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HSAD 740

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Andrew Wismer
Quiz by Andrew Wismer, updated more than 1 year ago
Andrew Wismer
Created by Andrew Wismer over 8 years ago
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Question 1

Question
1. The Donabedian Model includes all of the following except
Answer
  • a. Outcomes
  • b. Cost
  • c. Structure
  • d. Process

Question 2

Question
2. Fill in the missing step in the quality improvement journey: 1) Establish an aim; 2) link specific measures with the aim; 3) Establish operation definitions; 4)____________; 5) Analyze the data and sources of variation; 6) Turn the data into a strategy for actions
Answer
  • a. Data collection
  • b. Gather volunteers to participate
  • c. Implement an EMR
  • d. Make sure the aim will improve quality

Question 3

Question
3. Historically, why have payers limited choice of provider?
Answer
  • a. Control access
  • b. Control cost
  • c. Control quality
  • d. Make friends

Question 4

Question
4. One of the 6 attributes of an ideal health care delivery system is for providers (including nurses and other members of care teams) both within and across settings to have accountability to each other including reliable delivery of high-quality care. The attribute defined is
Answer
  • a. Easy access to appropriate care
  • b. Continuous innovations
  • c. Information continuity
  • d. Peer review and teamwork for high value care

Question 5

Question
5. P4P intent is
Answer
  • a. Rewards quality
  • b. Promote use of EMR
  • c. Promote evidence based medicine
  • d. All of the above.

Question 6

Question
6. Performance measures will vary because
Answer
  • a. Inputs to health care system vary
  • b. Patients are unique, different form others
  • c. Environments are different
  • d. All of the above.

Question 7

Question
7. The phenomenon called 'moral hazard' results directly from
Answer
  • a. health insurance coverage
  • b. inadequate payment to providers
  • c. managed care enrollment
  • d. the uninsured status of a segment of the U.S. population

Question 8

Question
8. Physicians and hospitals in the U.S. began consolidating and integrating mainly in response to
Answer
  • a. Increased government regulation
  • b. Pressures to contain costs
  • c. The growth of managed care
  • d. The demand for higher quality

Question 9

Question
9. Physicians are trained in ____________culture and hospitals exercise ________culture
Answer
  • a. Collective; expert
  • b. Expert; collective
  • c. Holistic; Scientific
  • d. Scientific; Holistic

Question 10

Question
10. Porter and Teisburg (2007) argue that competition in the U.S. healthcare system is not working because
Answer
  • a. Healthcare organizations are competing on levels that do not add value from the perspective of the consumer
  • b. Large healthcare organizations have a competitive advantage over small healthcare organizations.
  • c. Some healthcare organizations are for-profit and some are not-for profit
  • d. Third party payment distorts any chance to have a market driven system

Question 11

Question
11. A service is cost-efficient when:
Answer
  • a. The desired health outcome is achieved
  • b. The patient’s insurance plan saves money
  • c. The benefit received is greater than the cost incurred to provide the service
  • d. None of the above

Question 12

Question
12. Spending 16% of the GDP on healthcare is bad because
Answer
  • a. It is throwing the country into an economic recession
  • b. The value justifying the cost is not clear or known for all services provided
  • c. Total GDP is decreasing because of healthcare spending
  • d. All of the above

Question 13

Question
13. In technology assessment what role do clinical trials play?
Answer
  • a. They are used for experimentation with potentially useful drugs
  • b. They are used for establishing the rights of participants
  • c. They are used for determine cost-effectiveness
  • d. They are used for evaluating efficacy and safety

Question 14

Question
14. The U.S. healthcare system is
Answer
  • a. Fragmented
  • b. Disorganized
  • c. Inefficient
  • d. All of the above

Question 15

Question
15. What is a PRO?
Answer
  • a. Price Rationing Organization
  • b. Political Review of Outcome
  • c. Peer Review Organization
  • d. President’s Review of Organizations

Question 16

Question
16. What was the main conclusion of the Rand Health Insurance Experiment
Answer
  • a. Cost sharing lowered health care utilization without any significant health consequences
  • b. Cost sharing lowered health care utilization but there were significant health consequences
  • c. Cost sharing did not affect health care utilization
  • d. Cost sharing increased health care utilization

Question 17

Question
17. What is the main function of the National Institutes of Health?
Answer
  • a. Conduct and support research on health care quality, cost, and access
  • b. Establish medical subspecialties in US medical schools
  • c. Provide specialized training for medical specialists
  • d. Conduct and support biomedical research

Question 18

Question
18. What main purpose do Clinical Practice Guidelines serve?
Answer
  • a. They ensure that services delivered are cost effective
  • b. They coordinate the delivery of health care between different practitioners
  • c. They assist practitioners in adopting a best practice approach
  • d. They provide incentives for using standard protocols

Question 19

Question
19. What is meant by the term “healthcare costs”?
Answer
  • a. The price of health care
  • b. How much a nation spends on health care
  • c. Cost of producing health care
  • d. All of the above

Question 20

Question
20. What was the purpose of certificate of need (CON) laws
Answer
  • a. Monitor the diffusion of new technology
  • b. Control flow of federal funds for private projects
  • c. Control new health service programs
  • d. Control new construction and modernization projects.

Question 21

Question
21. Which central agency manages the healthcare delivery system in the United States?
Answer
  • a. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention
  • b. Department of Health and Human Services
  • c. Department of Commerce
  • d. None

Question 22

Question
22. Which of the following defines and acute healthcare model
Answer
  • a. Behavior Modification
  • b. Diagnose and treat
  • c. Health Risk Appraisal
  • d. Prevent Disease and Optimize well-being

Question 23

Question
23. Which of the following is a macro level factor influencing the patient/physician encounter rather than a micro level factor
Answer
  • a. Medical history
  • b. Patient’s insurance
  • c. Practitioner’s training and knowledge
  • d. Reimbursement structures.

Question 24

Question
24. Which of the following is not one of the 6 attributes of an Ideal Health Care Delivery System
Answer
  • a. Continuous innovation
  • b. Easy access to appropriate care
  • c. Peer review and teamwork for high-value care
  • d. Prepayment reimbursement methodology

Question 25

Question
25. Which of the following statements is true
Answer
  • a. The term e-health applies only to the electronic delivery of health care by qualified health care professionals.
  • b. The United States controls the diffusion of medical technology through central planning.
  • c. Evidence from other industrialized nations shows that limitations on the adoption and use of technology do not necessarily correlate with negative health status of a population.
  • d. The cost of acquiring technology has a greater impact on total health care expenditures than utilization of technology.

Question 26

Question
26. Which statement is false
Answer
  • a. According to polls, most Americans are satisfied with the quality of health care.
  • b. As healthcare delivery system developed in the U.S. it emphasized specialization over primary care.
  • c. Most Americans favor a government provided healthcare system
  • d. The number one concern about healthcare for Americans is the high cost

Question 27

Question
27. According to U.S. law, a non-profit organization
Answer
  • a. Can make only a limited amount of profit
  • b. Is tax-exempt
  • c. Cannot have a governing body
  • d. Must pay taxes only if they are profitable.

Question 28

Question
28. Advantages of for-profit organizations the followed except
Answer
  • a. Guaranteed an annual operating profit
  • b. Not subject to public fund restrictions
  • c. Profits may be distributed to shareholders
  • d. Value of investment may increase over time

Question 29

Question
29. Advantages of government ownership of facilities include all of the following but
Answer
  • a. Eligible to receive tax-deductible donations
  • b. Exempt for income taxes and property taxes
  • c. Financed through bonds rather than debt
  • d. Lesser amounts of oversight

Question 30

Question
30. All healthcare organizations are
Answer
  • a. Corporations
  • b. Exempt from anti-trust laws
  • c. Heavily regulated
  • d. Non profit

Question 31

Question
31. At a fundamental level, medical technology deals with
Answer
  • a. production of new equipment to provide more advanced health care.
  • b. the application of knowledge produced by biomedical research.
  • c. using discoveries made in basic sciences to improve health care.
  • d. new drugs and devices.

Question 32

Question
32. CPOE stands for
Answer
  • a. Clinical Provider Outcome Exception
  • b. Comparable Patient Outcome Effectiveness
  • c. Complementary Positive Outcome Effect
  • d. Computer Physician Order Entry

Question 33

Question
33. Current challenges against not-for-profit healthcare facilities include all but
Answer
  • a. Collection practices
  • b. Dumping of emergency patients
  • c. Low levels of charity care
  • d. Use of charitable assets

Question 34

Question
34. Determination of goals and objectives
Answer
  • a. Controlling
  • b. Coordinating
  • c. Organizing
  • d. Planning

Question 35

Question
35. Which of the following is a similarity rather than a difference between a private for profit and a private not for profit
Answer
  • a. Employees are private instead of public employees
  • b. Funding is through debt market rather than bond market
  • c. Solicitation of charitable contributions
  • d. None of the above

Question 36

Question
36. Directors and officers of private facilities
Answer
  • a. Appoint Management
  • b. Are personally liable for facility debt
  • c. Have fiduciary duties only if investor owned
  • d. Must be employees of the private facility

Question 37

Question
37. In the U.S. the ratio of primary care physicians (broadly defined) to specialty physicians
Answer
  • a. 50/50
  • b. 90/10
  • c. 10/90
  • d. 40/60

Question 38

Question
38. Institutional theory predicts that
Answer
  • a. For-profit and non-profit organizations with imitate each other when faced with similar regulatory and legal constraints
  • b. As an enterprise increases in size, its unit overhead costs will decrease
  • c. As a hospital increases in size, its economies of scale dissipate
  • d. In competitive markets, both for-profit and non-profit organizations would deliver certain essential community benefits.

Question 39

Question
39. Investor owned hospitals
Answer
  • a. Do not have non owners on the board of directors
  • b. Do not offer tax incentives for charitable donations
  • c. Do not pay taxes
  • d. Do not provide charity care

Question 40

Question
40. Joint ventures between for profit and not for profit healthcare organizations
Answer
  • a. Are a means for allowing individual or private ownership of all or part of the not for profit.
  • b. Illegal
  • c. Legal if the assets of the not for profit do not benefit the for-profit partner
  • d. Violate the charitable purpose of the not for profit organization

Question 41

Question
41. Legislation that offer payments to healthcare organizations for meaningful use of an electronic medical record system
Answer
  • a. ERISA
  • b. HIPAA
  • c. HITECH
  • d. PPACA

Question 42

Question
42. Most home health organizations in the United States are
Answer
  • a. Private for profit
  • b. Private not-for-profit
  • c. Public for profit
  • d. Public not-for-profit

Question 43

Question
43. Most physician practices in the U.S. are
Answer
  • a. Private for profit
  • b. Private not-for-profit
  • c. Public for profit
  • d. Public not-for-profit

Question 44

Question
44. Non physician practitioners (NPPS) include
Answer
  • a. Osteopaths
  • b. Dentists
  • c. Physician Assistants
  • d. None of the above

Question 45

Question
45. Not for profit healthcare facility means
Answer
  • a. The facility does not make a profit
  • b. The facility does not pay taxes
  • c. The facility is a public facility
  • d. All of the above

Question 46

Question
46. Not for profit organizations are exempt from income tax because
Answer
  • a. They appoint community members as board members
  • b. They have a 501(c)3 designation from the IRS
  • c. They have a not-for-profit license from the state
  • d. They receive less in charitable donations than they make from operating revenues

Question 47

Question
47. States challenged the legality of the PPACA on the basis of
Answer
  • a. Fear businesses will move to other states because of lower healthcare costs for employees.
  • b. Feel HIPAA already covers the provisions offered in PPACA
  • c. Infringement of state powers
  • d. All of the above

Question 48

Question
48. The aging of the American Baby-boomer population
Answer
  • a. Is expected to create more volume than the healthcare system can handle
  • b. Is expected to create a shortage of available healthcare workers
  • c. Is expected to shift more funding dollars into the private sector
  • d. All of the above

Question 49

Question
49. Principle board functions do not include
Answer
  • a. Approving strategic direction
  • b. Approving capital budgets
  • c. Hiring and firing the CEO
  • d. Hiring and firing nursing staff.

Question 50

Question
50. Private healthcare facilities cannot be
Answer
  • a. Charitable or religious owned
  • b. For Profit
  • c. Government Owned
  • d. Not for Profit

Question 51

Question
51. Process organizations use to make important decisions, such as about mission, goals, capital financing, mergers, and quality improvement.
Answer
  • a. Accountability
  • b. EBMgmt
  • c. Governance
  • d. Management

Question 52

Question
52. RVUs reflect
Answer
  • a. Units of services delivered
  • b. Resource inputs
  • c. The dollar value of services
  • d. Coding of physician services

Question 53

Question
53. The difference in electronic record concept reflected in the terms EMR and EHR is
Answer
  • a. An electronic record reflecting baseline health readings (blood pressure, weight, etc) and an electronic record reflecting healthcare encounters (visits, procedures, etc).
  • b. An electronic record reflecting medical records within a single health delivery organization and an electronic record reflecting medical records inclusive of all providers and all locations.
  • c. An electronic record reflecting health records from ambulatory settings and an electronic record reflecting health from inpatient settings
  • d. An electronic record maintained by the patient and an electronic record maintained by the patient’s healthcare provider.

Question 54

Question
54. The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act requires
Answer
  • a. large health care organizations to switch to electronic health records.
  • b. protection of personal medical information.
  • c. nondisclosure of personal health information.
  • d. nontransmittal of individual health information over the Internet.

Question 55

Question
55. The number of healthcare jobs in the U.S. is estimated at about
Answer
  • a. 4 Million
  • b. 14 Million
  • c. 24 Million
  • d. 40 Million

Question 56

Question
56. The transfer and use of assets towards a charitable purpose is required
Answer
  • a. For operation of a for profit healthcare organization
  • b. For operation of a not for profit healthcare organization
  • c. For changing the status of a for profit healthcare organization to a not for profit healthcare organization
  • d. For changing the status of a not for profit healthcare organization to a for profit healthcare organization

Question 57

Question
57. There are approximately how many physicians practicing in the United States
Answer
  • a. 100,000
  • b. 180,000
  • c. 800,000
  • d. 8,000,000

Question 58

Question
58. VA Hospitals are an example of
Answer
  • a. Investor owned hospitals.
  • b. Private for profit hospitals
  • c. Private not for profit hospitals
  • d. Public hospitals

Question 59

Question
59. Verifying the identity of people who attempt to access information for an EMR
Answer
  • a. Authentication
  • b. Authorization
  • c. Encryption
  • d. All of the above.

Question 60

Question
60. Violating the rules of a 501(c)3 designation results in
Answer
  • a. Assessment of additional taxes on individuals receiving benefits from a not for profit organization
  • b. Assessment of additional taxes on the organization
  • c. Loss of 501(c)3 status
  • d. No penalty

Question 61

Question
61. What does ‘MUA’ stand for?
Answer
  • a. Metropolitan Utilization Area
  • b. Medically Underserved Area
  • c. Metropolitan Underserved Area
  • d. Medical Utilization Area

Question 62

Question
62. What financial benefit does a small rural hospital reap by qualifying for the designation ‘Critical Access Hospital’?
Answer
  • a. It can receive specific federal grants for serving vulnerable populations
  • b. It can use its beds for either acute care or long-term care as needed
  • c. It can increase its profitability by receiving special payments for emergency services
  • d. It can receive cost-plus reimbursement under Medicare Part A

Question 63

Question
63. Which of the following statements is true
Answer
  • a. Compared to other wealthy countries, the U.S. has too many physicians
  • b. Compared to other wealthy countries, the U.S. has too many specialists
  • c. Compared to other wealthy countries, the U.S. has too many hospital beds
  • d. Compared to other wealthy countries, the U.S. has a higher quality healthcare system.

Question 64

Question
64. Which of the following is not a basic managerial function
Answer
  • a. Controlling
  • b. Governing
  • c. Organizing
  • d. Planning

Question 65

Question
65. Which of the following sentences is false?
Answer
  • a. There is an imbalance between primary and specialty care services in the U.S. healthcare delivery system
  • b. Since 1980 there has been a decreasing number of international medical graduates
  • c. Specialists provide more complex services resulting in higher reimbursement
  • d. As the health care delivery system developed in the U.S. it emphasized specialization over primary care.

Question 66

Question
66. Which of the following statements is false?
Answer
  • a. Half of a healthcare organization’s costs are usually labor costs
  • b. Registered nurses undergo the same training as licensed practical nurses
  • c. An EMR system may eliminate the need for some healthcare support positions.
  • d. The number of nurses trained but not working would cover the current nursing shortage.

Question 67

Question
67. The Employee Retirement Income Security Act (ERISA) 1974
Answer
  • a. Exempts self-insured plans from certain mandatory benefits
  • b. Mandates that employers provide comprehensive health coverage benefits
  • c. Requires that low-income individuals be charged a lower premium
  • d. Outlawed discrimination in health insurance and retirement benefits.

Question 68

Question
68. Which of the following statements is true about midlevel providers?
Answer
  • a. Midlevel providers fill physician shortages in rural areas
  • b. Midlevel providers can bill at the same level as Hospitalists
  • c. Midlevel providers complete as much medical training as primary care physicians.
  • d. Midlevel providers must have a nursing background.

Question 69

Question
69. Which ownership type constitutes the largest group of hospitals and hospital beds in the United States?
Answer
  • a. Private for-profit
  • b. Federal government
  • c. Private non-profit
  • d. State and local government

Question 70

Question
70. Which type of health care facility employs the most healthcare workers?
Answer
  • a. Physician offices and clinics
  • b. Hospitals
  • c. Nursing and personal care facilities
  • d. None of the above.
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