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GIT system exam

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mamoon saleh
Quiz by mamoon saleh, updated more than 1 year ago
mamoon saleh
Created by mamoon saleh over 8 years ago
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Question 1

Question
H.pylori causes peptic ulcer in all of the following mechanisms except :
Answer
  • Producing urease
  • Enhancing gastric acid secretion.
  • Producing phospholipase.
  • Producing immunogenic proteins.
  • Non of the above

Question 2

Question
Which of the following muscles is responsible for protruding the tongue?
Answer
  • The styloglossus
  • The hyoglossus
  • The genioglossus
  • The palatoglossus
  • The mylohyoid

Question 3

Question
A patient with a duodenal ulcer is treated successfully with the drug cimetidine. The basis for cimetidine’s inhibition of gastric H+ secretion is that it?
Answer
  • A) blocks muscarinic receptors on parietal cells
  • B) blocks H2 receptors on parietal cells
  • C) increases intracellular cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP) levels
  • D) blocks H+,K+-adenosine triphosphatase (ATPase)
  • E) enhances the action of acetylcholine (ACh) on parietal cells

Question 4

Question
The following statements concerning the sigmoid colon are correct except which?
Answer
  • It is a continuation of the descending colon.
  • It begins above in front of the left quadratus lumborum muscle
  • It receives its arterial supply from the inferior mesenteric artery.
  • It becomes continuous with the rectum in front of the third sacral vertebra.
  • It is attached to the posterior pelvic wall by the sigmoid mesocolon.

Question 5

Question
The following information concerning the sensory innervation of the abdominal peritoneum is correct except which?
Answer
  • The peritoneum on the central part of the inferior surface of the diaphragm is supplied by the phrenic nerves.
  • The peritoneum forming the mesentery of the small intestine is innervated by autonomic nerves.
  • The peritoneum on the peripheral part of the inferior surface of the diaphragm is supplied by the phrenic nerves.
  • The peritoneum lining the anterior abdominal wall in the right lower quadrant is supplied by T12 and L1 spinal nerves
  • The peritoneum lining the lateral wall of the pelvis is supplied by the obturator nerve.

Question 6

Question
The jejunum and ileum can be differentiated on the basis of the following anatomic features except which?
Answer
  • Numerous (four to five) arterial arcades are associated with the jejunum
  • The plicae circulares are much more prominent in the jejunum than in the ileum
  • Fat depositions are generally present throughout the mesentery associated with the ileum.
  • The jejunum is generally located in the upper left region of the abdominal cavity
  • Peyer’s patches are characteristic of the lower ileum and may be visible on the surface.

Question 7

Question
A 49-year-old woman presents with increasing problems swallowing food (progressive dysphagia). X-ray studies with contrast reveal that she has a markedly dilated esophagus above the level of the lower esophageal sphincter (LES). No lesions are seen within the lumen of the esophagus. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this disorder?
Answer
  • a. Decreased LES resting pressure
  • b. Absence of myenteric plexus in the body of esophagus
  • c. Absence of myenteric plexus at the LES
  • d. Absence of submucosal plexus in the body of esophagus
  • e. Absence of submucosal plexus at the LES

Question 8

Question
Patient presents with increasing “heartburn,” Endoscopic examination finds a red velvety plaque located at the distal esophagus. Biopsies from this area, taken approximately 4 cm proximal to the gastroesophageal junction reveal metaplastic columnar epithelium Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer
  • Acquired achalasia
  • Barrett esophagus
  • Hamartomatous polyp
  • Metastatic adenocarcinoma
  • Reflux esophagitis

Question 9

Question
A 49-year-old woman taking NSAID, Gastroscopy reveals multiple, scattered, punctate hemorrhagic areas in her gastric mucosa. Biopsies from one of these hemorrhagic lesions reveal mucosal erosions with edema and hemorrhage. No mucosal ulceration is seen. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer
  • a. Chronic gastritis
  • b. Acute gastritis
  • c. Autoimmune gastritis
  • d. Chronic gastritis
  • e. Peptic ulcer disease

Question 10

Question
Patient presents with increasing gastric pain and is found to have a 3-cm mass located in the anterior wall of his stomach. This mass is resected and histologic examination reveals a tumor composed of cells having elongated, spindle-shaped nuclei. This tumor is usually defined histologically by the expression of which one of the listed markers?
Answer
  • CD10 (CALLA)
  • CD15 (leuM1)
  • CD30 (Ki-1)
  • CD95 (Fas)
  • CD117 (c-KIT)

Question 11

Question
A 39-year-old man presents with bloody diarrhea, examination of the patient’s colon reveals a characteristic “string sign.” A colonoscopy reveals the rectum and sigmoid portions of the colon to be unremarkable. A biopsy from the terminal ileum reveals numerous acute and chronic inflammatory cells within the lamina propria. Gross examination of this resected bowel reveals several transmural fistulas are also found. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer
  • Ulcerative colitis
  • Lymphocytic colitis
  • Infectious colitis
  • Eosinophilic colitis
  • Crohn disease

Question 12

Question
Multiple dark black stones are found within the gallbladder. These stones are composed of which one of the following substances?
Answer
  • Bilirubin
  • Carbon
  • Cholesterol
  • Struvite
  • Urate

Question 13

Question
Regarding exocrine pancreatic neoplasms, which of the following is not correct :
Answer
  • a- Mucinous Cystic Neoplasms always arise in women
  • b- benign Mucinous Cystic Neoplasms show significant cytologic & architectural atypia but no tissue invasion
  • c- a quarter of all pancreatic cystic tumors are Serous Cystadenomas.
  • d- Mucinous cyst adenomas & intraductal Papillary Mucinous T can be benign, borderline malignant or malignant T.
  • e- b & d

Question 14

Question
All are true regarding michel's diverticulum except
Answer
  • Pernicious anemia.
  • Symptoms like appendicitis
  • heterotopic islands of functioning gastritis mucosa.
  • Intestinal bleeding.
  • Volvulus

Question 15

Question
All are causes of acquired megacolon except
Answer
  • Chagas disease.
  • Disruption of migration of neural crest derived cells during development
  • Organic obstruction
  • Toxic magacolon of crohn disease.
  • . A functional psychosomatic disorder

Question 16

Question
Hepatitis C is transmitted MAINLY by
Answer
  • Fecal -oral route.
  • By blood.
  • Insects or fomites
  • Sexual contact
  • None of the above

Question 17

Question
The disorder that results in the mildest jaundice from the following is:
Answer
  • a- Crigler-Najjar syndrome
  • b- Gilbert syndrome
  • c- thalassemia
  • d- physiological in neonates
  • e- Siderocytosis

Question 18

Question
All the following reactions are involved in phase to detoxification in the liver except :
Answer
  • a- Sulfation
  • b- Glucoronidation
  • c- methylation
  • d- oxidation
  • e- c&d

Question 19

Question
Which of the following arteries supplies foregut derivatives of the digestive system?
Answer
  • A. Celiac trunk
  • B. Superior mesenteric artery
  • C. Inferior mesenteric artery
  • D. Right umbilical artery
  • E. Intercostal artery

Question 20

Question
Kupffer cells present in the adult liver are derived from: (Embryology)
Answer
  • A. mesoderm
  • B. endoderm
  • C. ectoderm
  • D. neuroectoderm
  • E. neural crest cells

Question 21

Question
Which of the following is NOT true regarding oropharynx:
Answer
  • A. It is on the level of C2 and C3 vertebra.
  • B. Communicates with the mouth through the oropharyngeal isthmus.
  • C. The superior constrictor muscle separates the lateral surface of the palatine tonsil from the facial artery.
  • D. The lateral walls on each side have the palatoglossal and palatopharyngeal arches

Question 22

Question
The nasopharynx ends at the level of.
Answer
  • A. Atlas vertebra.
  • B. C2 vertebra.
  • C. The lower part of the soft palate.
  • D. C3 vertebra.
  • E. None of the above

Question 23

Question
All of the following muscles are supplied by hypoglossal nerve (Xll) except:
Answer
  • A.Styloglossus
  • B. Genioglossus.
  • C. Hyoglossus.
  • D. Palatoglossus

Question 24

Question
One of the of following is an INCORRECT matching:
Answer
  • A. Nasopharynx ---- ciliated pseudo stratified columnar epithelium.
  • B. Oropharynx ---- stratified squamous epithelium.
  • C. Esophagus ---- keratinized stratified squamous epithelium.
  • D. Gastroesophagel junction ---- non-ciliated simple columnar epithelium.
  • E. Stomach ---- non-ciliated simple columnar epithelium.

Question 25

Question
In cases of mild nausea and vomiting in the 1st 3 months of pregnancy, the drug of choice is :
Answer
  • A. Diphenhydramine
  • B. Meclizine.
  • C. Promethazine.
  • D. Nabilone.
  • E. Pyridoxine.

Question 26

Question
A 35-years old patient came to the clinic suffering from severe diarrhea, knowing that the patient has a history of colitis, which of the following anti-diarrheal agentsis/are contraindicated:
Answer
  • a. Diphenoxylate
  • b. Al(OH)3
  • c. Methylcellulose
  • d. A+C
  • e. None of the above

Question 27

Question
Black tongue is a finding that can be seen in a patient treated with:
Answer
  • a. Methylcellulose
  • b. Bismuth subsalicylate
  • c. Nizatidine
  • d. Diphenoxylate
  • e. Loperamide

Question 28

Question
Which of the following agents are contraindicated in pregnancy:
Answer
  • a. Misoprostol
  • b. Castor oil
  • c. Methyl cellulose
  • d. A+b
  • e. A+c

Question 29

Question
All of the following can be involved in the treatment of GERD, except:
Answer
  • a. Dexlansoprazole
  • b. Cimetidine
  • c. Clarithromycin
  • d. Misoprostol
  • e. None of the above

Question 30

Question
Which of the following is preferentially used for the treatment and the prevention of NSAIDs-induced ulcers?
Answer
  • a. Nizatidine
  • b. Lansoprazole
  • c. Misoprostol
  • d. Metronidazole
  • e. All of the above

Question 31

Question
For a patient with opioid-induced constipation, the best drug of choice is:
Answer
  • a. Calcium docusate
  • b. Nizatidine
  • c. Senna
  • d. A+c
  • e. All of the above

Question 32

Question
Vitamin B12 deficiency is a risk in patients treated with:
Answer
  • a. Cimetidine
  • b. Omeprazole
  • c. Lactulose
  • d. A+b
  • e. All of the above

Question 33

Question
. Which of the following can be used in preparation for colonoscopy:
Answer
  • a. Misoprostol
  • b. Calcium carbonate
  • c. PEG laxatives
  • d. B+C
  • e. None of the above

Question 34

Question
. A 35-years old woman suffering from electrolytes insufficiency, after investigations, no causative illness has been identified, which of the following agents is it predicted for the woman to take:
Answer
  • a. Bisacodyl
  • b. Misoprostol
  • c. Magnesium hydroxide
  • d. Calcium carbonate
  • e. Lansoprazole

Question 35

Question
All of the following are osmotic laxatives, except:
Answer
  • a. PEG laxative
  • b. Lactulose
  • c. Magnesium citrate
  • d. Sodium phosphate
  • e. Calcium carbonate

Question 36

Question
All of the following are absorbed in small intestine by Na co-transporter except:
Answer
  • A. amino acids
  • B. glucose
  • C. fatty acid
  • D. dipeptides
  • E. More than one of the above

Question 37

Question
One of the following is characteristic of slow waves:
Answer
  • A. They are affected by neurons and hormones
  • B. can change their frequecy
  • C. same frequency all along the GIT
  • D. determine the maximum frequency of contraction

Question 38

Question
Retching happens when:
Answer
  • A. lower esophageal sphincter is closed
  • B. upper esophageal sphincter is closed
  • C. upper and lower esophageal sphincters are closed
  • D. pyloric sphincter is closed

Question 39

Question
Dyskinesia is a side effect for one of these drugs :
Answer
  • A. Lubiorostone
  • B. PPI
  • C. Ondansetron
  • D. Metoclopramide
  • E. Hyoscine

Question 40

Question
All these agents are used to treat diarrhea except :
Answer
  • A. Lorpermide
  • B. Bismuth subsalicylate
  • C. Famotidine
  • D. Methylcellulose
  • E. Atropine

Question 41

Question
The diffirence between Metoclopramide and domperidone is :
Answer
  • A. Metoclopramide is D2 receptor antagonists but domperidone is 5-HT3 antagonist
  • B. Metoclopramide crosses BBB but domperidone cannot
  • C. domperidone has antiemetic effect but Metoclopramide doesn't
  • D. domperidone crosses BBB but Metoclopramide cannot
  • E. there is no difference between them

Question 42

Question
One of these commbination the best effect in prevention (CINV):
Answer
  • A. D2 + corticosteroids and NK1 antagonists.
  • B. corticosteroids and Chlorpromazine
  • C. Substance P antagonist + 5-HT3antagonists and corticosteroids.
  • D. droperidol + 5-HT3antagonists and corticosteroids.
  • E. None of the above

Question 43

Question
All of these drugs are used to treat Postoperative Nausea & Vomiting except:
Answer
  • A. Dopamine antagonists
  • B. D2-antagonists
  • C. 5-HT3antagonists
  • D. NK1 antagonistsVomiting
  • E. All of the above
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