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Essential Life Sciences

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EMT-A (alberta)
Megan Holfeld
Quiz by Megan Holfeld, updated more than 1 year ago
Megan Holfeld
Created by Megan Holfeld over 8 years ago
50
1
0

Resource summary

Question 1

Question
Causes of hyperkalemia include:
Answer
  • Diabetic Ketoacidosis
  • Diabetes Insipidus
  • Administration of ventolin to asthmatic patients.
  • Myocardial Infarction
  • All of the above.

Question 2

Question
In adults, the epiphyses contain:
Answer
  • Red Marrow
  • Yellow Marrow
  • Salts
  • Minerals

Question 3

Question
Myoglobinuria can cause the following conditions:
Answer
  • Pulmonary Embolism
  • Congestive Heart Failure
  • Liver Cirrhosis
  • Renal Failure

Question 4

Question
Transformation is the process by which a normal cell becomes a cancer cell.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 5

Question
Glycolysis is an example of a __________.
Answer
  • Single Replacement Reaction
  • Double Replacement Reaction
  • Synthesis Reaction
  • Decomposition Reaction

Question 6

Question
Match the vertebral column region with the number of vertebrae within it: Thoracic [blank_start]12[blank_end] Sacrum [blank_start]5[blank_end] Coccyx [blank_start]4[blank_end] Cervical [blank_start]7[blank_end] Lumbar [blank_start]5[blank_end]
Answer
  • 12
  • 5
  • 4
  • 7
  • 12
  • 5
  • 4
  • 7
  • 5
  • 12
  • 4
  • 7
  • 7
  • 12
  • 5
  • 4
  • 5
  • 12
  • 4
  • 7

Question 7

Question
The normal pH in the human body is:
Answer
  • 7.40-7.50
  • 7.30-7.40
  • 7.35-7.45
  • 7.25-7.35

Question 8

Question
What type of cartilage is our skeletal system primarily made of during fetal development?
Answer
  • Articular
  • Hyaline
  • Fibrocartiage
  • Elastic

Question 9

Question
What percentage of our total body weight is made up of water?
Answer
  • 20-40
  • 80-90
  • 40-50
  • 60-80

Question 10

Question
Match the directional term with its correct description: Inferior - [blank_start]toward the lower part of a structure[blank_end] Transverse Section - [blank_start]divides into superior and inferior parts[blank_end] Medial - [blank_start]toward or at the midline of the body[blank_end] Superior - [blank_start]toward the upper part of a structure[blank_end] Sagittal Section - [blank_start]divides the body into right and left par[blank_end]ts
Answer
  • toward the lower part of a structure
  • divides into superior and inferior parts
  • toward or at the midline of the body
  • toward the upper part of a structure
  • divides the body into right and left par
  • divides into superior and inferior parts
  • toward the lower part of a structure
  • toward or at the midline of the body
  • toward the upper part of a structure
  • divides the body into right and left par
  • toward or at the midline of the body
  • toward the lower part of a structure
  • divides into superior and inferior parts
  • toward the upper part of a structure
  • divides the body into right and left
  • toward the upper part of a structure
  • divides the body into right and left
  • toward or at the midline of the body
  • divides into superior and inferior parts
  • toward the lower part of a structure
  • divides the body into right and left par
  • toward the lower part of a structure
  • divides into superior and inferior parts
  • toward or at the midline of the body
  • toward the upper part of a structure

Question 11

Question
A perforating canal in bone allows for the passage of blood vessels and nerves.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 12

Question
Anaplasia is defined as:
Answer
  • an increase in the number of cells
  • independence from normal cellular controls
  • the loss of differentiation
  • uncontrolled proliferation

Question 13

Question
The perimysium is connective tissue that wraps around a bundle of muscle fibers.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 14

Question
Which tissue type is avascular?
Answer
  • nervous
  • epithelial
  • muscle
  • connective

Question 15

Question
All cells have the following regions:
Answer
  • nucleus
  • cytoplasm
  • mitchondria
  • plasma membrane
  • all of the above
  • A, B, and D

Question 16

Question
The epiphyseal line is composed of hyaline cartilage in young, growing bone.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 17

Question
Which tissue does not form scar tissue during tissue regeneration?
Answer
  • brain
  • liver
  • lungs
  • heart

Question 18

Question
Skeletal muscle has which of the following characteristics?
Answer
  • striated
  • voluntary
  • one nucleus per cell
  • automaticity
  • A and B
  • A and C

Question 19

Question
The elbow is __________ to the shoulder.
Answer
  • lateral
  • distal
  • inferior
  • proximal

Question 20

Question
In a synthesis reaction, __________ for bond formation.
Answer
  • energy is released
  • ATP converts to ADP
  • energy is absorbed
  • no energy is required

Question 21

Question
How many ATP are created during aerobic respiration?
Answer
  • 2
  • 1
  • 36
  • 32

Question 22

Question
If the hydrogen ion concentration in the body rises too much, the respiratory system will compensate by:
Answer
  • No Change - but the kidneys will secrete hydrogen.
  • Decreasing Respirations
  • No Change - but the kidneys will reabsorb bicarbonate.
  • Increasing Respirations

Question 23

Question
You respond to an unresponsive patient with weak peripheral pulses. The patient has a history of drug abuse and is cyanotic with pinpoint pupils. The patient is breathing at 4-6/min. What type of acid-base imbalance might this patient likely have?
Answer
  • Resp acidosis
  • Resp alkalosis
  • Meta acidosis
  • Meta alkalosis

Question 24

Question
If homeostasis is disrupted within the body, what can happen?
Answer
  • trauma
  • nothing
  • illness and disease
  • illness and trauma

Question 25

Question
What is the name of the specialized plasma membrane that encloses a muscle cell?
Answer
  • sarcoplasmic reticulum
  • sarcomere
  • myofibril
  • sarcolemma

Question 26

Question
When the number of hydrogen ions in the body increases, pH __________.
Answer
  • remains unchanged
  • does not change as hydrogen ions do not influence pH
  • decreases
  • increases

Question 27

Question
A patient who has sustained a crush injury may present with signs and symptoms consistent with hypokalemia.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 28

Question
When ATP is broken down, __________ is released.
Answer
  • magnesium
  • energy
  • glucose
  • ADP

Question 29

Question
Severe hyperkalemia can cause life-threatening cardiac dysrhythmias.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 30

Question
The low specific heat capacity of water helps to maintain a consistent body temperature.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 31

Question
Match the description of nerve impulse transmission to the muscle cell in the order that it occurs. Sodium enters the muscle cell while potassium leaves. [blank_start]Step 4[blank_end] Acetylcholine is released into the synaptic cleft. [blank_start]Step 3[blank_end] Action potential reaches the axon terminal of the motor neuron. [blank_start]Step 1[blank_end] Calcium channels open and calcium enters the axon terminal. [blank_start]Step 2[blank_end]
Answer
  • 4
  • 1
  • 2
  • 3
  • 1
  • 2
  • 3
  • 4
  • 1
  • 2
  • 3
  • 4
  • 1
  • 2
  • 3
  • 4

Question 32

Question
Vesicular transport is a type of active transport.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 33

Question
The Carbonic Acid - Sodium Bicarbonate buffer system is the primary buffering system in the body.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 34

Question
Match the description with the order in which it occurs during fracture repair. Hematoma forms - [blank_start]1[blank_end] Fibrocartilage callus forms - [blank_start]2[blank_end] Bony callus forms - [blank_start]3[blank_end] Bone remodelling occurs - [blank_start]4[blank_end]
Answer
  • 1
  • 2
  • 3
  • 4
  • 2
  • 1
  • 3
  • 4
  • 3
  • 4
  • 1
  • 2
  • 4
  • 1
  • 2
  • 3

Question 35

Question
What treatment options can be explored for patients with OA?
Answer
  • beta agonists
  • antiemetics
  • immunosuppressants
  • anitinflammatories

Question 36

Question
Aldosterone is secreted from which gland?
Answer
  • thyroid
  • pancreas
  • pituitary
  • adrenals

Question 37

Question
Site of most cellular activities
Answer
  • cytosplasm
  • golgi apparatus
  • mitochondria
  • nucleus
  • ribosome
  • smooth endoplasmic reticulum

Question 38

Question
modifies and packages proteins
Answer
  • cytoplasm
  • golgi apparatus
  • mitochondria
  • nucleus
  • ribosome
  • smooth endoplasmic reticulum

Question 39

Question
Provides ATP for cellular energy
Answer
  • cytoplasm
  • golgi apparatus
  • mitochondria
  • nucleus
  • ribosome
  • SER

Question 40

Question
Site of ribosome assembly
Answer
  • cytoplasm
  • golgi apparatus
  • mitochondria
  • nucleus
  • ribosome
  • smooth ER

Question 41

Question
Site of protein synthesis
Answer
  • cytoplasm
  • golgi apparatus
  • mitchondria
  • nucleus
  • ribosome
  • smooth ER

Question 42

Question
Functions in lipid metabolism
Answer
  • cytoplasm
  • golgi apparatus
  • mitochondria
  • nucleus
  • ribosome
  • smooth ER

Question 43

Question
For how long will creatine phosphate sustain muscular contraction?
Answer
  • 1-2 sec
  • <15 sec
  • 4-6 sec
  • <20 sec

Question 44

Question
In the presence of dehydration, __________ promotes water retention.
Answer
  • calcitonin
  • insulin
  • aldosterone
  • ADH

Question 45

Question
Actin myofilaments are thin filaments.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 46

Question
ADP can be used as an alternative energy source whenever ATP is not readily available.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 47

Question
Osteomyelitis is difficult to treat because of a lack of understanding about this condition within the medical community.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 48

Question
The thorax has 9 pairs of true ribs.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 49

Question
Functions of bones include:
Answer
  • support
  • protection
  • storage
  • blood cell formation
  • all of the above

Question 50

Question
Rheumatoid Arthritis is classified as an inflammatory joint disease.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 51

Question
Water excess can be caused by:
Answer
  • renal failure
  • physical activity
  • CHF
  • diabetes insupidus
  • A and C

Question 52

Question
Proteins:
Answer
  • provide for construction material for body tissues
  • play a vital role in cell function
  • act as enzymes, hormones, and antibodies
  • all of the above
  • A and B only

Question 53

Question
RA is more common in women than it is men.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 54

Question
Match the cardiac structures with their description:
Image:
14fdd488-6867-4e2a-9097-4d7ba3324aa1 (image/png)
Answer
  • superior vena cava
  • right atrium
  • tricuspid valve
  • chordae tendineae
  • interventricular septum
  • left ventricle
  • aortic valve
  • pulmonary veins
  • pulmonary artery

Question 55

Question
When blood leaves the right side of the heart, it travels to the lungs where it becomes oxygenated.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 56

Question
The thickest layer of the heart is the ____________.
Answer
  • endocardium
  • myocardium
  • patietal pericardium
  • visceral pericardium

Question 57

Question
Veins differ from arteries in that they:
Answer
  • contain valves
  • have a larger lumen than arteries
  • have a thinner middle layer than arteries
  • all of the above
  • none of the above

Question 58

Question
Oxygen can easily diffuse into capillaries from the alveoli because:
Answer
  • Oxygen is moving from an area of high concentration to low concentration
  • Oxygen is moving from an area of low concentration to high concentration
  • ATP is utilized to facilitate the active transport of oxygen
  • Oxygen trades places with excess carbon dioxide

Question 59

Question
Atherosclerosis begins with injury to the inner walls of arteries. Causes of this injury may include:
Answer
  • smoking
  • hypertension
  • exercise
  • diabetes
  • A and B
  • A, B, and D

Question 60

Question
If a fibrous plaque ruptures in an area of atherosclerosis within a coronary artery, what will happen next?
Answer
  • That plaque will migrate to the lungs and cause a pulmonary embolism
  • Platelets will adhere to the injured area
  • Healing will begin and the atherosclerotic area will resolve itself
  • Scar tissue will immediately form

Question 61

Question
Which type of angina is typically relieved by rest?
Answer
  • Prinzmetal Angina
  • Stable Angina
  • Unstable Angina
  • All types of angina are relieved by rest

Question 62

Question
Prinzmetal angina is caused by:
Answer
  • vasospasm
  • occlusion
  • fat emboli
  • air emboli

Question 63

Question
Unstable angina can be a precursor to:
Answer
  • prinzmetal angina
  • myocardial infarction
  • occlusive stroke
  • hemorrhagic stroke

Question 64

Question
An EMT is able to provide the following treatments to a patient experiencing a myocardial infarction:
Answer
  • morphone
  • oxygen
  • ASA
  • nitroglycerine
  • B and C
  • B, C and D

Question 65

Question
A patient with a pericardial effusion that has progressed to pericardial tamponade will present with:
Answer
  • hypertension
  • bradycardia
  • JVD
  • hypotension
  • C and D
  • A, C and D

Question 66

Question
Pericardial tamponade can only result from bleeding within the pericardium.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 67

Question
Right heart failure is more common than left heart failure.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 68

Question
The most common cause of left heart failure is:
Answer
  • diabetes
  • hypertension
  • myocardial infarction
  • COPD

Question 69

Question
S/S of left heart failure include:
Answer
  • pulmonary edema
  • JVD
  • peripheral edema
  • dyspnea
  • A and D
  • all of the above

Question 70

Question
Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation is characterized by:
Answer
  • localized clotting and bleeding
  • systemic clotting and bleeding
  • localized bleeding
  • systemic clotting

Question 71

Question
Which of the following patients would be most prone to developing DIC?
Answer
  • A female patient who has severe postpartum hemorrhage after child birth
  • A patient who lacerated his forearm on a table saw
  • A male patient who sustained full thickness burns to his left arm
  • A patient who has an acute exacerbation of their asthma

Question 72

Question
Oxygen is attached to ____________ while it is transported in the blood.
Answer
  • hemoglobin
  • red blood cells
  • white blood cells
  • blood plasma

Question 73

Question
Carbon dioxide is transported as part of ____________ in the blood.
Answer
  • bicarbonate in plasma
  • leukocytes
  • erythrocytes
  • bicarbonate in hemoglobin

Question 74

Question
If the medulla oblongata detects an increase of carbon dioxide, respirations will increase in rate and depth.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 75

Question
Kussmaul respirations would be seen in a patient suffering from what medical emergency?
Answer
  • narcotic OD
  • diabetic ketoacidosis
  • cardiac chest pain
  • pleuritis

Question 76

Question
You respond to a 56 year old male patient complaining of substernal chest pain and shortness of breath. He is diaphoretic and has weak radial pulses. He indicates he had an MI 5 years ago and the pain he is experiencing now is identical to that when he had his past MI. Upon auscultation of his chest you hear decreased air entry with crackles throughout all lung fields. What is most likely causing this patient's shortness of breath and auscultated crackles?
Answer
  • emphysema
  • acute pulmonary edema
  • chronic bronchitis
  • asthma

Question 77

Question
You respond to a 56 year old male patient complaining of substernal chest pain and shortness of breath. He is diaphoretic and has weak radial pulses. He indicates he had an MI 5 years ago and the pain he is experiencing now is identical to that when he had his past MI. Upon auscultation of his chest you hear decreased air entry with crackles throughout all lung fields. Should oxygen be provided to this patient?
Answer
  • yes
  • no
  • maybe
  • more information is needed

Question 78

Question
Atelectasis can only be caused by the removal of air from obstructed or hypoventilated alveoli.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 79

Question
Your patient is complaining of chills, fever, and pain on inspiration. She indicates that she has had a sore throat and dry cough for over a week. What is a likely cause for the pain she has on inspiration?
Answer
  • pleuritis
  • pulmonary fibrosis
  • atelectasis
  • ARDS

Question 80

Question
Causes of pulmonary fibrosis may include:
Answer
  • asbestos inhalation
  • active TB
  • ARDS
  • all of the above

Question 81

Question
With pulmonary fibrosis the lungs become difficult to ventilate, and the diffusing capacity of the alveolocapillary membrane may increase.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 82

Question
The most common predisposing factors contributing to the development of ARDS are sepsis and pregnancy.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 83

Question
What causes pulmonary edema in patients suffering from ARDS?
Answer
  • increased capillary permeability
  • decreases capillary permeability
  • secondary to left heart failure
  • secondary to right heart failure

Question 84

Question
Dyspnea and ____________ are the catchall S/S of obstructive lung diseases.
Answer
  • stridor
  • pulmonary edema
  • wheezing
  • accessory muscle use

Question 85

Question
The "3 S's of Asthma are:
Answer
  • Spasms, Swelling, and SOB
  • Spasms, Secretions, and SOB
  • SOB, Stridor, and Secretions
  • Spasms, Secretions, and Swelling

Question 86

Question
As an EMT, what are medications that you can administer to a patient who is suffering from an acute exacerbation of their asthma?
Answer
  • oxygen
  • prednisone
  • desamethasone
  • atrovent
  • ventolin
  • A and D
  • A, D, and E

Question 87

Question
One of the primary causes of COPD is exposure (active and passive) to cigarette smoke.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 88

Question
A patient complaining of fever, dyspnea, and a productive cough with green sputum most likely has what condition?
Answer
  • acute pulmonary edema
  • pneumonia
  • emphysema
  • ARDS

Question 89

Question
Your patient presents with chest pain, SOB, and hypotension. What is a differential diagnosis for what seems to be cardiac chest pain?
Answer
  • pulmonary edema
  • deep vein thrombosis
  • pulmonary embolism
  • pneumonia

Question 90

Question
A pulmonary embolism is only caused by a thrombus or air bubble that has embolized to the lungs.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 91

Question
Projectile vomiting in the absence of nausea or retching may indicate:
Answer
  • A potential head injury
  • Ingestion of unrefrigerated, Thursday night pub pizza
  • Ingestion of 4-day-old Chinese food
  • A malignant brain tumor or other brain lesion
  • A and D

Question 92

Question
Prolonged diarrhea may cause:
Answer
  • dehydration
  • weight gain
  • electrolyte imbalance
  • metabolic acidosis
  • A C and D

Question 93

Question
Visceral pain is localized and intense as organs are heavily innervated by sensory nerves.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 94

Question
A patient with a history of cholecystitis complains of pain to his back. This is an example of ____________ pain.
Answer
  • parietal
  • visceral
  • referred
  • sissy

Question 95

Question
NSAIDs are drugs that contribute to gastritis through the inhibition of mucous secretion.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 96

Question
Which of the following drugs are classified as NSAIDs?
Answer
  • asprin
  • ibuprofen
  • morphine
  • ketorolac
  • A and B
  • A B and D

Question 97

Question
In extreme cases of peptic ulcer disease, perforation of the GI wall can occur.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 98

Question
After cholecystitis, appendicitis is the second most common surgical emergency in the abdomen.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 99

Question
Rebound tenderness in which abdominal quadrant may suggest appendicitis?
Answer
  • LUQ
  • LLQ
  • RUQ
  • RLQ

Question 100

Question
Liver cirrhosis is reversible with the adoption of healthy lifestyle changes.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 101

Question
The other name for kidney/renal stones is:
Answer
  • gallstones
  • calculi
  • diverticuli
  • renal deposits

Question 102

Question
Acute renal failure is typically associated with a urine output of less than ______ml/hr.
Answer
  • 10
  • 30
  • 60
  • 200

Question 103

Question
Functions of the lymphatic system include:
Answer
  • body defense
  • returning escaped fluids back to the blood
  • thermoregulation
  • nerve impulse transmission
  • A and B
  • A B and C

Question 104

Question
Lymphatic vessels are similar to arteries in that skeletal muscle plays a large role in "milking" them to return fluid back to the heart.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 105

Question
Cells that are prevalent within the lymph nodes include:
Answer
  • plateletes
  • macrophages
  • lymphcytes
  • erythrocytes
  • B and C
  • all of the above

Question 106

Question
Functions of the spleen include:
Answer
  • Filtering of blood
  • Destroys worn our blood cells
  • Acts as a blood reservoir
  • Forms blood cells in the fetus
  • All of the above

Question 107

Question
Match the line of defense with a component contained within it: [blank_start]Third line[blank_end]: lymphocytes and antibodies [blank_start]First line[blank_end]: skim [blank_start]Second line[blank_end]: the inflammatory response
Answer
  • Third line
  • First line
  • Second line

Question 108

Question
The inflammatory response is considered part of the innate defense system.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 109

Question
Redness, heat, swelling, and ____________ most often accompany the inflammatory response.
Answer
  • Delirium
  • Pain
  • Diaphoresis
  • Numbness

Question 110

Question
Although the inflammatory response can cause adverse S/S, it is a protective response in the body.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 111

Question
The primary and most prevalent chemical mediator responsible for consuming foreign material during the inflammatory response is:
Answer
  • Neutrophils
  • Basophils
  • Serotonin
  • Histamine

Question 112

Question
What structure in the body is responsible for heat regulation?
Answer
  • Pituitary
  • Adrenals
  • Thyroid
  • Hypothalamus

Question 113

Question
Antibodies recognize ____________ prior to initiating an immune response.
Answer
  • mRNA
  • Intracellular proteins
  • DNA
  • Antigens

Question 114

Question
Cellular immunity plays the primary role in targeting virus-infected cells.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 115

Question
Obtaining antibodies from a transfer from mother to fetus is an example of passive immunity.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 116

Question
Massive histamine release during an allergic reaction can cause:
Answer
  • Vasodilation
  • Increased mucus production
  • Bronchospasm
  • All of the above

Question 117

Question
The CNS is composed of:
Answer
  • The brain
  • The brain and the spinal cord
  • The brain, spinal cord, and cranial nerves
  • The brain, spinal cord, cranial nerves, and spinal nerves

Question 118

Question
The sympathetic branch of the autonomic nervous system would typically cause which of the following effects?
Answer
  • Decreased resp rate
  • Decreased BP
  • Decreased HR
  • Increased HR

Question 119

Question
The cells responsible for forming myelin in the CNS are:
Answer
  • Oligodendrocytes
  • Astrocytes
  • Microglia
  • Schwann cells

Question 120

Question
The cells responsible for forming myelin in the PNS are:
Answer
  • Microglia
  • Schwann cells
  • Oligodendrocytes
  • Astrocytes

Question 121

Question
The primary extracellular ion responsible in the generation of an action potential is:
Answer
  • Magnesium
  • Sodium
  • Calcium
  • Potassium

Question 122

Question
When a neuron is resting, it is more positive outside than inside.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 123

Question
During repolarization, the sodium-potassium pump uses ____________ to return the neuron to a resting state.
Answer
  • ATP
  • ADP
  • Acetylcholinesterase
  • Acetylcholine

Question 124

Question
____________ is the ion responsible for triggering the relase of neurotransmitters from the axon terminal.
Answer
  • Potassium
  • Sodium
  • Magnesium
  • Calcium

Question 125

Question
Match the parts of the brain stem with their function: Medulla oblongata; reticular formation; midbrain [blank_start]Medulla oblongata[blank_end]: Contains control centers that regulate heart rate and breathing [blank_start]Midbrai[blank_end]n: Contains reflex centers for vision and hearing [blank_start]Reticular formation[blank_end]: Regulates awake/sleep cycles and consciousness
Answer
  • Medulla oblongata
  • Midbrai
  • Reticular formation

Question 126

Question
The meninges, in order from outermost layer (superficial) to innermost layer (deep) are:
Answer
  • pia - dura - arachnoid
  • pia - arachnoid - dura
  • dura - arachnoid - pia
  • arachnoid - dura - pia

Question 127

Question
The lacrimal apparatus is responsible for producing and emptying lacrimal fluid (tears) in the eyes.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 128

Question
The ____________ allows for light to pass into the eye.
Answer
  • aqueous humor
  • lens
  • cornea
  • sclera

Question 129

Question
Rods are photoreceptors that allow for detailed color vision.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 130

Question
The blind spot in the eye is formed by:
Answer
  • Optic nerve
  • Vitreous humor
  • Cones in the center of the retina
  • Rods towards the edges of the retina

Question 131

Question
Match the endocrine glands with the hormone(s) they release: [blank_start]Thyroid[blank_end] – Thyroid hormone and calcitonin, [blank_start]Ovaries[blank_end] – Estrogen and progesterone, [blank_start]Pineal gland[blank_end] – Melatonin, [blank_start]Posterior pituitary[blank_end] – ADH and ocytocin, [blank_start]Pancreas[blank_end] – Insulin and glucagon, [blank_start]Adrenals[blank_end] – Aldosterone and cortisol Posterior pituitary, adrenals, pancreas, ovaries, pineal gland, thyroid
Answer
  • Thyroid
  • Ovaries
  • Pineal gland
  • Posterior pituitary
  • Pancreas
  • Adrenals

Question 132

Question
Systemic Lupus Erythematosus is an autoimmune disease most prevalent in young women.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 133

Question
Systemic Lupus Erythematosus may present with the following S/S:
Answer
  • diffuse uticaria
  • pleurisy
  • fever and malaise
  • diabetes insipidus
  • diffuse facial erythema

Question 134

Question
Seizure activity is precipitated by a sudden, explosive, and disorderly depolarization of cerebral neurons.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 135

Question
Satus Epilepticus can be defined as:
Answer
  • One or more seizures occurring in succession without the patient fully regaining consciousness
  • Two or more seizures occurring in succession without the patient fully regaining consciousness
  • Three or more seizures occurring in succession without the patient fully regaining consciousness
  • Four or more seizures occurring in succession without the patient fully regaining consciousness

Question 136

Question
The pathophysiology of seizures focuses on an apparent decrease in neuronal cell permeability and hyposensitivity.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 137

Question
The maintenance of seizure activity demands a ________% increase in ATP.
Answer
  • 100
  • 150
  • 200
  • 250

Question 138

Question
Nuchal rigidity is a common finding in cases of meningitis.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 139

Question
Severe cases of encephalitis may cause:
Answer
  • Edema and nuchal rigidity
  • Inflamed meninges and decreased ICP
  • Ischemia and decreased ICP
  • Edema, necrosis, and increased ICP

Question 140

Question
Multiple Sclerosis is more common in men than woman.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 141

Question
Multiple sclerosis is a relatively common autoimmune disorder that diffusely involves the:
Answer
  • CNS
  • Spinal nerves
  • CNS and PNS
  • PNS

Question 142

Question
Cataracts can cause:
Answer
  • Decreased visual acuity
  • Blurred vision
  • Glare
  • Decreased colour perception
  • All of the above

Question 143

Question
Shock results in tissue hypoperfusion and metabolic alkalosis secondary to inadequate oxygen delivery to the tissues.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 144

Question
Inadequate systemic oxygen delivery triggers the ____________ nervous system into action
Answer
  • Somatic
  • Sensory
  • Parasympathetic
  • Sympathetic

Question 145

Question
Decreased oxygen delivery to the cells during shock leads to cellular swelling and eventual lysis and death.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 146

Question
Hypovolemic shock can be classified as either hemorrhagic or non-hemorrhagic.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 147

Question
A history of recent ____________ with the presence of shock S/S would lead the EMT to believe that the patient is in septic shock.
Answer
  • Infection
  • MI
  • Trauma
  • GI Bleed

Question 148

Question
A patient complains of severe substernal chest pain. He is hypotensive, tachycardia, and diaphoretic. What type of shock is the patient most likely in?
Answer
  • Cardiogenic
  • Obstructive
  • Septic
  • Neurogenic

Question 149

Question
The most important treatment that an EMT can provide to a patient suffering from anaphylactic shock (after maintaining the airway and providing oxygen) is:
Answer
  • Epinephrine
  • Benadryl
  • Atrovent
  • Ringers lactate

Question 150

Question
Neurogenic shock results from an interruption of parasympathetic influence to the body tissues secondary to spinal cord injury. This causes hypotension, tachycardia, and pallor.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 151

Question
Causes of obstructive shock include:
Answer
  • Tension pneumothorax
  • Pleuritis
  • Abdominal aortic aneurysm
  • Cardiac tamponade

Question 152

Question
Cardiac tamponade is characterized by hypotension, muffled heart sounds, and ____________.
Answer
  • Tracheal deviation
  • Flushed, dry skin
  • Decreased air entry
  • Jugular venous distenstion
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