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Semester 1 NMS Quiz

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Question 1

Question
In most cases in the sympathetic nervous system, Acetylcholine is the pre-ganglionic neurotransmitter and Noradrenaline is the post-ganglionic neurotransmitter.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 2

Question
Pre-ganglionic neurones are longer in the sympathetic nervous system when compared to the parasympathetic nervous system.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 3

Question
What unique features does the sympathetic nervous system contain that is absent in the parasympathetic nervous system?
Answer
  • Sympathetic chain
  • Unmyelinated neurones
  • Plexuses

Question 4

Question
The motor components of the somatic nervous system contain pre and post ganglionic components after exit from the spinal cord.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 5

Question
Acetylcholine causes the adrenal medulla to secrete what substance? What is this type of interaction known as?
Answer
  • Adrenaline
  • VIP
  • Nitric Oxide
  • Neuro-endocrine interface
  • Endocrine interface
  • Autonomic interface

Question 6

Question
What is the main neurotransmitter at post-ganglionic sympathetic fibres?
Answer
  • Glutamate
  • Noradrenaline
  • Acetylcholine
  • VIP

Question 7

Question
Anticholinesterases are useful in treating myasthenia gravis. Why?
Answer
  • They prolong the time that acetylcholine is present in the synaptic cleft and increases its number, thereby allowing acetylcholine to outcompete with antibodies for the binding site and allow normal contractions to occur, relieving the symptoms of M.G.
  • They prolong the time that noradrenaline is present in the synaptic cleft and increases its number, thereby allowing noradrenaline to outcompete with antibodies for the binding site and allow normal contractions to occur, relieving the symptoms of M.G.
  • They decrease the time that acetylcholine is present in the synaptic cleft and increases its number, thereby allowing acetylcholine to outcompete with antibodies for the binding site and allow normal contractions to occur, relieving the symptoms of M.G.

Question 8

Question
Which are examples of non-depolarising blockers?
Answer
  • Tubocurarine
  • Pancuronium
  • Suxamethonium
  • Hexamethonium

Question 9

Question
What is an example of a depolarising neuromuscular blocker?
Answer
  • Suxamethonium
  • Tubocurarine
  • Pancuronium
  • Hexamethonium

Question 10

Question
What is an example of a non-competitive antagonist of nicotinic receptors?
Answer
  • Hexamethonium
  • Suxamethonium
  • Tubocurarine
  • Pancuronium

Question 11

Question
What is an example of a muscarinic receptor antagonist?
Answer
  • Atropine
  • Tropicamide
  • Acetylcholine
  • Pilocarpine

Question 12

Question
The myenteric plexus is located between which two layers of the GI tract?
Answer
  • Circular muscle
  • Longitudinal muscle
  • Submucosa
  • Mucosa

Question 13

Question
The submucosal plexus is located between which two layers?
Answer
  • Submucosa
  • Circular muscle
  • Longitudinal muscle
  • Mucosa

Question 14

Question
The myenteric plexus is present throughout the GI tract
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 15

Question
In general, the submucosal plexus controls muscular activity.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 16

Question
What is the mechanism of action of botulinum toxin?
Answer
  • Proteases cleave the SNARE complex that mediates exocytosis of neurotransmitter
  • Competitive antagonist at the nicotinic acetylcholine receptors
  • Non-competitive antagonist at the nicotonic acetylcholine receptor
  • Depolarising blocker of the neuromuscular junction

Question 17

Question
Anticholinesterases exhibit suxamethonium-like properties when used in excess.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 18

Question
Why does calcium aid in synaptic transmission?
Answer
  • Calcium causes a conformational change in synaptotagmin which causes acetylcholine to fuse with the presynaptic membrane.
  • Calcium causes a conformational change in ryanodine which causes acetylcholine to fuse with the presynaptic membrane.

Question 19

Question
If the end plate potential in a muscle cell exceeds threshold, what happens?
Answer
  • Muscle contraction
  • Action potential produced
  • Release of acetylcholine by exocytosis

Question 20

Question
When an action potential travels along a T-tubule to a muscle triad, what series of events occur?
Answer
  • Action potential causes conformational shape change of the DHP receptor. This receptor then causes unplugging of ryanodine from the sarcoplasmic reticulum. This causes mass efflux of calcium ions from the sarcoplasmic reticulum and subsequent triggering of contraction.
  • Action potential causes conformational shape change of the DHP receptor. This receptor then causes mass efflux of calcium ions from the sarcoplasmic reticulum and subsequent triggering of contraction.
  • Action potential causes conformational shape change of the DNP receptor. This receptor then causes unplugging of synaptotagmin from the sarcoplasmic reticulum. This causes mass efflux of calcium ions from the sarcoplasmic reticulum and subsequent triggering of contraction.
  • Action potential causes conformational shape change of the DHP receptor. This receptor then causes unplugging of ryanodine from the sarcoplasmic reticulum. This causes mass efflux of sodium ions from the sarcoplasmic reticulum and subsequent triggering of contraction.

Question 21

Question
What regulatory proteins does actin have associated with it?
Answer
  • Tropomyosin
  • Troponin
  • Tropocollagen
  • Tropoelastin

Question 22

Question
What is the role of calcium in muscle fibres?
Answer
  • To bind to troponin, causing a conformational change which exposes myosin head binding sites.
  • To bind to tropomyosin, causing a conformational change which exposes myosin head binding sites.
  • To bind to tropomyosin, causing a conformational change which exposes actin head binding sites.
  • To bind to troponin, causing a conformational change which exposes actin head binding sites.

Question 23

Question
Which is longer, the action potential or muscle contraction?
Answer
  • Action potential
  • Muscle contraction

Question 24

Question
What are the 3 energy systems of muscle contraction?
Answer
  • Phosphocreatine
  • Lactic acid
  • Oxidative phosphorylation
  • Substrate level phosphorylation
  • Hyaluronic acid
  • Glucuronic acid

Question 25

Question
Muscle contraction occurs in which order?
Answer
  • Cross-bridge attachment -> Power stroke, hydrolysing ATP via the ATPase capacity of the myosin head -> binding of ATP which breaks cross-bridge attachment -> hydrolysis of ATP which recocks the myosin head to its original position -> repeat
  • Cross-bridge attachment -> Power stroke, hydrolysing GTP via the GTPase capacity of the myosin head -> binding of GTP which breaks cross-bridge attachment -> hydrolysis of GTP which recocks the myosin head to its original position -> repeat
  • Cross-bridge detachment-> Power stroke, hydrolysing ATP via the ATPase capacity of the myosin head -> binding of ATP which causes cross-bridge attachment -> hydrolysis of ATP which recocks the myosin head to its original position -> repeat

Question 26

Question
Do slow twitch fibres or fast twitch fibres produce greater force?
Answer
  • Slow twitch
  • Fast twitch

Question 27

Question
Which type of muscle fibre generally fatigues quicker?
Answer
  • Fast twitch
  • Slow twitch

Question 28

Question
The spinal cord exists from?
Answer
  • C1 -> L2
  • C1 -> L1
  • C1 -> T10
  • C1 -> S3

Question 29

Question
How many spinal nerves are there, and how many are there for each section of the spinal cord?
Answer
  • 31 - 8 cervical, 12 thoracic, 5 lumbar, 5 sacral, 1 coccygeal pair
  • 31 - 6 cervical, 12 thoracic, 6 lumbar, 6 sacral, 1 coccygeal pair
  • 30 - 7 cervical, 14 thoracic, 3 lumbar, 5 sacral, 1 coccygeal pair
  • 27 - 8 cervical, 12 thoracic, 5 lumbar, 5 sacral, 1 coccygeal pair

Question 30

Question
Why do the first 7 cervical nerves begin above the cervical vertebrae but the thoracic spinal nerves begin below the thoracic sections of the spinal cord?
Answer
  • There are 8 cervical spinal nerves but only 7 cervical vertebrae therefore the thoracic spinal nerves are 'displaced' and run below each thoracic vertebrae piece.
  • There are 6 cervical spinal nerves and 7 cervical vertebrae so the thoracic spinal nerves are 'displaced' and run below each thoracic vertebrae piece.

Question 31

Question
The meninges of the nervous system run in what order from inside to outside?
Answer
  • PAD
  • DAP
  • PDA
  • DPA

Question 32

Question
What is a dermatome?
Answer
  • An area of skin with single spinal nerve innervation
  • An area of skin with dual spinal nerve innervation
  • An area of muscle with single spinal nerve innervation
  • An area of muscle with dual spinal nerve innervation

Question 33

Question
What is a myotome?
Answer
  • An area of muscle with single spinal nerve innervation
  • An area of muscle with dual spinal nerve innervation
  • An area of skin with single spinal nerve innervation
  • An area of skin with dual spinal nerve innervation

Question 34

Question
Conditions such as shingles do not show the usefulness of dermatomes.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 35

Question
Sulci are the depressions in the brain structure.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 36

Question
Gyri are the ridges in the brain.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 37

Question
Upper motor neurones are found where?
Answer
  • Brain
  • Spinal cord

Question 38

Question
In the context of motor units, a graded force describes what?
Answer
  • The amount of motor unit recruitment needed. If it is a large force then fast-twitch elements are recruited. If it is a small force then slow-twitch elements are recruited.
  • The amount of motor unit recruitment needed. If it is a small force then fast-twitch elements are recruited. If it is a large force then slow-twitch elements are recruited.

Question 39

Question
Recruitment of motor units describes what?
Answer
  • The number of motor units firing, specifically an increase.
  • The frequency of motor units firing, specifically an increase.
  • The number of motor units firing, specifically a decrease.
  • The frequency of motor units firing, specifically a decrease.

Question 40

Question
Rate coding describes what?
Answer
  • The frequency of motor units firing, specifically an increase.
  • The number of motor units firing, specifically an increase.
  • The frequency of motor units firing, specifically a decrease.
  • The number of motor units firing, specifically a decrease.

Question 41

Question
Contractile force is proportional to what?
Answer
  • Cross-bridge number
  • Force produced by cross-bridges
  • Velocity produced by cross-bridges
  • Number of ATP molecules
  • Force produced by Troponin conformation change
  • Force produced by Tropomyosin conformation change

Question 42

Question
Slow-twitch fibres produce less force but over a longer period of time. Fast-twitch fibres produce more force but over a shorter period of time.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 43

Question
Neurogenic and Myopathic motor unit diseases have what common symptoms?
Answer
  • Weakness
  • Wasting
  • Muscle mass increase
  • Absence of fasciculations

Question 44

Question
ALS affects what part of the motor neuron?
Answer
  • Cell body
  • Axon

Question 45

Question
Peripheral neuropathies typically affect which part of the motor neuron?
Answer
  • Cell body
  • Axon

Question 46

Question
What is responsible for DMD?
Answer
  • A fault in dystrophin - a vital part of a protein complex that anchors the cytoskeleton of a muscle fibre to the ECM through the cell membrane
  • A fault in collagen - a vital part of a protein complex that anchors the cytoskeleton of a muscle fibre to the ECM through the cell membrane
  • A fault in elastin - a vital part of a protein complex that anchors the cytoskeleton of a muscle fibre to the ECM through the cell membrane

Question 47

Question
What plasma indicator shows signs of DMD muscle damage?
Answer
  • High creatine kinase levels in the serum - should be only intracellular.
  • Low creatine kinase levels in the serum - should be only intravascular.
  • High plasma protein binding
  • Low plasma protein binding

Question 48

Question
Dermatomyositis is a condition characterised by what?
Answer
  • Inflammation and visible rashes, with atrophy of muscle fibres.
  • Inflammation and visible rashes, with hypertrophy of muscle fibres.

Question 49

Question
Efficacy of a drug means?
Answer
  • The ability of a drug to produce a response
  • The likelihood of a drug binding to a receptor
  • The mechanism by which the drug acts
  • The permeability of the drug to the plasma membrane

Question 50

Question
What is meant by an inverse agonist?
Answer
  • A drug that decreases activity of the agonist and produces the opposite response to the agonist.
  • A drug that produces the same response as the agonist but with higher efficacy.

Question 51

Question
What is meant by allosteric inhibition? What is an example and it's subsequent mechanism?
Answer
  • Binding of a drug to a site other than the agonist binding site.
  • Binding of a drug to the same site as the agonist binding site.
  • Benzodiazepam - binds to an alternative site on GABA receptors. This causes a conformational change and creates higher affinity for GABA to bind to the receptor. This therefore increases the inhibitory effect that GABA provides, making users feel drowsy.
  • Benzodiazepam - binds to an alternative site on GABA receptors. This causes a conformational change and creates lower affinity for GABA to bind to the receptor. This therefore decreases the inhibitory effect that GABA provides, making users feel more alert.

Question 52

Question
The body can become desensitised to drugs. For example intake of tobacco which contains nicotine can cause inactivation of nAchR in very high doses.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 53

Question
RMP is primarily maintained at -65mV to -70mV by?
Answer
  • The permeability of the membrane to potassium ions
  • Na+/K+ ATPase
  • The permeability of the membrane to sodium ions
  • None of the options

Question 54

Question
An action potential can be initiated in the absolute refractory period.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 55

Question
An action potential can be initiated in the relative refractory period.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 56

Question
Myelinated axons conduct action potentials faster.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 57

Question
The 'feet' of motor proteins possess what property that allows them to 'walk' along the cytoskeleton?
Answer
  • ATPase activity
  • GTPase activity
  • ATP supply
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