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Piloto AVIANCA Proceso Seleccion Copilotos 2017 Quiz on AVIANCA , created by Adriana Forero on 28/01/2017.
Adriana Forero
Quiz by Adriana Forero, updated more than 1 year ago
Adriana Forero
Created by Adriana Forero about 7 years ago
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Resource summary

Question 1

Question
(Refer to figure 7.) What weather conditions are depicted within the area indicated by arrow D?
Answer
  • Forecast isolated embedded cumulonimbus clouds with tops at 43.000 feet MSL, and less than1/8coverage.
  • Existing isolated cumulonimbus clouds, tops above 43.000 feet with less than 1/8 coverage.
  • Forecast isolated thunderstorm, tops at FL 440, more than 1/8 coverage.

Question 2

Question
(Refer to figure 7.) What weather conditions are depicted within the area indicated by arrow E?
Answer
  • Frequent lighting in thunderstorms at FL370.
  • Frequent embedded thunderstorms, less than 1/8 coverage, and tops at FL370.
  • Occasional cumulonimbus, 1/8 to 4/8 coverage, bases below 24.000feet MSL, and tops at 40.000 feet MSL.

Question 3

Question
(Refer to figure 7.) What information in indicated by arrow A?
Answer
  • The height of the tropopause in hundreds of feet above MSL.
  • The height of the existing layer of CAT.
  • The height of the tropopause in meters above sea level.

Question 4

Question
(Refer to figure 7.) What weather conditions are predicted within the area indicated by arrow C?
Answer
  • Moderate to sever CAT has been reported at FL 320.
  • Moderate turbulence at 32.000 feet MSL.
  • Light turbulence at FL 370 within the area outlined by dashes.

Question 5

Question
(Refer to figure 7.) What weather conditions are depicted within the area indicated by arrow F?
Answer
  • 2/8 to 6/8 coverage, occasional embedded thunderstorms, tops at FL 540.
  • Occasionally embedded cumulonimbus, bases below 24.000 feet with tops to 48.000 feet.
  • 1/8 to 4/8 coverage, occasional embedded thunderstorms, maximum tops at 51.000 feet MSL.

Question 6

Question
As power is reduced to change airspeed from high to low cruise in level flight, which instruments are primary for pitch, bank, and power, respectively?
Answer
  • Altimeter, heading indicator, and manifold pressure gauge or tachometer.
  • Altimeter, attitude indicator, and airspeed indicator.
  • Attitude indicator, heading indicator, and manifold pressure gauge or tachometer.

Question 7

Question
Which condition would INITIALLY cause the indicated airspeed and pitch to increase and the sink rate to decrease?
Answer
  • Sudden increase in a headwind component.
  • Tailwind which suddenly increases in velocity.
  • Sudden decrease in the headwind component.

Question 8

Question
Which wind-shear condition results in an increase in airpeed?
Answer
  • Decreasing tailwind and increasing headwind.
  • Increasing tailwind and headwind.
  • Increasing tailwind and decreasing headwind.

Question 9

Question
Which INTIAL cockpit indications should a pilot be awere of when a constant tailwind shears to a calm wind?
Answer
  • Altitude, pitch, and indicated airspeed increase.
  • Altitude, pitch, and indicated airspeed decrease.
  • Altitude increases; pitch and indicated airspeed decrease.

Question 10

Question
What is the pilots responsability for the clearance or instruction readback?
Answer
  • Read back the entire clearance or instruction to confirm the message is understood.
  • If the clearance or instruction is understood, and acknowledgement is sufficient.
  • Except for SIDs, read back altitude assignmets, altitude restrictions, and vectors.

Question 11

Question
The conditions most favorable to wave formation over mountainous areas are a layer of
Answer
  • Moist, unstable air at mountaintop altitude and a wind of less than 5 knots blowing across the ridge.
  • Unstable air at mountaintop altitude and a wind of at least 20 knots blowing across the ridge.
  • Stable air at mountaintop altitude and a wind of at least 20 knots blowing across the ridge.

Question 12

Question
Constant speed propellers operate the same on an internal combustion engine as they do on most turboprop engines because they both
Answer
  • Use a propeller governor and turbine/turbocharger air to pneumatically control the engine RPM in flight
  • Use engine oil and a propeller governor to maintain a given RPM set by the pilot
  • Use a hydraulic oil system to feed an over speed solenoid

Question 13

Question
What response is expected when ATC issues an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
Answer
  • Read-back should be unsolicited and spontaneous to confirm that the pilot understands all instructions.
  • Read back those parts containing altitude assignments or vectors and any part requiring verification.
  • Read back the entire clearance as required by regulation.

Question 14

Question
(Refer to Figures 43 and 43A.) What is the difference in elevation (in feet MSL) between the airport elevation and the TDZE for RWY 36L?
Answer
  • 22 feet.
  • 18 feet.
  • 15 feet.

Question 15

Question
What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to the left from an east heading in the Northern Hemisphere?
Answer
  • The compass will indicate the approximate correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn is smooth.
  • The compass will remain on east for a short time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic heading of the aircraft.
  • The compass will initially indicate a turn to the right.

Question 16

Question
What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to the right from an easterly heading in the Northern Hemisphere?
Answer
  • The compass will indicate the approximate correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn is smooth.
  • The compass will remain on east for a short time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic heading of the aircraft.
  • The compass will initially indicate a turn to the left.

Question 17

Question
What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to the right from a south heading in the Northern Hemisphere?
Answer
  • The compass will indicate a turn to the right, but at a faster rate than is actually occurring.
  • The compass will remain on south for a short time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic heading of the aircraft.
  • The compass will initially indicate a turn to the left.

Question 18

Question
What should be the indication on the magnetic compass when you roll into a standard rate turn to the left from a south heading in the Northern Hemisphere?
Answer
  • Thecompasswillremainonsouthforashorttime,thengraduallycatchuptothemagneticheadingofthe aircraft.
  • The compass will initially indicate a turn to the right.
  • The compass will indicate a turn to the left, but at a faster rate than is actually occurring.

Question 19

Question
What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to the right from a westerly heading in the Northern Hemisphere?
Answer
  • The compass will indicate the approximate correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn is smooth.
  • The compass will remain on a westerly heading for a short time, then gradually catch up to the actual heading of the aircraft.
  • Thecompasswillinitiallyshowaturnintheoppositedirection,thenturntoanortherlyindicationbutlagging behind the actual heading of the aircraft.

Question 20

Question
What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to the right from a northerly heading in the Northern Hemisphere?
Answer
  • Thecompasswillremainonnorthforashorttime,thengraduallycatchuptothemagneticheadingofthe aircraft.
  • The compass will initially indicate a turn to the left.
  • The compass will indicate a turn to the right, but at a faster rate than is actually occurring.

Question 21

Question
What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to the left from a west heading in the Northern Hemisphere?
Answer
  • The compass will indicate the approximate correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn is smooth.
  • The compass will remain on west for a short time, then gradually catch up to th e magnetic heading of the aircraft.
  • The compass will initially indicate a turn to the right.

Question 22

Question
What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to the left from a north heading in the Northern Hemisphere?
Answer
  • Thecompasswillremainonnorthforashorttime,thengraduallycatchuptothemagneticheadingofthe aircraft.
  • The compass will initially indicate a turn to the right.
  • The compass will indicate a turn to the left, but at a faster rate than is actually occurring.

Question 23

Question
If the same angle of attack is maintained in ground effect as when out of ground effect, lift will
Answer
  • increase, and induced drag will increase
  • decrease, and parasite drag will increase.
  • increase, and induced drag will decrease.

Question 24

Question
Clear air turbulence (CAT) associated with a mountain wave may extend as fas as
Answer
  • 100 miles or more upwind of the mountain.
  • 5,000 feet above the tropopause.
  • 1,000 miles or more downstream of the mountain.

Question 25

Question
In turbine engine jargon, a Hot Start is when:
Answer
  • TheITT/EGT rises rapidly and exceeds limitations before sufficient turbine/compressor rotation is obtained
  • The EGT rises rapidly before the N1/N2N/3 reach sufficient speed and the engine is about to exceed limitations
  • The outside air temperature is above ISA + 45º C

Question 26

Question
When the approach procedure involves a procedure turn, the maximum speed should not be greater than
Answer
  • 250 knots IAS.
  • 200 knots IAS.
  • 180 knots IAS.

Question 27

Question
Vat is defined as speed at threshold based on 1.3 times stall speed in the landing configuration as:
Answer
  • Maximum certificated takeoff mass
  • Minimum certificated landing mass
  • Maximum certificated landing mass

Question 28

Question
While cruising at 160 knots, you wish to establish a climb at 130 knots. When entering the climb (full panel), it is proper to make the initial pitch change by increasing back elevator pressure until the
Answer
  • Attitude indicator shows the approximate pitch attitude appropriate for the 130-knot climb.
  • Vertical speed indication reaches the predetermined rate of climb.
  • Attitude indicator, airspeed, and vertical speed indicate a climb.

Question 29

Question
While cruising at 190 knots, you wish to establish a climb at 160 knots. When entering the climb (full panel), it would be proper to make the initial pitch change by increasing back elevator pressure until the
Answer
  • Airspeed indication reaches 160 knots.
  • Attitude indicator, airspeed, and vertical speed indicate a climb.
  • Attitude indicator shows the approximate pitch attitude appropriate for the 160-knot climb.

Question 30

Question
Which is a characteristic of low-level wind shear as it relates to frontal activity?
Answer
  • Turbulence will always exist in wind-shear conditions.
  • With a cold front, the most critical period is just before the front passes the airport.
  • With a warm front, the most critical period is before the front passes the airport.

Question 31

Question
What instruments are primary for pitch, bank, and power, respectively, when transitioning into a constant airspeed climb from straight-and-level flight?
Answer
  • Vertical speed, attitude indicator, and manifold pressure or tachometer.
  • Attitude indicator for both pitch and bank airspeed indicator for power.
  • Attitude indicator, heading indicator, and manifold pressure gauge or tachometer.

Question 32

Question
What type measurement is used to rate power on Jet or Fanjet engines
Answer
  • Shaft horsepower (SHP)
  • Brake horse power
  • Pounds of thrust

Question 33

Question
If while on a hold and this is not your IAF, you lose 2 way voice communications, you should:
Answer
  • Stay on the hold until your EAT
  • Immediately fly in VMC and land as soon as possible
  • Leave the hold at the EFC time

Question 34

Question
If a half-standard rate turn is maintained, how long would it take to turn 360°?
Answer
  • 4 minutes
  • 2 minutes.
  • 1 minute.

Question 35

Question
En route at FL290, the altimeter is set correctly, but not reset to the local altimeter setting of 30.57" Hg during descent. If the field elevation is 650 feet and the altimeter is functioning properly, what is the approximate indication upon landing?
Answer
  • Sea level.
  • 1,300 feet
  • 715 feet.

Question 36

Question
In order to fly a route where you plan to fly with an IFR approved GPS as the primary means of navigation from airport A direct to airport B, you need:
Answer
  • A WAC VFR chart since GPS is not certified for enroute navigation
  • GPS navigation chart since airways will not be used
  • Hi or Lo enroute chart

Question 37

Question
What is the procedure for setting the altimeter when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or higher on a direct flight off airways?
Answer
  • Set the altimeter to the current reported setting for climb out and 29.92" Hg upon reaching 18,000 feet.
  • Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting until reaching the assigned altitude, then set to 29.92" Hg.
  • Set the altimeter to 29.92" Hg before takeoff.

Question 38

Question
The maximum aircraft operations holding speed (kts) above 14.000 ft to 20.000 ft, according OACI:
Answer
  • 265
  • 240
  • 230

Question 39

Question
Wich weather condition is defined as an anticyclone?
Answer
  • Calm.
  • High pressure area.
  • COL.

Question 40

Question
Where do squall lines most often develop?
Answer
  • Ahead of a cold front.
  • In a cold air mass.
  • In an occluded front.

Question 41

Question
The wind system associated with a low-pressure area in the Northern Hemisphere is
Answer
  • An anticyclone and is caused by Coriolis force.
  • A cyclone and is caused by Coriolis force
  • An anticyclone and is caused by descending cold air.

Question 42

Question
Modern aircraft electrical systems normally consist of
Answer
  • 12v AC lead-acid batteries and 24v DC static generators
  • Engine generators delivering 115v AC including 400Hz and 24v DC systems
  • Standard 350v 600 Hz AC with step-up transformers

Question 43

Question
En una aproximación ADF la altura mínima de descenso es de:
Answer
  • 350 pies
  • 450 pies
  • 500 pies

Question 44

Question
What pretakeoff check should be made of the attitude indicator in preparation for an IFR flight?
Answer
  • The horizon bar should erect and become stable within 5 minutes
  • The horizon bar does not vibrate during warmup.
  • The miniature airplane should erect and become stable within 5 minutes.

Question 45

Question
What pretakeoff check should be made of a vacuum-driven heading indicator in preparation for an IFR flight?
Answer
  • Determine that the heading indicator does not precess more than 2° in 5 minutes of ground operation.
  • After 5 minutes, check that the heading indicator card aligns itself with the magnetic heading of the aircraft.
  • After 5minutes,set the indicator to the magnetic heading of the aircraft and check for proper alignment after taxi turns.

Question 46

Question
14 CFR part 1 defines VY as
Answer
  • Speed for best rate of climb.
  • Speed for best angle of climb.
  • Speed for best rate of descent.

Question 47

Question
What flight planning information can a pilot derive from constant pressure charts?
Answer
  • Winds and temperatures aloft.
  • Levels of widespread cloud coverage.
  • Clear air turbulence and icing conditions.

Question 48

Question
What instruments are considered supporting bank instruments during a straight, stabilized climb at a constant rate?
Answer
  • Heading indicator and attitude indicator.
  • Attitude indicator and turn coordinator.
  • Heading indicator and turn coordinator.

Question 49

Question
Airplane wing loading during a level coordinated turn in smooth air depends upon the
Answer
  • True airspeed
  • Angle of bank.
  • Rate of turn.

Question 50

Question
If the outside air temperature increases during a flight at constant power and at a constant indicated altitude, the true airspeed will
Answer
  • Increase and true altitude will increase.
  • Increase and true altitude will decrease.
  • Decrease and true altitude will increase.

Question 51

Question
What effect does landing at high elevation airports have on groundspeed with comparable conditions relative to temperature, wind and airplane weight?
Answer
  • The same as at low elevation
  • Lower than at low elevation. c.
  • Higher than at low elevation.

Question 52

Question
If an airplane is consuming 95 pounds of fuel per hour at a cruising altitude of 6500 feet and the groundspeed is 173 knots , how much fuel is required to travle 450 NN?
Answer
  • 284 pounds
  • 265 pounds
  • 112 kg

Question 53

Question
If you fly into severe turbulence, which flight condition should you attempt to maintain?
Answer
  • Constant altitude and constant airspeed
  • Level flight attitude.
  • Constant airspeed (VA).

Question 54

Question
What is the lowest cloud in the stationary group associated with moutain wave?
Answer
  • Low Stratus
  • Standing Lenticular
  • Rotor Cloud

Question 55

Question
La parte cuarta del RAC corresponde a:
Answer
  • Normas de aeronavegabilidad y Operación de aeronaves
  • Personal Aeronáutico
  • Aeródromos e instalaciones

Question 56

Question
One characteristic that a properly functioning gyro depends upon for operation is the
Answer
  • Deflecting force developed from the angular velocity of the spinning wheel.
  • Resistance to deflection of the spinning wheel or disc.
  • Ability to resist precession 90° to any applied force.

Question 57

Question
Conditions that determine the pitch attitude required to maintain level flight are
Answer
  • Relative wind, pressure altitude, and vertical lift component.
  • Flightpath, wind velocity, and angle of attack.
  • Airspeed, air density, wing design, and angle of attack.

Question 58

Question
On an approach to an airport, you have been advised you are in radar contact and are vectored for the approach, the controller asks you fly slightly below the MEA, you should:
Answer
  • Obey so long as you are not asked to fly below the Minimum Vectoring Altitude in IMC
  • Obey to all instructions since you were advised to be in radar contact.
  • Not obey, since you may be in or encounter clouds

Question 59

Question
Which weather conditions should be expected beneath a low-level temperature inversion layer when the relative humidity is high?
Answer
  • Light wind shear and poor visibility due t haze and light rain.
  • Turbulence air and poor visibility due to fog, low stratus-type clouds, and showery precipitation.
  • Smooth air and poor visibility due to fog, haze, r low clouds.

Question 60

Question
Which is the correct sequence for recovery from a spiraling, nose-low, increasing airspeed, unusual flight attitude?
Answer
  • Reduce power, raise the nose to level attitude, and correct the bank attitude.
  • Reduce power, correct the bank attitude, and raise the nose to a level attitude.
  • Increase pitch attitude, reduce power, and level wings.

Question 61

Question
Altimeter setting is the value to which the scale of the pressure altimeter is set so the altimeter indicates
Answer
  • Pressure altitude at sea level.
  • Pressure al titude at field elevation.
  • True altitude at field elevation.

Question 62

Question
On a wing, the force of lift acts perpendicular to, and the force of drag acts parallel to the
Answer
  • Longitudinal axis.
  • Flightpath.
  • Chord line.

Question 63

Question
(Refer to figure 31, point 1) The floor of the Class E airspace above Georgetown Airport (Q61) is at
Answer
  • 3,823 feet MSL.
  • The surface.
  • 700 feet AGL.

Question 64

Question
Runway center line lights are:
Answer
  • Red for the last 1.000 Ft of the runway
  • White and spaced every 25 Ft except for the last 500 Ft which are red
  • White and green

Question 65

Question
Where are position reports required on an IFR flight on airway or routes?
Answer
  • When requested to change altitude or advise of weather conditions.
  • Only where specifically requested by ARTCC.
  • Over all designated compulsory reporting points.

Question 66

Question
You filed from SKBO to SKMD W23-ABL-W36-FELIX-W25-RNG. Just before ABL you experience 2 way Com. Failure and just before this you were told to fly ABL Direct RNG. With regards to the correct route to fly you should:
Answer
  • As you cross ABL, fly direct RNG
  • Continue your flight route as per original flight plan as it was read back on ground to clearance delivery before takeoff.
  • Maintain present course and filed altitude until Com is reestablished

Question 67

Question
An abbreviated departure clearance “...CLEARED AS FILED...” will always contain the name
Answer
  • Of the first compulsory reporting point if not in a radar environment
  • Of the destination airport filed in the flight plan
  • And number of the STAR to be flown when filed in the flight plan.

Question 68

Question
What is the significance of an ATC clearance which reads “...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...?
Answer
  • ThepilotisauthorizedtoconductflightatanyaltitudefromminimumIFRaltitudeuptoandincluding6,000, but each change in altitude must be reported to ATC.
  • It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and including 6,000.
  • Thepilotmustmaintain6,000untilreachingtheIAFservingthedestinationairport,thenexecutethepublished approach procedure.

Question 69

Question
What does good cockpit stress management begin with?
Answer
  • Eliminating life and cockpit stress issues.
  • Good life stress management.
  • Knowing what causes stress.

Question 70

Question
What indication should be observed on a turn coordinator during a left turn while taxiing?
Answer
  • Both the miniature aircraft and the ball will remain centered.
  • The miniature aircraft will show a turn to the left and the ball moves to the right.
  • The miniature aircraft will show a turn to the left and the ball remains centered.

Question 71

Question
What is the standard temperature at 10,000 feet?
Answer
  • +5°C.
  • -15°C.
  • -5°C.

Question 72

Question
What is the standard temperature at 20,000 feet?
Answer
  • -25°C.
  • -20°C.
  • -15°C.

Question 73

Question
For aircraft other than helicopters, is an alternate airport required for an IFR flight to ATL (Atlanta Hartsfield) if the proposed ETA is 1930Z?, TAF KATL 121720Z 121818 20012KT 5SM HZ BKN030 FM2000 3SM TSRA OVC025CB FM2200 33015G20KT P6SM BKN015 OVC040 BECMG 0608 02008KT BKN 040 BECMG 1012 00000KT P6SM CLR=
Answer
  • Yes, because the ceiling could fall below 2,000 feet within 2 hours before to 2 hours after the ETA.
  • No, because the ceiling and visibility are forecast to remain at or above 1,000 feet and 3 miles, respectively.
  • No,because the ceiling and visibility are forecast to be at or above 2,000 feet and 3miles within 1hour before to 1 hour after the ETA.

Question 74

Question
Where does wind shear occur?
Answer
  • With either a wind shift or a wind speed gradient at any level in the atmosphere.
  • Wherever there is an abrupt decrease in pressure and/or temperature.
  • Exclusively in thunderstorms.

Question 75

Question
Which is true regarding the use of a Instrument Departure Procedure (DP) chart?
Answer
  • TouseaDP,thepilotmustpossessboththetextualandgraphicformoftheapprovedstandarddeparture
  • To use a DP, the pilot must possess at least the textual description of the approved standard departure.
  • At airfields where DP's have been established, DP usage is mandatory for IFR departures.

Question 76

Question
An early part of the Aeronautical Decision Making (ADM) process involves
Answer
  • Obtaining proper flight instruction and experience during training.
  • Understanding the drive to have the 'right stuff.'
  • Taking a self-assessment hazardous attitude inventory test.

Question 77

Question
The Aeronautical Decision Making (ADM) process identifies the steps involved in good decision making. One of these steps includes a pilot
Answer
  • Making a rational evaluation of the required actions.
  • Developing the 'right stuff' attitude.
  • Identifying personal attitudes hazardous to safe flight.

Question 78

Question
What wind condition prolongs the hazard of the wake turbulence on a landing runway for the longest period of time?
Answer
  • Light quartering headwind.
  • Light quartering tailwind
  • Direct tailwind.

Question 79

Question
Why does the wind have a tendency to flow parallel to the isobars above the friction level?
Answer
  • Friction of the air with the Earth deflects the air perpendicular to the pressure gradient.
  • Coriolis force acts perpendicular to a light connecting the highs and lows.
  • Coriolis force tends to counterbalance the horizontal pressure gradient.

Question 80

Question
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right and the aircraft is rolled out to straight-and-level flight by visual references, the attitude indicator
Answer
  • May show a slight climb and turn.
  • Will show a slight skid and climb to the right.
  • Should immediately show straight-and-level flight.

Question 81

Question
As power is increased to enter a 500 feet per minute rate of climb in straight flight, which instruments are primary for pitch, bank, and power respectively?
Answer
  • Airspeed indicator, attitude indicator, and manifold pressure gauge or tachometer.
  • VSI, attitude indicator, and airspeed indicator.
  • Attitude indicator, heading indicator, and manifold pressure gauge or tachometer.

Question 82

Question
If the airplane attitude initially tends to return to its original position after the elevator control is pressed forward and released, the airplane displays
Answer
  • Neutral dynamic stability.
  • Positive static stability.
  • Positive dynamic stability.

Question 83

Question
If the airplane attitude remains in a new position after the elevator control is pressed forward and released, the airplane displays
Answer
  • Neutral longitudinal dynamic stability.
  • Positive longitudinal static stability.
  • Neutral longitudinal static stability.

Question 84

Question
At an altitude of 6,500 feet MSL, the current altimeter setting is 30.42" Hg. The pressure altitude would be approximately
Answer
  • 6,500 feet.
  • 6,000 feet.
  • 7,500 feet.

Question 85

Question
Which is a common symptom of hyperventilation?
Answer
  • A sense of well-being.
  • Decreased breathing rate.
  • Drowsiness.

Question 86

Question
The glide slope and localizer are centered, but the airspeed is too fast. Which should be adjusted initially?
Answer
  • Pitch only.
  • Power only.
  • Pitch and power.

Question 87

Question
Todo artículo que contiene una o mas sustancias explosivas se denomina:
Answer
  • Liquido pirofórico.
  • Artículo explosivo.
  • Incompatible.

Question 88

Question
Preferred IFR routes beginning with a fix indicate that departing aircraft will normally be routed to the fix by
Answer
  • Direct route only.
  • An instrument departure procedure (DP), or radar vectors.
  • The established airway(s) between the departure airport and the fix.

Question 89

Question
Stability can be determined from which measurement of the atmosphere?
Answer
  • Atmospheric pressure.
  • Ambient lapse rate.
  • Low-level winds.

Question 90

Question
Una autorización de salida en plan IFR debe contener en su orden:
Answer
  • Restricciones, Limite, Mantenga, Vía
  • Vía, Mantenga, Limite y Restricciones
  • Limite, Vía, Mantenga y Restricciones

Question 91

Question
What is the primary bank instrument once a standard rate turn is established?
Answer
  • Heading indicator.
  • Turn coordinator.
  • Attitude indicator.

Question 92

Question
What is the initial primary bank instrument when establishing a level standard rate turn?
Answer
  • Attitude indicator.
  • Heading indicator.
  • Turn coordinator.

Question 93

Question
A pilot planning to depart at 1100z on an IFR flight is particularly concerned about the hazard of icing. What sources reflect the most accurate information on icing conditions (current and forecast) at the time of departure?
Answer
  • Pilot weather reports (PIREPs), AIRMETs, and SIGMETs
  • The Area Forecast, and the Freezing Level Chart.
  • Low-level Significant Weather Prognostic Chart, and the Area Forecast.

Question 94

Question
What effect would a light corsswind have on the wingtip vortices generated by large airplane that has just taken off?
Answer
  • The downwind vortex will tend to remain on the runway longer than the upwind vortex.
  • A crosswind will rapidly dissipate the strength of both vortices.
  • The upwind vortex will tend to remain on the runway longer than the downwind vortex.

Question 95

Question
The difference among a PUBLISHED ROUTE and UNPLUBLISHED ROUTE is:
Answer
  • PUBLISHED is authorized route and UNPUBLISHED is non authorized route
  • PUBLISHED is for IFR flights only and UNPUBLISHED is for VFR flights only
  • PUBLISHED route include minimum en-route altitude and the other do not

Question 96

Question
To level off at an airspeed higher than the descent speed, the addition of power should be made, assuming a 500 FPM rate of descent, at approximately
Answer
  • 150 to 200 feet above the desired altitude.
  • 100 to 150 feet above the desired altitude.
  • 50 to 100 feet above the desired altitude.

Question 97

Question
When airspeed is decreased in a turn, what must be done to maintain level flight?
Answer
  • Increase the angle of attack.
  • Increase the angle of bank and/or decrease the angle of attack.
  • Decrease the angle of bank and/or increase the angle of attack.

Question 98

Question
For maintaining level flight at constant thrust, which instrument would be the least appropriate for determining the need for a pitch change?
Answer
  • Attitude indicator.
  • VSI.
  • Altimeter.

Question 99

Question
When holding at an NDB, at what point should the timing begin for the second leg outbound?
Answer
  • When abeam the holding fix.
  • When the wings are level after completing the turn to the outbound heading, or abeam the fix, whichever occurs first.
  • Whenthewingsarelevelandthewinddriftcorrectionangleisestablishedaftercompletingtheturntothe outbound heading.

Question 100

Question
Which instruments should be used to make a pitch correction when you have deviated from your assigned altitude?
Answer
  • Attitude indicator, altimeter, and VSI.
  • Manifold pressure gauge and VSI.
  • Altimeter and VSI.

Question 101

Question
Aircraft hydraulic systems use:
Answer
  • Aircraft grade DOT 4 brake fluid
  • Hydraulic fluid
  • Aviation grade engine oil as standard fluid

Question 102

Question
What is the advantage of HIRL or MIRL on an IFR runway as compared to a VFR runway?
Answer
  • Alternate red and white lights replace the white on the last 3,000 feet of the runway for caution zone.
  • Amber lights replace white on the last 2,000 feet of runway for caution zone.
  • Lights are closed together and easily distinguinished from surrounding lights.

Question 103

Question
Pressure altitude is the altitude read on your altimeter when the instrument is adjusted to indicate height above.
Answer
  • Ground level.
  • The standard datum plane.
  • Sea level.

Question 104

Question
Which procedure should you follow to avoid wake turbulence if a large jet crosses your course from left to right approximately 1 mile ahead and at your altitude?
Answer
  • Make sure you are slightly below the path of the jet and perpendicular to the course.
  • Slow your airspeed to VA and maintain altitude and course.
  • Make sure you are slightly above the path of the jet.

Question 105

Question
During an IFR flight in IMC, a distress condition is encountered, (fire, mechanical, or structural failure). The pilot should
Answer
  • Contact ATC and advise that an urgency condition exists and request priority consideration.
  • Wait until the situation is immediately perilous before declaring an emergency.
  • Not hesitate to declare an emergency and obtain an amended clearance.

Question 106

Question
If both the ram air input and the drain hole of the pitot system are blocked, what reaction should you observe on the airspeed indicator when power is applied and a climb is initiated out of severe icing conditions?
Answer
  • No change until an actual climb rate is established, then indicated airspeed will increase.
  • The airspeed would drop to, and remain at, zero.
  • The indicated airspeed would show a continuous deceleration while climbing.

Question 107

Question
How can you obtain the pressure altitude on flights below 18,000 feet?
Answer
  • Contact an FSS and ask for the pressure altitude.
  • Use your computer to change the indicated altitude to pressure altitude.
  • Set your altimeter to 29.92" Hg.

Question 108

Question
At what point should the timing begin for the first leg outbound in a nonstandard holding pattern?
Answer
  • When over or abeam the holding fix, whichever occurs later.
  • When the wings are level at the completion of the 180° turn outbound.
  • Abeam the holding fix, or wings level, whichever occurs last.

Question 109

Question
Which instruments, in addition to the attitude indicator, are pitch instruments?
Answer
  • Altimeter, airspeed indicator, and vertical speed indicator.
  • Altimeter and VSI only.
  • Altimeter and airspeed only.

Question 110

Question
Si un vuelo IFR nocturno se realiza en una FIR, será un vuelo:
Answer
  • Controlado si las condiciones son IMC
  • Controlado como todo IFR
  • NO controlado

Question 111

Question
What performance is characteristic of flight at maximum lift/drag ratio in a propeller-driven airplane? Maximum
Answer
  • Coefficient of lift and minimum coefficient of drag.
  • Range and maximum distance glide.
  • Gain in altitude over a given distance.

Question 112

Question
Under what condition should a piot on IFR advise ATC of minimum fuel status?
Answer
  • If the remaining fuel precludes any undue delay.
  • If the remaining fuel suggests a need for traffic or landing priority.
  • When the fuel supply becomes less than that required for IFR.

Question 113

Question
If severe turbulence is encountered, which procedure is recomended?
Answer
  • Mantain constant airspeed and altitude
  • Mantain a constant attitude.
  • Mantain a constant altitude.

Question 114

Question
What indication is presented by the miniature aircraft of the turn coordinator?
Answer
  • Quality of the turn.
  • Direct indication of the bank attitude and the quality of the turn.
  • Indirect indication of the bank attitude.

Question 115

Question
Which clearance procedures may be issued by ATC without prior pilot request?
Answer
  • DPs, STARs, and visual approaches.
  • Contact and visual approaches.
  • DPs, STARs, and contact approaches.

Question 116

Question
In which meteorological environment is aircraft structural icing most likely to have the highest rate of accumulation?
Answer
  • Freezing rain.
  • High humidity and freezing temperature.
  • Cumulonimbus clouds.

Question 117

Question
Under what conditions would clear air turbulence (CAT) most likely be encountered?
Answer
  • When a sharp trough is moving at a speed less than 20 knots.
  • When constant pressure charts show a 60-knot isotaches less than 20 NM apart.
  • When constant pressure charts show a 20-knot isotaches less than 60 NM apart.

Question 118

Question
During the transition from straight-and-level flight to a climb, the angle of attack is increased and lift
Answer
  • Is momentarily increased.
  • Remains the same.
  • Is momentarily decreased.

Question 119

Question
Which weather condition is present when the tropical strom is upgraded to a hurricane?
Answer
  • Sustained winds of 65 Knots or mire.
  • A clear area or hurricane eyes has formed.
  • Highest windspeed, 100 Knots or more.

Question 120

Question
Se define como aerovía:
Answer
  • El área de control dispuesta en forma de corredor y equipada con ayudas para la navegación.
  • El área comprendida entre dos aeropuertos conformada por 2 radio ayudas y con un ancho de 12 Millas náuticas.
  • El área controlada por la torre de control

Question 121

Question
For IFR planning purposes, what are the compulsory reporting points when using VOR/DME or VORTAC fixes to define a direct route not on established airways?
Answer
  • At the changeover points.
  • There are no compulsory reporting points unless advised by ATC.
  • Fixes selected to define the route.

Question 122

Question
The pressure altitude at a given location is indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is set to
Answer
  • The current altimeter setting
  • 29.92" Hg.
  • The field elevation.

Question 123

Question
If the airplane attitude initially tends to return to its original position after the elevator control is pressed forward and released, the airplane displays
Answer
  • Neutral dynamic stability.
  • Positive static stability.
  • Positive dynamic stability.

Question 124

Question
If the airplane attitude remains in a new position after the elevator control is pressed forward and released, the airplane displays
Answer
  • Neutral longitudinal dynamic stability.
  • Positive longitudinal static stability.
  • Neutral longitudinal static stability.

Question 125

Question
If the same angle of attack is maintained in ground effect as when out of ground effect, lift will
Answer
  • increase, and induced drag will increase
  • decrease, and parasite drag will increase.
  • increase,and induced drag will decrease.

Question 126

Question
As airspeed decreases in level flight below that speed for maximum lift/drag ratio, total drag of an airplane
Answer
  • Increases because of increased parasite drag.
  • Increases because of increased induced drag.
  • Decreases because of lower parasite drag.

Question 127

Question
Under what condition will true altitude be lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter setting of 29.92" Hg?
Answer
  • When density altitude is higher than indicated altitude.
  • In colder than standard air temperature.
  • In warmer than standard air temperature.

Question 128

Question
What is the primary bank instrument once a standard rate turn is established?
Answer
  • Heading indicator.
  • Turn coordinator.
  • Attitude indicator.

Question 129

Question
Which condition reduces the required runway for the takeoff?
Answer
  • Increase headwind component.
  • Lower-than-standard air density.
  • Higher-than-recomended airspeed before rotation.

Question 130

Question
The body of a Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF) covers a geographical proximity within a
Answer
  • 5 to 10 statute mile radius from the center of an airport runway complex.
  • 5 statute mile radius from the center of an airport runway complex.
  • 5 nautical mile radius of the center of an airport.

Question 131

Question
Which provides a graphic display of both VFR and IFR weather?
Answer
  • Weather Depiction Char
  • Radar Summary Chart.
  • Surface Weather Map.

Question 132

Question
In order to achieve a zero sideslip condition with a failed engine on a propeller aircraft, the pilot must:
Answer
  • Bank into the live engine slightly
  • Center the ball on the turn and slip indicator
  • Bank away from the live engine up to 5º

Question 133

Question
Si un vuelo IFR nocturno se realiza en una FIR, será un vuelo:
Answer
  • Controlado si las condiciones son IMC
  • Controlado como todo IFR
  • NO controlado

Question 134

Question
Si un vuelo IFR nocturno se realiza en un FIR, será un vuelo:
Answer
  • NO controlado si las condiciones son VMC
  • Controlado si las condiciones son IMC
  • NO controlado

Question 135

Question
Straight departure is one in which the initial departure track is within:
Answer
  • 25° of the alignment of the runway center line
  • 15° of the alignment of the runway center line
  • 5° of the alignment of the runway center line

Question 136

Question
(Refer to figure 32, point 6) The Class C airspace at Metropolitan Oakland International (OAK) which extends from the surface upward has a ceiling of
Answer
  • 2,100 feet AGL.
  • 8,000 feet MSL.
  • Both 2,100 feet and 3,000 feet MSL.

Question 137

Question
A “CRUISE FOUR THOUSAND FEET” clearance would mean that the pilot is authorized to
Answer
  • Use any altitude from minimum IFR to 4,000 feet, but must report leaving each altitude.
  • Climb to, but not descend from 4,000 feet, without further ATC clearance.
  • Vacate 4,000 feet without notifying ATC.

Question 138

Question
Rate of turn can be increased and radius of turn decreased by
Answer
  • Increasing airspeed and increasing the bank.
  • Decreasing airspeed and increasing the bank.
  • Decreasing airspeed and shallowing the bank.

Question 139

Question
You are in radar contact and ATC clears you to a lower altitude at pilot’s discretion, you should:
Answer
  • Descend as quickly as possible to relieve ATC of your traffic
  • Just descend at will since ATC will know your altitude at all times
  • Report leaving present altitude.

Question 140

Question
What characterizes a transient compressor stall?
Answer
  • Intermittent "bang", as backfires and flow reversal take place.
  • Sudden loss of thrust accompanied by loud whine.
  • Loud, steady roar accompanied by heavy shuddering.

Question 141

Question
(Refer to Figure 49.) Using an average ground speed of 90 knots, what constant rate of descent from 2,400 feet MSL at the 6 DME fix would enable the aircraft to arrive at 2,000 feet MSL at the FAF?
Answer
  • 600 feet per minute.
  • 400 feet per minute.
  • 200 feet per minute

Question 142

Question
If all ILS components are operating and the required visual references are not established, the missed approach should be initiated upon
Answer
  • Expiration of the time listed on the approach chart for missed approach.
  • Arrival at the middle marker.
  • Arrival at the DH on the glide slope.

Question 143

Question
Under which condition does ATC issue a STAR?
Answer
  • When ATC deems it appropriate, unless the pilot requests “No STAR.”
  • Only if the pilot requests a STAR in the “Remarks” section of the flight plan.
  • To all pilots wherever STAR’s are available.

Question 144

Question
Under what condition is pressure altitude and density altitude the same value?
Answer
  • When indicated, and pressure altitudes are the same value on the altimeter.
  • When the altimeter setting is 29.92" Hg.
  • At standard temperature.

Question 145

Question
En el espacio aéreo CTR se:
Answer
  • Provee separación de aeronaves en ruta
  • Establecen secuencias de aproximación por instrumentos
  • Organiza el tránsito en el círculo de aeródromo

Question 146

Question
To determine pressure altitude prior to takeoff, the altimeter should be set to
Answer
  • The field elevation and the pressure reading in the altimeter setting window noted.
  • 29.92 inches Hg and the altimeter indication noted.
  • The current altimeter setting.

Question 147

Question
What obstacle clearance and navigation signal coverage is a pilot assured with the Minimum Sector Altitudes depicted on the IAP charts?
Answer
  • 500 feet and acceptable navigation signal coverage within a 10 NM radius of the navigation facility.
  • 1,000 feet within a 25 NM radius of the navigation facility but not acceptable navigation signal coverage.
  • 1,000 feet and acceptable navigation signal coverage within a 25 NM radius of the navigation facility.
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