A one molal solution is equivalent to:
Answer
  • a. a solution containing one mole of solute per kg of solvent
  • b. 1000 mL of solution containing one mole of solute
  • c. a solution containing one gram-equivalent weight of solute in one liter of solution
  • d. a 1-L solution containing 2 moles of solute

Question 61

Question
Refer to the following illustration: Patient Values Reference Values Total Protein 8.9 g/dL 6.0-8.0 g,dL Albumin 4.8 g/dL 3.6-5.2 g/dL Alpha-1 0.3 g/dL 0.1-0.4 g/dL Alpha-2 0.7 g/dL 0.4-1.0 g/dL Beta 0.8 g/dL 0.5-1.2 g/dL Gamma 2.3 g/dL 0.6-1.6 g/dL The serum protein electrophoresis pattern is consistent with:
Answer
  • a. cirrhosis
  • b. acute inflammation
  • c. monoclonal gammopathy
  • d. polyclonal gammopathy (eg, chronic inflammation)

Question 62

Question
Refer to the following pattern: Patient Values Reference Values Total Protein 6.1g/dL 6.0-8.0g/dL Albumin 2.3 g/dL 3-5.2 g/dL Alpha-1 0.2 g/dL 0.1-0.4 g/dL Alpha-2 0.5 g/dL 0-1.0 g/dL Beta 1.2g/dL 0.5-l.2g/dL Gamma l.9g/dL 0-1.6g/dL This pattern is consistent with:
Answer
  • a. cirrhosis
  • b. acute inflammation
  • c. polyclonal gammopathy (eg, chronic inflammation)
  • d. alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency; severe emphysema

Question 63

Question
63. Given the following results: Alkaline phosphatase Slight increase Alanine transferase. Marked increase Aspartate transferase Marked increase Gamma-glutamyl transferase. Slight increase This is most consistent with:
Answer
  • a. acute hepatitis
  • b. chronic hepatitis
  • c. obstructive jaundice
  • d. liver hemangioma

Question 64

Question
Given the following results: Alkaline phosphatase Marked increase Alanine transferase Slight increase Aspartate aminotransferase Slight increase Gamma-glutamyl transferase Marked increase This is most consistent with:
Answer
  • a. acute hepatitis
  • b. osteitis fibrosa
  • c. chronic hepatitis
  • d. obstructive jaundice

Question 65

Question
Given the following results: Alkaline phosphatase Slight increase Alanine transferase Slight increase Aspartate aminotransferase Slight increase Gamma-glutamyl transferase Slight increase This is most consistent with:
Answer
  • a. acute hepatitis
  • b. chronic hepatitis
  • c. obstructive jaundice
  • d. liver hemangioma

Question 66

Question
66. Which of the following statements about fluorometry are true?
Answer
  • a. A compound is said to fluoresce when it absorbs light at one wavelength and emits light at a second wavelength.
  • b. Detectors in fluorometers are placed 1800 from the excitation source.
  • c. It is less sensitive than spectrophotometry.
  • d. It avoids the necessity for complexing of components because fluorescence is a native property.

Question 67

Question
A benefit of microassays includes:
Answer
  • a. increased analytical reliability
  • b. reduced reagent requirements
  • c. increased diagnostic specificity
  • d. reduced numbers of repeated tests

Question 68

Question
Refer to the following illustration: This illustration represents the change in absorbance at 340 nm over a period of 8 minutes in an assay for lactate dehydrogenase. True statements about this figure include:
Answer
  • The reaction follows zero order kinetics between 5 and 8 minutes.
  • The reaction is proceeding from lactate to pyruvate.
  • Non-linearity after 6 minutes is due to substrate exhaustion
  • The change in absorbance is due to reduction of NAD to NADH.

Question 69

Question
A serum sample drawn in the emergency room from a 42-year-old man yielded the follow¬ing laboratory results: CK 185 Units (Normal = 15-160) AST 123 Units (Normal = 0-48) CK-MB 6 Units (Normal = 2-12) Which of the following conditions might account for these values?
Answer
  • crush injury to the thigh
  • cerebrovascular accident
  • pulmonary inhrction
  • early acute hepatitis

Question 70

Question
In competitive inhibition of an enzyme reaction the:
Answer
  • inhibitor binds to the enzyme at the same site as the substrate
  • inhibitor often has a chemical structure different from that of the substrate
  • activity of the reaction can be decreased by increasing the concentration of the substrate
  • activity of the reaction can be increased by decreasing the temperature

Question 71

Question
Kernicterus is an abnormal accumulation of bilirubin in:
Answer
  • heart tissue
  • brain tissue
  • liver tissue
  • kidney tissue

Question 72

Question
Two standard deviations is the acceptable limit of error in the chemistry laboratory. If you run the normal control 100 times, how many of the values would be out of control due to random error?
Answer
  • 1
  • 5
  • 10
  • 20

Question 73

Question
Serum haptoglobin:
Answer
  • is decreased in patients with tissue injury and neoplasia
  • is increased in patients with prosthetic heart valves
  • can be separated into distinct phenotypes by starch-gel electrophoresis
  • binds heme

Question 74

Question
Which of the following serum proteins migrates with the beta-globulins on cellulose acetate at pH 8.6?
Answer
  • ceruloplasmin
  • hemoglobin
  • haptoglobin
  • C3 component of complement

Question 75

Question
Fasting serum phosphate concentration is controlled primarily by the:
Answer
  • pancreas
  • skeleton
  • parathyroid glands
  • small intestine

Question 76

Question
Serum “anion gap" is increased in patients with:
Answer
  • renal tubular acidosis
  • diabetic alkalosis
  • metabolic acidosis due to diarrhea
  • lactic acidosis

Question 77

Question
Increased serum lactic dehydrogenase activity due to elevation of fast fraction (1 and 2) on electrophoretic separation is caused by:
Answer
  • nephrotic syndrome
  • hemolytic
  • pancreatitis
  • hepatic damage

Question 78

Question
The nanometer is used as a measure of:
Answer
  • a. absorbance
  • b. % transmittance
  • c. intensity of radiant energy
  • d. wavelength of radiant energy

Question 79

Question
Major actions of angiotensin II include:
Answer
  • a. increased pituitary secretion of renin
  • b. increased vasoconstriction
  • c. increased parathyroid hormone secretion by the parathyroid
  • d. decreased adrenal secretion of aldosterone

Question 80

Question
The presence of increased CK- MB activity on a CK electrophoresis pattern is most likely found in a patient suffering from:
Answer
  • a. acute muscular stress following strenuous exercise
  • b. malignant liver disease
  • c. myocardial infarction
  • d. severe head injury

Question 81

Question
What is the molarity of a solution that contains 18.7 g of KCl (MW 74.5) in 500 mL of water?
Answer
  • 0.1
  • 0.5
  • 1.0
  • 5.0

Question 82

Question
In the total bilirubin assay, bilirubin reacts with diazotized sulfanilic acid to form:
Answer
  • diazo bilirubin
  • biliverdin
  • azobilirubin
  • bilirubin glucuronide

Question 83

Question
Total glycosylated hemoglobin levels in a hemolysate reflect the:
Answer
  • a. average blood glucose levels of the past 2-3 months
  • b. average blood glucose levels for the past week
  • c. blood glucose level at the time the sample is drawn
  • d. hemoglobin A1C level at the time the sample is drawn

Question 84

Question
The identification of Bence Jones protein is best accomplished by:
Answer
  • a. a sulfosalicylic acid test
  • b. urine reagent strips
  • c. immunofixation
  • d. electrophoresis

Question 85

Question
The anion gap is useful for quality control of laboratory results for:
Answer
  • a. amino acids and proteins
  • b. blood gas analyses
  • c. sodium, potassium, chloride, and total C02
  • d. calcium, phosphorus, and magnesium

Question 86

Question
Which percentage of total serum calcium is nondiffusible protein bound?
Answer
  • a. 80%-90%
  • b. 51%-60%
  • c. 40%-50%
  • d. 10%-30%

Question 87

Question
The buffering capacity of blood is maintained by a reversible exchange process between bicarbonate and:
Answer
  • Sodium
  • potassium
  • calcium
  • chloride

Question 88

Question
Which of the following electrolytes is the chief plasma cation whose main function is main¬taining osmotic pressure?
Answer
  • Chloride
  • calcium
  • potassium
  • sodium

Question 89

Question
A reciprocal relationship exists between:
Answer
  • sodium and potassium
  • calcium and phosphorus
  • chloride and C02
  • calcium and magnesium

Question 90

Question
An assay calls for 0.1 mL serum, 5 mL of reagent and 4.9 mL of water. What is the serum dilution in the final solution?
Answer
  • 1:5
  • 1:10
  • 1:50
  • 1:100

Question 91

Question
At blood pH 7.40 what is the ratio between bicarbonate and carbonic acid?
Answer
  • 15:1
  • 20:1
  • 25:1
  • 30:1

Question 92

Question
The bicarbonate and carbonic acid ratio is calculated from an equation by:
Answer
  • a. Siggaard-Andersen
  • b. Gibbs-Donnan
  • c. Natelson
  • d. Henderson-Hasselbaich

Question 93

Question
Acidosis and alkalosis are best defined as fluctuations in blood pH and C02 content due to changes in:
Answer
  • a. Bohr's effect
  • b. 02 content
  • c. bicarbonate buffer
  • d. carbonic anhydrase

Question 94

Question
A common cause of respiratory alkalosis is:
Answer
  • a. vomiting
  • b. starvation
  • c. asthma
  • d. hyperventilation

Question 95

Question
Metabolic acidosis is described as a(n):
Answer
  • a. increase in CO2 content and PCO2 with a decreased pH
  • b. decrease in CO2 content with an increased pH
  • c. increase in CO2 with an increased pH
  • d. decrease in CO2 content and PCO2 with a decreased pH

Question 96

Question
Respiratory acidosis is described as a(n):
Answer
  • a. increase in CO2 content and PCO2 with a decreased pH
  • b. decrease in CO2 content with an increased pH
  • c. increase in CO2 content with an increased pH
  • d. decrease in CO2 content and PCO2 with a decreased pH

Question 97

Question
With a bicarbonate of 24 mEq/L and a carbonic acid of 1.2 mEq/L, calculate the pH
Answer
  • 7.28
  • 7.38
  • 7.40
  • 7.42

Question 98

Question
The normal range for the pH of arterial blood measured at 37ºC is:
Answer
  • a. 7.28-7.34
  • b. 7.33-7.37
  • c. 7.35-7.45
  • d. 7.45-7.50

Question 99

Question
Unless blood gas measurements are made immediately after sampling, in vitro glycolysis of the blood causes a:
Answer
  • a. rise in pH and PCO2
  • b. fall in pH and a rise in P02
  • c. rise in pH and fall in P02
  • d. fall in pH and a rise in PCO2

Question 100

Question
Hydrogen ion concentration (pH) in blood is usually determined by means of which of the following electrodes?
Answer
  • Silver
  • glass
  • platinum
  • platinum-lactate

Question 101

Question
In the immunoinhibition phase of the CK-MB procedure:
Answer
  • a. M subunit is inactivated
  • b. B subunit is inactivated
  • c. MB is inactivated
  • d. BB is inactivated

Question 102

Question
The conversion of glucose or other hexoses into lactate or pyruvate is called:
Answer
  • a. glycogenesis
  • b. glycogenolysis
  • c. gluconeogenesis
  • d. glycolysis

Question 103

Question
Different water content of erythrocytes and plasma makes true glucose concentrations in whole blood a function of :
Answer
  • a. hematocrit
  • b. leukocyte count
  • c. erythrocyte count
  • d. erythrocyte indices

Question 104

Question
In the fasting state, arterial and capillary blood glucose varies from the venous glucose by how many mg/dL?
Answer
  • a. 2 mg/dL higher
  • b. 5 mg/dL higher
  • c. 10mg/dL lower
  • d. 12mg/dL lower

Question 105

Question
Which of the following hemoglobins has glucose-6-phosphate on the amino-terminal valine of the beta chain?
Answer
  • S
  • C
  • A2
  • A1c

Question 106

Question
Increased concentrations of ascorbic acid inhibit chromogen production in which of the fol¬lowing glucose methods?
Answer
  • ferricyanide
  • ortho-toluidine
  • glucose oxidase (peroxidase)
  • hexokinase

Question 107

Question
The function of the major lipid components of the very low density lipoproteins (VLDL) js to transport:
Answer
  • a. cholesterol from peripheral cells to the liver
  • b. cholesterol and phospholipids to peripheral cells
  • c. exogenous triglycerides
  • d. endogenous triglycerides

Question 108

Question
The most widely used support medium for electrophoretic separation of lipoproteins is:
Answer
  • a. agar gel
  • b. starch gel
  • c. paper
  • d. agarose gel

Question 109

Question
A hospitalized patient is experiencing tetany. Which test should be ordered immediately?
Answer
  • a. calcium
  • b. phosphorus
  • c. BUN
  • d. glucose

Question 110

Question
Analysis of CSF for oligoclonal bands is used to screen for which of the following disease states?
Answer
  • a. multiple myeloma
  • b. multiple sclerosis
  • c. myasthenia gravis
  • d. von Willebrand's disease

Question 111

Question
Sixty to seventy-five percent of the plasma cholesterol is transported by:
Answer
  • a. chylomicrons
  • b. very low density lipoprotein
  • c. low density lipoprotein
  • d. high density lipoprotein

Question 112

Question
The major fraction of organic iodine in the circulation is in the form of:
Answer
  • a. thyroglobulin
  • b. thyroxine
  • c. triiodothyronine
  • d. diiodotyrosine

Question 113

Question
Measurement of total T4 by competitive protein binding or displacement is based on specific binding properties of:
Answer
  • a. thyroxine-binding prealbumin
  • b. albumin
  • c. thyroxine-binding globulin
  • d. thyroid-stimulating hormone

Question 114

Question
Which of the following methods employs a highly specific antibody to thyroxine?
Answer
  • a. total T4 by competitive protein binding
  • b. T4 by RIA
  • c. T4 by column
  • d. T4 by equilibrium dialysis

Question 115

Question
A mean value of 100 and a standard deviation of 1.8 mg/dL were obtained from a set of glucose measurements on a control solution. The 95% confidence interval in mg/dL would be:
Answer
  • a. 94.6-105.4
  • b. 96.4-103.6
  • c. 97.3-102.7
  • d. 98.2-101.8

Question 116

Question
The extent to which measurements agree with the true value of the quantity being measured is known as:
Answer
  • a. reliability
  • b. accuracy
  • c. reproducibility
  • d. precision

Question 117

Question
When myocardial infarction occurs, the first enzyme to become elevated is:
Answer
  • CK
  • LD
  • AST
  • ALT

Question 118

Question
In the assay of lactate dehydrogenase at 340 nm, using pyruvate as the substrate, one actually measures a:
Answer
  • a. decrease in pyruvate
  • b. decrease in NADH
  • c. increase in lactate
  • d. increase in NADH

Question 119

Question
In the Jaffe reaction, creatinine reacts with:
Answer
  • a. alkaline sulfasalazine solution to produce an orange-yellow complex
  • b. potassium iodide to form a reddish-purple complex
  • c. sodium nitroferricyanide to yield a reddish-brown color
  • d. alkaline picrate solution to yield an orange-red complex

Question 120

Question
Which of the following represents the end product of purine metabolism in humans?
Answer
  • a. AMP and GMP
  • b. DNA and RNA
  • c. allantoin
  • d. uric acid

Question 121

Question
In protein electrophoresis where the sample is placed in an electric field with a buffer of pH 8.6, all of the proteins:
Answer
  • a. have a positive charge
  • b. have a negative charge
  • c. are electrically neutral
  • d. migrate toward the cathode

Question 122

Question
Maple syrup urine disease is characterized by an increase in which of the following urinary amino acids?
Answer
  • a. phenylalanine
  • tyrosine
  • c. valine, leucine, and isoleucine
  • d. cystine and cysteine

Question 123

Question
The hemoglobin that is resistant to alkali (KOH) denaturation is:
Answer
  • A
  • A2
  • C
  • F

Question 124

Question
The parent substance in the biosynthesis of androgens and estrogens is:
Answer
  • a. cortisol
  • b. catecholamines
  • c. progesterone
  • d. cholesterol

Question 125

Question
The biologically most active, naturally occurring androgen is:
Answer
  • a. androstenedione
  • b. dehydroepiandrosterone
  • c. epiandrosterone
  • d. testosterone

Question 126

Question
A 24-hour urine specimen (total volume = 1136 m) is submitted to the laboratory for quantitative urine protein. Calculate the amount of protein excreted per day, if the total protein is 52 mg/dL.
Answer
  • a. 591 mg
  • b. 487 mg
  • c. 220mg
  • d. 282 mg

Question 127

Question
Which of the following is secreted by the placenta and used for the early detection of pregnancy?
Answer
  • a. follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
  • b. human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG)
  • c. luteinizing hormone (LH)
  • d. progesterone

Question 128

Question
Decreased serum iron associated with increased TIBC is compatible with which of the following disease states?
Answer
  • a. anemia of chronic infection
  • b. iron deficiency anemia
  • c. chronic liver disease
  • d. nephrosis

Question 129

Question
A characteristic of the Bence Jones protein that is used to distinguish it from other urinary proteins is its solubility:
Answer
  • a. in ammonium sulfate
  • b. in sulfuric acid
  • c. at 40ºC-60ºC
  • d. at 100ºC

Question 130

Question
130. Which of the following is an example of a peptide bond?
Answer

Question 131

Question
The principal excretory form of nitrogen is:
Answer
  • a. ammo acids
  • b. creatinine
  • c. urea
  • d. uric acid

Question 132

Question
A 45-year-old male of average height / weight was admitted for renal function studies with the following lab results: Urine creafinine 120 mgidL Serum creafinine 1.5 mg/dL Total urine volume in 24 hours 1 800/niL Calculate the creatinine clearance for this patient in mL/min.
Answer
  • 100
  • 144
  • 156
  • 225

Question 133

Question
In the determination of bilirubin. the reagent that is reacted with bilirubin to form azobilirubin is:
Answer
  • a. dilute sulfuric acid
  • b. diazonium sulfate
  • c. sulfobromophthalein
  • d. diazotized sulfanilic acid

Question 134

Question
Bile acid concentrations are useful to assess:
Answer
  • a. diabetes mellitus
  • b. hepatobiliary disease
  • c. intestinal malabsorption
  • d. kidney function

Question 135

Question
Which of the following enzymes catalyzes the conversion of starch to glucose and maltose?
Answer
  • a. malate dehydrogenase (MD)
  • b. amylase (AMS)
  • c. creatine kinase (CK)
  • d. isocitric dehydrogenase (ICD)

Question 136

Question
A scanning of a CK isoenzyme fractionation revealed two peaks: a slow cathodic peak (CK-MM) and an intermediate peak (CK-MB). A possible interpretation for this pattern is:
Answer
  • a. brain tumor
  • b. muscular dystrophy
  • c. myocardial infarction
  • d. viral hepatitis

Question 137

Question
Which of the following enzymes are used in the diagnosis of acute pancreatitis?
Answer
  • a. amylase and lipase
  • b. aspartate transferase and alanine transferase
  • c. 5'-nucleotidase and gamma-glutamyl transferase
  • d. aspartate aminotransferase and lactate dehydrogenase

Question 138

Question
Which of the following is a glycolytic enzyme that catalyzes the cleavage of fructose-1, 6-diphosphate to glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate and dihydroxyacetone phosphate?
Answer
  • a. aldolase
  • b. phosphofructokinase
  • c. pyruvate kinase
  • d. glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase

Question 139

Question
The greatest activities of serum AST and ALT are seen in:
Answer
  • a. acute hepatitis
  • b. primary biliary cirrhosis
  • c. metastatic hepatic carcinoma
  • d. alcoholic cirrhosis

Question 140

Question
An electrophoretic separation of lactate dehydrogenase isoenzymes that demonstrates an elevation in LD-1 and LD-2 in a “flipped" pattern is consistent with:
Answer
  • a. myocardial infarction
  • b. viral hepatitis
  • c. pancreatitis
  • d. renal failure

Question 141

Question
Which of the following is a characteristic shared by lactate dehydrogenase, malate dehydrogenase, isocitrate dehydrogenase, and hydroxybutyrate dehydrogenase?
Answer
  • a. They are liver enzymes.
  • b. They are cardiac enzymes.
  • c. They catalyze oxidation-reduction reactions.
  • d. They are class III enzymes.

Question 142

Question
The protein portion of an enzyme complex is called the:
Answer
  • a. apoenzyme
  • b. coenzyme
  • c. holoenzyme
  • d. proenzyme

Question 143

Question
The most heat labile fraction of alkaline phosphatase is obtained from:
Answer
  • liver
  • bone
  • intestine
  • placenta

Question 144

Question
Refer to the following illustration: Which of the following is the most likely interpretation of the LD isoenzyme scan illustrated above?
Answer
  • a. myocardial infarction
  • b. megaloblastic anemia
  • c. acute pancreatitis
  • d. viral hepatitis

Question 145

Question
Blood specimens for digoxin assays should be obtained between 8 hours or more after drug administration because:
Answer
  • a. tissue and serum levels need to reach equilibrium
  • b. serum digoxin concentration will be falsely low prior to 6 hours
  • c. all of the digoxin is in the cellular fraction prior to 6 hours
  • d. digoxin protein-binding interactions are minimal prior to 6 hours

Question 146

Question
Bioavailability of a drug refers to the:
Answer
  • a. availability for therapeutic administration
  • b. availability of the protein-bound fraction of the drug
  • c. drug transformation
  • d. the fraction of the drug absorbed into the systemic circulation

Question 147

Question
The cyclic antidepressants are classified as:
Answer
  • a. basic drugs
  • b. neutral drugs
  • c. acidic drugs
  • d. structurally cycloparaffinic

Question 148

Question
Zinc protoporphyrin or free erythrocyte protoporphyrin measurements are useful to assess blood concentrations of:
Answer
  • lead
  • mercury
  • arsenic
  • beryllium

Question 149

Question
Gas chromatography with a nitrogen/phosphorus detector is the most commonly used technique for analysis of:
Answer
  • digoxin
  • acetylsalicylic acid
  • ethyl alcohol
  • cyclic antidepressants

Question 150

Question
The most widely employed screening technique for drug abuse is:
Answer
  • a. high-performance liquid chromatography
  • b. gas-liquid chromatography
  • c. thin layer chromatography
  • d. UV spectrophotometry

Question 151

Question
Malic dehydrogenase is added to the aspartate transaminase reaction to catalyze the conversion of:
Answer
  • a. alpha-ketoglutarate to aspartate
  • b. alpha-ketoglutarate to malate
  • c. aspartate to oxalacetate
  • d. oxalacetate to malate

Question 152

Question
Phenobarbital is a metabolite of:
Answer
  • a. primidone
  • b. phenytoin
  • c. amobarbital
  • d. secobarbital

Question 153

Question
Increased serum albumin concentrations are seen in which of the following conditions?
Answer
  • a. nephrotic syndrome
  • b. acute hepatitis
  • c. chronic inflammation
  • d. dehydration

Question 154

Question
Which of the following amino acids is associated with a sulfhydryl group?
Answer
  • cysteine
  • glycine
  • serine
  • tyrosine

Question 155

Question
Beriberi is associated with deficiency of:
Answer
  • a. vitamin A
  • b. vitamin C
  • c. niacin
  • d. thiamine

Question 156

Question
Night blindness is associated with deficiency of which of the following vitamins?
Answer
  • A
  • C
  • Niacin
  • thiamine

Question 157

Question
Scurvy is associated with deficiency of which of the following vitamins?
Answer
  • A
  • C
  • Niacin
  • Thiamine

Question 158

Question
Pellagra is associated with deficiency of which of the following vitamins?
Answer
  • A
  • B1
  • Thiamine
  • Niacin

Question 159

Question
Rickets is associated with deficiency of which of the following vitamins?
Answer
  • B1
  • C
  • Niacin
  • D

Question 160

Question
The regulation of calcium and phosphorus metabolism is accomplished by which of the following glands?
Answer
  • a. thyroid
  • b parathyroid
  • c. adrenal glands
  • d. pituitary

Question 161

Question
Lithium therapy is widely used in the treatment of:
Answer
  • a. hypertension
  • b. hyperactivity
  • c. aggression
  • d. manic-depression

Question 162

Question
The anticonvulsant used to control tonic-clonic (grand mal) seizures is:
Answer
  • a. digoxin
  • b. acetaminophen
  • c. lithium
  • d. phenytoin

Question 163

Question
A drug that relaxes the smooth muscles of the bronchial passages is:
Answer
  • acetaminophen
  • lithium
  • phenytoin
  • theophylline

Question 164

Question
A cardiac glycoside that is used in the treatment of congenital heart failure and arrhythmias by increasing the force and velocity of myocardial contraction is:
Answer
  • digoxin
  • acetaminophen
  • lithium
  • phenytoin

Question 165

Question
A carbonate salt used to control manic-depressive disorders is:
Answer
  • digoxin
  • acetaminophen
  • lithium
  • phenytoin

Question 166

Question
In which of the following disease states is conjugated bilirubin a major serum component?
Answer
  • biliary obstruction
  • hemolysis
  • neonatal jaundice
  • erythroblastosis fetalis

Question 167

Question
Spectrophotometers isolate a narrow band pass by means of:
Answer
  • filters and prisms
  • prisms and grating
  • barrier layer cells and filters
  • gratings and lanier layer cells

Question 168

Question
Refer to the following illustration: The serum protein electrophoresis pattern shown below was obtained on cellulose acetate at pH 8.6. Identify the serum protein fraction on the far right of the illustration.
Answer
  • gamma globulin
  • albumin
  • alpha-1 globulin
  • alpha-2 globulin

Question 169

Question
The creatinine clearance (mL/min) is equal to:
Answer
  • urinary creatinine (mg/L)/[volume of urine (mL/ruin) x plasma creatinine (mg/L)]
  • [urinary creatinine (mg/L) x volume (mL/min)]/plasma creatinine (mg/L)
  • urinary creatinine (mg/L)/[volume of urine (mL/hour) x plasma creatinine (mg/L)]
  • [urinary creatinine (mg/L) x volume (mL/hour)]/plasma creatinine (mg/L)

Question 170

Question
A solution contains 20 g of solute dissolved in 0.5 L of water. What is the percentage of this solution?
Answer
  • 2%
  • 4%
  • 6%
  • 8%

Question 171

Question
Which of the following is the formula for calculating the unknown concentration based on Beer’s law (A=absorbance C=concentration)?
Answer
  • (A unknown/A standard) x C standard
  • C standard x A unknown
  • A standard x A unknown
  • (C standard)/(A standard) x I 00

Question 172

Question
Which of the following is the formula for calculating absorbance given the percent transmittance (%T) of a solution?
Answer
  • 1 – log of %%
  • log of %T/2
  • 2 x log of %T
  • 2 – log of %T

Question 173

Question
Which of the following is the formula for calculating the amount of moles of a chemical?
Answer
  • g/GMW
  • g x GMW
  • GMW/g
  • (g x l00)/GMW

Question 174

Question
How many milliliters of a 3% solution can be made if 6 g of solute are available?
Answer
  • 100 mL
  • 200 mL
  • 400 mL
  • 600 mL

Question 175

Question
Which of the following is the formula for calculating the gram equivalent weight of a chemical?
Answer
  • a. MW x oxidation number
  • b. MW/oxidation number
  • c. MW + oxidation number
  • d. MW - oxidation number

Question 176

Question
Which of the following is the formula for calculating the dilution of a solution (V=volume, C=concentration)?
Answer
  • a. V1 + C1 = V2 + C2
  • b. V1 + C2 = V2 + C1
  • c. V1 x C1 = V2 x C2
  • d. V1 x V2 = -V1 x C2

Question 177

Question
Which of the following is the Henderson-Hasselbach equation?
Answer
  • a. pKa = pH + log(acid/salt)
  • b. pKa = pH + log(salt/acid)
  • c. pH = pKa + log(acid/salt)
  • d. pH = pKa + log(salt/acid)

Question 178

Question
Which of the following is the formula for calculating a percent (w/v) solution?
Answer
  • a. grams of solute/volume of solvent x 100
  • b. grams of solute x volume of solvent x 100
  • c. volume of solvent/grams of solute x 100
  • d. (grams of solute x volume of solvent)/100

Question 179

Question
Which of the following is the formula for coefficient of variation?
Answer
  • (standard deviation x 100)/standard error
  • (mean x 100)/standard deviation
  • (standard deviation x 100)/mean
  • (variance x 100)/mean

Question 180

Question
Given the following values: 100 120 150 140 130 What is the mean?
Answer
  • a. 100
  • b. 128
  • c. 130
  • d. 640

Question 181

Question
Which of the following is the formula for arithmetic mean?
Answer
  • a. square root of the sum of values
  • b. sum of values x number of values
  • c. number of values/sum of values
  • d. sum of values/number of values

Question 182

Question
Which of the following is the formula for calculating the molarity of a solution?
Answer
  • a. number of moles of solute/L of solution
  • b. number of moles of solute x 100
  • c. 1 GEW of solute x 10
  • d. I GEW of solute/L of solution

Question 183

Question
The following results were obtained: Urine creatiinine 90 mg/100 mL Serum creatinine 0.90 mg/100 mL Patient's total body surface 1.73 m2 (average = 1.73 m2) Total urine volume in 24 hours 1500 mL Given the above data, calculate the patient's creatinine clearance in ni/mm.
Answer
  • a. 104
  • b. 124
  • c. 144
  • d. 150

Question 184

Question
25 g of NaOH (MW = 40) is added to 0.5 L of water. What is the molarity of this solution if an additional 0.25 L of water is added to this solution?
Answer
  • a. 0.25 M
  • b. 0.50 M
  • c. 0.75 M
  • d. 0.83 M

Question 185

Question
4 mL of water is added to 1 mL of serum. This represents which of the following serum dilutions?
Answer
  • a. 1:3
  • b. 1:4
  • c. 1:5
  • d. 1:6

Question 186

Question
80 g of NaOH (MW = 40) is how many gram-equivalents?
Answer
  • a. 1
  • b. 2
  • c. 3
  • d. 4

Question 187

Question
How many grams of H2S04 (MW = 98) are in 750 mL of 3 N H2SO4
Answer
  • a. 36 g
  • b. 72 g
  • c. 110 g
  • d. 146g

Question 188

Question
what is the normality of a solution that contains 280 g of NaOH (MW = 40) in 2000 mL of solution?
Answer
  • a. 3.5N
  • b. 5.5N
  • c. 7.0N
  • d. 8.0N

Question 189

Question
A serum potassium is 19.5 mg/l00 mL. This value is equal to how many mEq/L (MW of K=39)?
Answer
  • a. 3.9
  • b. 4.2
  • c. 5.0
  • d. 8.9

Question 190

Question
How many milliliters of 0.25 N NaOH are needed to make 100 mL of a 0.05 N solution of NaOH?
Answer
  • a. 5 mL
  • b. 10 mL
  • c. 15 mL
  • d. 20 mL

Question 191

Question
An arterial blood specimen submitted for blood gas analysis was obtained at 8:30 AM but was not received in the laboratory until 11:00 AM. The technologist should:
Answer
  • a. perform the test immediately upon receipt
  • b. perform the test only if the specimen was submitted in ice water
  • c. request a venous blood specimen
  • d. request a new arterial specimen be obtained

Question 192

Question
A potassium level of 6.8 Eq/L is obtained. Before reporting the results, the first step the technologist should take is to:
Answer
  • a. check the serum for hemolysis
  • b. rerun the test
  • c. check the age of the patient
  • d. do nothing, simply report the result

Question 193

Question
Specimens for blood gas determination should be drawn into a syringe containing:
Answer
  • a. no preservative
  • b. heparin
  • c. EDTA
  • d. oxalate

Question 194

Question
A patient has the following test results: Increased serum calcium levels Decreased serum phosphorus levels Increased levels of parathyroid hormone This patient most likely has:
Answer
  • a. hyperparathyroidism
  • b. hypoparathyroidism
  • c. nephrosis
  • d. steatorrhea

Question 195

Question
If the total bilirubin is 4.3 mg/dL and the conjugated bilirubin is 2.1 mg/dL, the unconjugated bilirubin is:
Answer
  • 1.1 mg/dL
  • 2.2 mg/dL
  • 4.2 mg/dL
  • 6.3 mg/dL

Question 196

Question
The measurement of light scattered by particles in the sample is the principle of:
Answer
  • a. spectrophotometry
  • b. fluorometry
  • c. nephelometry
  • d. atomic absorption

Question 197

Question
The measurement of the amount of electricity passing between two electrodes in an electrochemical cell is the principle of:
Answer
  • a. electrophoresis
  • b. amperometry
  • c. nephelometry
  • d. coulometry

Question 198

Question
Coulometry is used to measure:
Answer
  • a. chloride
  • b. pH
  • c. bicarbonate
  • d. ammonia

Question 199

Question
Which of the following lipid results would be expected to be falsely elevated on a serum specimen from a nonfasting patient?
Answer
  • a. cholesterol
  • b. triglyceride
  • c. HDL
  • d. LDL

Question 200

Question
Turbidity in serum suggests elevation of:
Answer
  • a. cholesterol
  • b. total protein
  • c. chylomicrons
  • d. albumin
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